Recurrent Written Test Guide Flashcards
1
Q
How is BURN fuel on a Flight Plan calculated?
A
Fuel burned in pounds based on, Forecast winds, route, including one Instrument approach/landing.
2
Q
Do all cabin seats need to be assigned if the flight attendant jump seat is to be utilized?
A
No, the flight deck and FA jump seat may be assigned on a discretionary basis.
3
Q
Must a Frontier employee have the letters ACM on the front of their Frontier Badge to occupy the Flight Deck jump seat?
A
Yes, unless the Frontier employee has a signed authorization from Flight Ops.
4
Q
The ACM Jump-seat briefing card my be used to satisfy the ACM briefing Requirements?
A
True
5
Q
Employees with knowledge of an accident involving an aircraft for which they performed a safety-sensitive or security-related function at or near the time of the accident may not use alcohol for_____ hours after the accident unless he or she has been given a post accident test for drugs and alcohol, or Frontier has demonstrated the their performance could not have contributed to the accident?
A
8
6
Q
Which of the following qualifies Flight Crew to fly into Special Airports?
A
Within last 12 months, CA/FO have made an entry to include a takeoff and landing.
Within last 12 months, CA has qualified by using pictorial means for that airport.
7
Q
Who has the authority to cancel a flight?
A
Only System Operation Control (SOC)
8
Q
Which of the following requires an alternate airport?
(Select all that apply)
A
-If severe icing condition are forecast at the destination within one hour of the ETA a suitable alternate must be listed on the release. (Yes)
-Any flight released under supplemental operations, (Yes)
-When Dispatched Method 2, (Yes)
9
Q
What is not required before a revenue flight may be blocked out?
A
The Final Flight Information list
10
Q
If the planned route is changed by ATC prior to takeoff, and the resulting stage length is greater than _____ NM, the Captain must obtain an ARTR.
A
100NM
11
Q
How is CONTINGENCY fuel calculated
A
Fuel in time/pounds based on holding 15,000” MSL at Green Dot.
12
Q
Describe Method 2.
A
If an engine failure occurs, the aircraft will be able to divert to at least one suitable alternate (driftdown alternate) from flight planned cruise altitude and clear all obstacles 5 SM on either side of the route of flight by 2,000’ until reaching the diversion airport.
13
Q
Which of the following would require an ARTR? (Select all that apply)
A
-An Alternate is added or changed
-An MEL is added
14
Q
What does ALTN fuel on a plan consist of?
A
Climb to cruise flight altitude, cruise flight to most distant alternate, one approach and landing, planned at a cost index of 0.
15
Q
Are Simple Special procedures mandatory to follow in both IMC and VMC? If so, what are the altitudes?
A
Yes, they are mandatory in IMC to 3,000” AFE and 1,000” AFE VMC unless otherwise specified.
16
Q
Which are the ways to determine actual landing distance performance?
A
AWP solution or QHR landing distance performance section
17
Q
What are some strategies dealing with weight restricted flights?
A
-Increase PMTOW or reducing tanker fuel (if any)
-Remove COMAT (not AOG)
-Obtain child counts
18
Q
Which of the following are approved methods to get weight and balance information for departure?
A
-AWP Solution
-Computer-Generated W&B Manifest from Centralized Load Planning
-Manual W&B read back form in diversion kit
19
Q
Which of the following fuel considerations are required prior to departure?
A
-The aircraft must have enough fuel to fly to the airport to which it is dispatched, then fly and land at the most distant alternate airport for which it is dispatched, and fly 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption.
-When dispatched under OPS SPECs B043 the aircraft must have enough contingency if you want to fly for a period of 10% of that portion of the en route time were the aircraft position cannot be fixed at least once each hour.
-The aircraft must have enough fuel to consider one instrument approach and possible missed approach at the destination, wind and other weather conditions forecast, anticipated traffic delays and any other non-conditions that may delay landing of the aircraft.
20
Q
When the first officer has less than 100 hours of flight time as SIC and the type airplane to be flown at Frontier, the captain must make all takeoff and landings and what conditions?
