Recurrent Written Test Guide Flashcards
How is BURN fuel on a Flight Plan calculated?
Fuel burned in pounds based on, Forecast winds, route, including one Instrument approach/landing.
Do all cabin seats need to be assigned if the flight attendant jump seat is to be utilized?
No, the flight deck and FA jump seat may be assigned on a discretionary basis.
Must a Frontier employee have the letters ACM on the front of their Frontier Badge to occupy the Flight Deck jump seat?
Yes, unless the Frontier employee has a signed authorization from Flight Ops.
The ACM Jump-seat briefing card my be used to satisfy the ACM briefing Requirements?
True
Employees with knowledge of an accident involving an aircraft for which they performed a safety-sensitive or security-related function at or near the time of the accident may not use alcohol for_____ hours after the accident unless he or she has been given a post accident test for drugs and alcohol, or Frontier has demonstrated the their performance could not have contributed to the accident?
8
Which of the following qualifies Flight Crew to fly into Special Airports?
Within last 12 months, CA/FO have made an entry to include a takeoff and landing.
Within last 12 months, CA has qualified by using pictorial means for that airport.
Who has the authority to cancel a flight?
Only System Operation Control (SOC)
Which of the following requires an alternate airport?
(Select all that apply)
-If severe icing condition are forecast at the destination within one hour of the ETA a suitable alternate must be listed on the release. (Yes)
-Any flight released under supplemental operations, (Yes)
-When Dispatched Method 2, (Yes)
What is not required before a revenue flight may be blocked out?
The Final Flight Information list
If the planned route is changed by ATC prior to takeoff, and the resulting stage length is greater than _____ NM, the Captain must obtain an ARTR.
100NM
How is CONTINGENCY fuel calculated
Fuel in time/pounds based on holding 15,000” MSL at Green Dot.
Describe Method 2.
If an engines failures occurs, the aircraft will be able to divert to at least one suitable alternate (driftdown alternate) from flight planned cruise altitude and clear all obstacles 5 SM on either side of the route of flight by 2,000’ until reaching the diversion airport.
Which of the following would require an ARTR? (Select all that apply)
-An Alternate is added or changed
-An MEL is added
What does ALTN fuel on a plan consist of?
Climb to cruise flight altitude, cruise flight to most distant alternate, one approach and landing, planned at a cost index of 0.
Are Simple Special procedures mandatory to follow in both IMC and VMC? If so, what are the altitudes?
Yes, they are mandatory in IMC to 3,000” AFE and 1,000” AFE VMC unless otherwise specified.
Which are the ways to determine actual landing distance performance?
AWP solution or QHR landing distance performance section
What are some strategies dealing with weight restricted flights?
-Increase PMTOW or reducing tanker fuel (if any)
-Remove COMAT (not AOG)
-Obtain child counts
Which of the following are approved methods to get weight and balance information for departure?
-AWP Solution
-Computer-Generated W&B Manifest from Centralized Load Planning
-Manual W&B read back form in diversion kit
Which of the following fuel considerations are required prior to departure?
-The aircraft must have enough fuel to fly to the airport to which it is dispatched, then fly and land at the most distant alternate airport for which it is dispatched, and fly 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.
-When dispatched under OPS SPECs B043 the aircraft must have enough contingency if you want to fly for a period of 10% of that portion of the en route time were the aircraft position cannot be fixed at least once each hour.
-The aircraft must have enough fuel to consider one instrument approach and possible missed approach at the destination, wind and other weather conditions forecast, anticipated traffic delays and any other non-conditions that may delay landing of the aircraft.
When the first officer has less than 100 hours of flight time as SIC and the type airplane to be flown at Frontier, the captain must make all takeoff and landings and what conditions?
X-wind >15knots, When breaking action is less then “good”
Which of the following describes emergency authority?
In an emergency situation that requires immediate decision and action, the pilot in command may take any action necessary under the circumstances.
Who has operational control to refuse a passenger?