A
X-wind >15knots, When breaking action is less then “good”
21
Q
Which of the following describes emergency authority?
A
In an emergency situation that requires immediate decision and action, the pilot in command may take any action necessary under the circumstances.
22
Q
Who has operational control to refuse a passenger?
A
The CRO
23
Q
Which of the following best describes method 1, (select all that apply)
A
If an engine failure occurs anywhere from V1 to the destination, the aircraft will clear all obstructions 5SM on either side of the intended route by 1000’ until reaching the destination.
24
Q
Frontier is authorized contact approaches, EXCEPT?
A
(SA) CAT 1 Approaches
25
How can a flight crew determine if airport is “Terrain Sensitive”? (Select all that apply)
-Via a mountain symbol at the top of the first page on the AIP
-Via contours published on any SID, STAR, or approach procedures.
26
Which of the following statements is False?
When a discrepancy has been entered into the aircraft logbook, ONLY MCC must be notified.
27
Who must be notified after entering a discrepancy in the logbook?
MCC through the responsible dispatcher.
28
Which of the following is the correct way(s) to make a correction to a logbook entry?
-Do you correct a single word or phrase error, draw a line through the entry and add the corrected information adjacent to the lined out item.
– To correct an entry block draw, a diagonal line through the entry and write “entered in error” (or EIE) on the diagonal line.
29
How is “Reserve fuel” calculating?
Reserve fuel of 45 minute flight time based on last cruise altitude in the flight plan.
30
Which of the following logbook entries require a captain signature?
-Computer reset
- Follow up required
- Flight crew placard
31
Which of the following best describes the MEL (Minimum Equipment List)?
The MEL program allows for a temporary change in type design to address missing or inoperative equipment in order to maintain the validity of the airworthiness certificate.
32
Which of the following best describes the CDL (Configuration Deferral List)?
The CDL program allows for continued operations with missing secondary airframe and engine parts.
33
Which of the following best describes the NEF (Nonessential Furnishings)?
The NEF program allows the deferral of inoperative, damaged or missing items that will have no effect on the safe operation of the aircraft, and which are not required by certification standards or operating rules.
34
Which of the following best describes an ODM (other deferred maintenance)?
ODM items include deferral’s that are “crew visibility” in nature and utilize an INFO-ONLY placard to notify a crewmembers that the item on the placard has been documented and is being tracked by the maintenance department.
35
Is Frontier permitted to depart an airport VFR and then pick up an IFR clearance?
Yes, under certain weather conditions and provided an IFR clearance is obtained ASAP, but no further than 50NM from departure airport.
36
What is Class II navigation?
Any navigation conducted outside of Class I navigation
37
When is the autopilot required to be used to conduct an approach?
When the WX is <4000 RVR (3/4SM) and the autopilot is available for use.
38
Which of the following allowed to conduct in international airspace?
A “VMC Approach”
39
Prior to crossing FIR boundary for international flights, the flight crew should obtain the latest weather (METAR & TAF) for the destinations and alternate if applicable.
TRUE
40
Where is frontier authorized to conduct SLOPs?
Gulf of Mexico
41
How does the flight crew determine snowfall intensity when determining what holdover times to use?
-If another form of obscuration is being reported along with snow, (fog/haze/smoke), then use Tower reported snowfall intensity.
-If no obscuration is present on Tower report, then use “Snowfall Intensities As a function of prevailing Visibility” table on the De-ice Card
42
Anti-Ice with flaps/slats extended is permitted
False
43
De-ice with flaps/slats extended is permitted?
True
44
A flight can takeoff if the holdover time expires if the flight crew performs a pre-takeoff contamination check (From the Exit Row) within 5 minutes of advancing the thrust levers for takeoff.
True
45
When does the TARMAC delay clock start for departures.
5 minutes after PAX Board
46
An ARTR is required if a flight plan alternate is different then
that published on the dispatch release?
True
47
When is a security search required?
First flight of the day
International flights
48
A flight to Puerto Rico is not considered an international flight for security search purposes?
True
49
Captain must be notified of all individuals on board a flight that are carrying firearms?
True
50
What are 4 levels of threat?
1- Verbal
2-Physical
3-Imminent threat of death or serious bodily injury
4-Attempted or actual breach of the flight deck
51
Where can flight crews find a list of OPS SPECS C070 approved airports?
Airport Information Pages
52
Where can we find coded departure brief and instructions on how to uplink these routes into the MCDU?
Airport Information Pages
53
If an International flight diverts and does not clear customs, what does the flight need to continue to it’s destination
A Permit to Proceed
54
What does the TEST acronym consist of when giving the Emergency Prep?
T- Type of Emergency
E- Evacuation anticipated
S- Signals to brace, evacuate or remain seated as appropriate
T- Time remaining until landing
55
What is the purpose of the flight attendant emergency whistle?
To indicate a threat level 2,3 or 4 situation
56
When are manual engine starts recommended?
After aborting a start because of an engine stall, EGT over limit, or low starter air pressure.
57
Flight, BOTH Flight directors should be either on or off
True
58
Which is True regarding the announcement of FMA changes?
Workload permitting and unless specified otherwise e.g. (CAT 2/3 task sharing), all FMA changes (as indicated by the WHITE Box) will be announced by the PF below FL180. At or above FL180, the vertical and lateral mode changes (second and third columns of the FMA) will be announced s by the PF.
59
During preflight and prior to the application of electrical power, you notice the battery voltage is below 25.5Volts, how should you recharge the batteries?
Ensure external power is the supply to the aircraft and select the BAT 1/2 push buttons to the auto position.
60
On a preflight check, if engine oil quantity is not displayed on the ENG SD page, how should you check the oil quantity on a NEO
Set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR push button switches on the overhead maintenance panel to “ON” in order to display the engine oil quantity on the ENG SD page. After the check of the engine oil quantity, set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR push button switch to off.
61
When is a full ADIRU alignment required?
Before first flight of the day
Crew Change
Prior to International Flights or Class II airspace
62
When is a fast ADIRU alignment required?
Difference of >5NM between IRS and FMGC
63
During refueling, what might happen if the FUEL MODE SEL pb-sw is left in the MAN position on the ground and the CTR TK L XFER pb-sw are not in the Off position?
The center tanks fuel transfer will not stop when wing tanks become full and a fuel spill may occur
64
Just prior to pushback, if the NW STRG DISC is not displayed on the ECAM, but the ground crew confirms the steering selector bypass pin is in the towing position, what must the flight crew do?
Make a Logbook entry and contact MCC through Dispatch
65
If a heading is assigned by ATC prior to Takeoff, what HDG should be preset on the FCU to disarm NAV mode?
RWY HDG
66
No turns in heading mode will be commenced below____ AFE (VMC) or ______AFE (IMC) unless otherwise required by the departure procedure?
400”/1000”
67
How can you quickly determine if you can take shortcuts off your filled route if you are dispatched via method 2?
Refer to “Terrain Analysis Common Aircraft Weights” on the back of the Normal Checklists.
68
What altitude should be set on the FCU for a visual approach utilizing a published procedure as a back up reference?
The published missed approaching altitude for the approach being used.
69
What altitude should be set on the FCU for a visual approach with no procedure back up as a reference?
1500 feet AFE
70
Why is entering 0.3 on the PROG page on the MCDU for RNAV approaches required?
To ensure that the FMS stays in 0.3 for the missed approach rather than defaulting back to RNP 1.0.
71
Why is deselecting navigate in the MCDU for a RNAV RNP approach required?
In the event of GPS loss, IRS only navigation may be more accurate than DME/DME position updating in the short term.
72
Which of the following statements are TRUE if speed brakes are used above 315 kts/M .75 with the AP engaged?
Rate of retraction is slow, total for retraction at full extension is approximately 25 seconds
73
During the flare on the landing, the PM will monitor the pitch attitude on the PFD and call “Pitch” whenever approaching or reaching what pitch attitudes?
A320= 10 degrees
A321= 7.5 degrees
74
When should the after landing check be called for?
After clearing the runway and the aircraft is safely established on the taxiway, but not before taxiway/runway crossing restrictions are clearly understood by both crewmembers.