The CRO
Which of the following best describes method 1, (select all that apply)
If an engine failure occurs anywhere from V1 to the destination, the aircraft will clear all obstructions 5SM on either side of the intended route by 1000’ until reaching the destination.
Frontier is authorized contact approaches, EXCEPT?
(SA) CAT 1 Approaches
How can a flight crew determine if airport is “Terrain Sensitive”? (Select all that apply)
-Via a mountain symbol at the top of the first page on the AIP
-Via contours published on any SID, STAR, or approach procedures.
Which of the following statements is False?
When a discrepancy has been entered into the aircraft logbook, ONLY MCC must be notified.
Who must be notified after entering a discrepancy in the logbook?
MCC through the responsible dispatcher.
Which of the following is the correct way(s) to make a correction to a logbook entry?
-Do you correct a single word or phrase error, draw a line through the entry and add the corrected information adjacent to the lined out item.
– To correct an entry block draw, a diagonal line through the entry and write “entered in error” (or EIE) on the diagonal line.
How is “Reserve fuel” calculating?
Reserve fuel of 45 minute flight time based on last cruise altitude in the flight plan.
Which of the following logbook entries require a captain signature?
-Computer reset
- Follow up required
- Flight crew placard
Which of the following best describes the MEL (Minimum Equipment List)?
The MEL program allows for a temporary change in type design to address missing or inoperative equipment in order to maintain the validity of the airworthiness certificate.
Which of the following best describes the CDL (Configuration Deferral List)?
The CDL program allows for continued operations with missing secondary airframe and engine parts.
Which of the following best describes the NEF (Nonessential Furnishings)?
The NEF program allows the deferral of inoperative, damaged or missing items that will have no effect on the safe operation of the aircraft, and which are not required by certification standards or operating rules.
Which of the following best describes an ODM (other deferred maintenance)?
ODM items include deferral’s that are “crew visibility” in nature and utilize an INFO-ONLY placard to notify a crewmembers that the item on the placard has been documented and is being tracked by the maintenance department.
Is Frontier permitted to depart an airport VFR and then pick up an IFR clearance?
Yes, under certain weather conditions and provided an IFR clearance is obtained ASAP, but no further than 50NM from departure airport.
What is Class II navigation?
Any navigation conducted outside of Class I navigation
When is the autopilot required to be used to conduct an approach?
When the WX is <4000 RVR (3/4SM) and the autopilot is available for use.
Which of the following allowed to conduct in international airspace?
A “VMC Approach”
Prior to crossing FIR boundary for international flights, the flight crew should obtain the latest weather (METAR & TAF) for the destinations and alternate if applicable.
TRUE
Where is frontier authorized to conduct SLOPs?
Gulf of Mexico
How does the flight crew determine snowfall intensity when determining what holdover times to use?
-If another form of obscuration is being reported along with snow, (fog/haze/smoke), then use Tower reported snowfall intensity.
-If no obscuration is present on Tower report, then use “Snowfall Intensities As a function of prevailing Visibility” table on the De-ice Card
Anti-Ice with flaps/slats extended is permitted
False
De-ice with flaps/slats extended is permitted?
True
A flight can takeoff if the holdover time expires if the flight crew performs a pre-takeoff contamination check (From the Exit Row) within 5 minutes of advancing the thrust levers for takeoff.
True
When does the TARMAC delay clock start for departures.
5 minutes after PAX Board
An ARTR is required if a flight plan alternate is different then
that published on the dispatch release?
True
When is a security search required?
First flight of the day
International flights
A flight to Puerto Rico is not considered an international flight for security search purposes?
True
Captain must be notified of all individuals on board a flight that are carrying firearms?
True
What are 4 levels of threat?
1- Verbal
2-Physical
3-Imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury
4-Attempted or actual breach of the flight deck
Where can flight crews find a list of OPS SPECS C070 approved airports?
Airport Information Pages
Where can we find coded departure brief and instructions on how to uplink these routes into the MCDU?
Airport Information Pages
If an International flight diverts and does not clear customs, what does the flight need to continue to it’s destination
A Permit to Proceed
What does the TEST acronym consist of when giving the Emergency Prep?