75
After landing, how long should we wait before starting the APU?
2 minutes after stowing thrust reverse’ s
76
After taxing in and during parking, you attempt to shut down an engine. However the engine does not shut down. What do you do?
Switch the affected Master lever to ON then OFF. If the engine still fails to shutdown. Press the affected ENG FIRE PB.
77
After parking the aircraft, you notice a maintenance status message (class 2 message). A logbook write up is required for the class 2 message that disappeared?
True
78
Which of the following statements should be followed when performing The securing checklist?
-After having switched off the ADIRS, wait at least 10 seconds before switching off the electrical supply to ensure that the ADIRS memorized the last data.
-5 minutes after BLOCK IN to accomplish the securing procedure to allow the FMGC/AOC to complete the DONE PHASE and enter the PREFLIGHT PHASE.
79
In-flight prior to manipulation, both the PF and PM must confirm these levers and switches.
-ENG Master, IR selector, ALL guarded controls
-Thrust Levers (During ECAM/QRH Procedures)
80
In most situations, the following sequence is the basic one that should be followed by the flight crew during an abnormal/emergency situation.
1. Memory Items
2. OEB’s
3.ECAM
4.QRH Procedures
5. Abnormal/Emergency Procedures (Time Permitting)
True,
However, the sequence may not cover all operational situation. Therefore the flight crew should exercise in their judgment and adapt the sequence of actions to the real conditions.
81
For an abnormal procedure during approach, perform the normal checklist first, then the ECAM/ABNORMAL procedure or checklist.
False
82
For an abnormal procedure during takeoff, perform AFTER TAKEOFF checklist first, then the ECAM/ABNORMAL procedure or checklist. (Not Applicable to ENG Fire, Oil Lo Press, ENG Overlimit, ENG Failure, and ENG Stall.)
True
83
Which of the following statements is true? (Select all that apply)
-If Red LAND ASAP as part of the ECAM procedure, land as soon as possible at the nearest airport at which a landing can be made.
-If Amber LAND ASAP as part of the ECAM procedure, consider landing at the nearest suitable airport..
84
Performing an ECAM for an engine failure, the PF will call “Stop ECAM actions” prior to the PM reading the _______ page?
Status Page
85
What is the purpose of an ECAM advisory?
An advisory informs the crew that a parameter is approaching a limitation and enables the flight crew to monitor the drifting parameter.
86
Where can the flight crew find triggering conditions for various ADVISORY situations or associated recommendations for an ECAM advisory.
QRH Procedure Section
87
What is the purpose of the ”Summary” section within the QRH?
To help flight crews perform actions in the case of an ELEC EMER CONFIG or dual hydraulic failer.
88
Where can the flight crew find the computer reset table?
QRH procedure section
89
Where can you find Frontiers procedures on Engine Out Standard Instrument Departures (EOSID’s), as well as Complex Missed Approach utilizing an (EOSID)?
FOM,VOL II; Supplements-Special Procedures and/or the AIPs
90
Crews operating at airports that utilize EO Complex Procedures shall set up and brief the procedure to be ready for an engine failure?
True
91
When performing the Class 2 NAV accuracy check, FM position is considered reliable if?
Error < or = 3NM
92
When performing a class to compass deviation check, all heading should be within ____ degrees of each other?
5
93
Which of the following statements is true?
Compliance with a TCAS II resolution advisory (RA) is required unless the captain considers it unsafe to do so, or unless the pilot has better information about the cause of the RA and can maintain safe operation
94
If the engines and or landing gear need to be deiced, what actions must be taken?
A logbook entry, notify MCC through the responsible dispatcher so the engines and or landing gear are deice properly.
95
Do not move flaps or slats, control surfaces, or trim surfaces, if they are not free of ice?
True
96
When must ENGINE ANTI-ICE be on?
-During all ground and flight operations when icing conditions exist or is anticipated, except during Climb and Cruise when the SAT is below -40°C.
-During decent and in icing conditions, even if the SAT is below -40°C.
97
When should WING ANTI-ICE be selected?