T- Type of Emergency
E- Evacuation anticipated
S- Signals to brace, evacuate or remain seated as appropriate
T- Time remaining until landing
What is the purpose of the flight attendant emergency whistle?
To indicate a threat level 2,3 or 4 situation
When are manual engine starts recommended?
After aborting a start because of an engine stall, EGT over limit, or low starter air pressure.
Flight, BOTH Flight directors should be either on or off
True
Which is True regarding the announcement of FMA changes?
Workload permitting and unless specified otherwise e.g. (CAT 2/3 task sharing), all FMA changes (as indicated by the WHITE Box) will be announced by the PF below FL180. At or above FL180, the vertical and lateral mode changes (second and third columns of the FMA) will be announced s by the PF.
During preflight and prior to the application of electrical power, you notice the battery voltage is below 25.5Volts, how should you recharge the batteries?
Ensure external power is the supply to the aircraft and select the BAT 1/2 push buttons to the auto position.
On a preflight check, if engine oil quantity is not displayed on the ENG SD page, how should you check the oil quantity on a NEO
Set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR push button switches on the overhead maintenance panel to “ON” in order to display the engine oil quantity on the ENG SD page. After the check of the engine oil quantity, set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR push button switch to off.
When is a full ADIRU alignment required?
Before first flight of the day
Crew Change
Prior to International Flights or Class II airspace
When is a fast ADIRU alignment required?
Difference of >5NM between IRS and FMGC
During refueling, what might happen if the FUEL MODE SEL pb-sw is left in the MAN position on the ground and the CTR TK L XFER pb-sw are not in the Off position?
The center tanks fuel transfer will not stop when wing tanks become full and a fuel spill may occur
Just prior to pushback, if the NW STRG DISC is not displayed on the ECAM, but the ground crew confirms the steering selector bypass pin is in the towing position, what must the flight crew do?
Make a Logbook entry and contact MCC through Dispatch
If a heading is assigned by ATC prior to Takeoff, what HDG should be preset on the FCU to disarm NAV mode?
RWY HDG
No turns in heading mode will be commenced below____ AFE (VMC) or ______AFE (IMC) unless otherwise required by the departure procedure?
400”/1000”
How can you quickly determine if you can take shortcuts off your filled route if you are dispatched via method 2?
Refer to “Terrain Analysis Common Aircraft Weights” on the back of the Normal Checklists.
What altitude should be set on the FCU for a visual approach utilizing a published procedure as a back up reference?
The published missed approaching altitude for the approach being used.
What altitude should be set on the FCU for a visual approach with no procedure back up as a reference?
1500 feet AFE
Why is entering 0.3 on the PROG page on the MCDU for RNAV approaches required?
To ensure that the FMS stays in 0.3 for the missed approach rather than defaulting back to RNP 1.0.
Why is deselecting navigate in the MCDU for a RNAV RNP approach required?
In the event of GPS loss, IRS only navigation may be more accurate than DME/DME position updating in the short term.
Which of the following statements are TRUE if speed brakes are used above 315 kts/M .75 with the AP engaged?
Rate of retraction is slow, total for retraction at full extension is approximately 25 seconds
During the flare on the landing, the PM will monitor the pitch attitude on the PFD and call “Pitch” whenever approaching or reaching what pitch attitudes?
A320= 10 degrees
A321= 7.5 degrees
When should the after landing check be called for?
After clearing the runway and the aircraft is safely established on the taxiway, but not before taxiway/runway crossing restrictions are clearly understood by both crewmembers.
After landing, how long should we wait before starting the APU?
2 minutes after stowing thrust reverse’ s
After taxing in and during parking, you attempt to shut down an engine. However the engine does not shut down. What do you do?
Switch the affected Master lever to ON then OFF. If the engine still fails to shutdown. Press the affected ENG FIRE PB.
After parking the aircraft, you notice a maintenance status message (class 2 message). A logbook write up is required for the class 2 message that disappeared?
True