Inflight, whenever there is an indication that airframe icing exist
98
Takeoff in moderate and heavy freezing rain is prohibited?
True
99
After landing, if flaps/slats are not free from contamination, leave the flaps/slats in the current configuration. Coordinate with ground crew for cleaning/de-icing of the flaps/slats prior to retraction.
True
100
Which computer provide reactive Windshear detection?
FAC
101
When is reactive Windshear available? (Select all answers that apply)
-At takeoff: 3 sec after I lift off up to 1300’ RA (with at least CONF 1 selected).
-After landing: from 1300’ RA - 50’ RA (with at least CONF 1 selected).
102
What are the 3 types of single engine failure Procedures?
-Standard, Simple Special, and Complex Special
103
How does a Simple Special Engine Failure Procedure differ from a Standard Engine Failure Procedure?
-Simple Special: Turn to a NAVAID or Heading before reaching 1000” AFE. In addition, Flap retraction altitude may be different from 1000” AFE
104
Which of the following best describes the “Decelerated Approach” technique?
The Aircraft reaches the stabilized altitude in the landing configuration at Vapp.
105
What is the recommended technique to capture the glideslope from above?
Use V/S 1500 feet/min to ensure the A/THR is in Speed Mode rather than Idle Mode.
106
What approaches require the flight crew to monitor and use raw data for an approach?
VOR, LOC, ILS & LDA approaches
107
Frontier is authorized to conduct Approaches that have published Climb gradients in the missed approach with all engines operating for any given aircraft, condition, weight, and configuration for Climb gradients less than ______feet per NM?
937 Feet Per NM
108
F9 is approved to utilize RNAV (RNP) approaches when cold temperature altitude corrections apply.
False
109
Frontier flight crews are authorized to build an RNAV visual (RVFP) Approach manually in the FMGC?
False
110
Due to database limitations, aircraft equipment with the Honeywell step one alpha FMS do not have LDA approaches stored when the same runway has an ILS stored (E. G., SFO, LDA, DME 28R). In these cases, the LDA approach is excepted, the flight crew is required to?
Manually hard tune the LDA frequency by entering the LDA identifier and verify the correct inbound course.
111
What are the lowest Minimum’s for a CAT II Approach?
100’ DH: 1000’ RVR
112
What are the lowest Minimum’s for a CAT III Approach?
Fail Passive Capable Aircraft (FMA-CAT 3 Single) - 50’ AH: 600’ RVR
Fail Operational Capable Aircraft (FMA-CAT 3 Dual) - 100’ DH: 300’ RVR
113
What are the lowest minimums for a CAT 3B approach?
100’ AH: 300’ RVR
114
To use an alert height for a CAT III approach, the aircraft must be?
CAT 3 Dual capable (Fail Operational)
115
Which of the following best describes a cold temperature restricted airport (CTRA)?
Airports which require a cold temperature altitude corrections to applicable Instrument Approach Procedures when the temperature at the airport is at or below a specified value.
116
How can you determine if an airport is a cold temperature restricted airport, (CTRA)?
CTRA’s and the associated temperature limits are published in the “NOTES” section of the Jeppesen Approach charts
117
Which approach type do Cold Temperature corrections apply to?
ILS approaches
118
What are Frontiers 2 recommended strategies to apply if an engine failure occurs during cruise?
Standard Strategy and Obstacle Strategy
119
Which of the following choices best outlines the Obstacle Strategy for an engine failure in Cruise?
Set MCT, A/THR OFF, Set and Pull HDG as appropriate, Determine Cruise Flight Level, Notify ATC, Set Green Dot Speed and Pull, Set and Pull ALT on FCU.
120
Which of the following choice is best outlines the Standard Strategy for the engine failure in Cruise?
Set MCT, A/THR OFF, Set an Pull HDG, as appropriate, Determine Cruise Flight Level, Notify ATC, Set M.78/300kts and Pull, Set and Pull ALT on FCU.
121
Which of the following are (is) True regarding S Speed?
S Speed is the minimum speed at which the slats may be retracted at takeoff
S Speed is maneuvering speed
In approach, S Speed is used as target speed when the aircraft is CONF 1.
122
Protection speeds (e.g. Va PROT, Va MAX, VMax) are computed by.
The FAC
123
Which of the following statements are True? (Select all that apply)
Alpha floor is a protection that automatically sets the thrust at TOGA, regardless of thrust lever position, when the aircraft reaches very high angle of attack.
ALPHA floor is available from lift off to 100’ RA on approach. A/THR needs to be available, it does not need to be active.
124
When would you get a “TOGA LK” with a flashing amber box on the FMA?
After the Alpha Floor protection has been activated, Alpha Floor conditions are no longer met, and TOGA thrust is active.
125
If the thrust levers are in the CL detent (both engine operative) or 1 Thrust Lever is in the MCT detent (one engine in operative), “THR LCK” will appear on the FMA if:
The Auto-Thrust fails or the FCU A/THR push button is pushed
126
Which of the following best describes the alpha/speed lock function
The alpha/speed lock function inhibits slat retraction at high angles of attack and low air speeds.
127
What pilot action is required to cancel “TOGA LK”
Disconnect auto-thrust
128
What are the 3 types of ECAM failures?
Independent, Primary, and Secondary
129
Which of the following describes the possible types of ECAM failures? (Select all answers that apply)
-Independent failure: A failure that does not affect the other systems.
-Primary : A failure that affects other systems and cause a secondary failures.
-Secondary failure : A failure that is caused by a primary failure.
130
After completion of the ECAM, the flight crew will refer to the QRH Procedures section of the QRH to determine if procedures apply and complete the procedures as required. Time permitting the flight crew will refer to the abnormal and emergency procedures contained in the QRH. What does “Time Permitting” mean?
Do not prolong the flight for the sole purpose of consulting the Abnormal and Emergency procedure section of the QRH.
131
What busses are powered by the emergency generator?
-AC ESS and AC ESS Shed Bus
-DC ESS and DC ESS Shed Bus
132
What powers of the emergency generator?
Blue hydraulic pressure from the RAT.
133
Which of the following statements is true when pressing the RAT MAN ON Push Button located on the HYD panel
RAT provides Blue Hydraulic pressure only.
134
What does the illumination of the Amber Smoke Light in the GEN1 Line push button indicate?
Smoke detected in the avionics ventilation ducting
135
When performing the Preliminary Flight Deck preparation, what is the minimum battery voltage?
25.5 Volts
136
What cautions must you take when disconnecting the IDG?
Do not press and hold the IDG push button for more than 3 seconds.
Do not disconnect the IDG when the engine is not operating or windmilling.
137
With the APU START push button available “green” light illuminated and the EXT PWR push button on “blue” light illuminated, which system is power in the aircraft assuming both engines are shut down?
External power
138
An aircraft equipment with Center tank fuel pumps, which of the following statements are TRUE?
With the MODE SEL pb-sw in AUTO, the center tank pumps automatically run at the engine start for two minutes.
With the MODE SEL pb-sw in AUTO, after the sequence the center tank pumps automatically run if the slats are retracted.
With the MODE SEL pb-sw AUTO, the center tank pumps automatically stop 5 min after center tank low level is reached.
139
What would cause the FAULT light to illuminate on the fuel MODE SEL pb?
When the center tank contains more than 550lbs of fuel and the left or right wing tanks has less than 11,000lbs of fuel.
140
What actions occurs when an ENG FIRE pb is pressed?
The respective hydraulic shut off, pack flow control and engine bleed valve closes.
The oral fire warning is silenced and the fire extinguisher squibs arm.
Deactivate the IDG, cuts off FADEC power supply, and closes low pressure fuel valve.
141
What actions occur when the APU FIRE pb is pressed?
The APU low pressure fuel valve closes and the AP fuel pump shut off.
The APU generator is deactivated, the APU Bleed and X-Bleed valve close.
The APU shuts down, aural warnings are silenced, and squibs are armed on the APU fire extinguisher..
142
On the primary Flight display, what do the large red chevrons indicate?
Pitch attitude greater than 30°.
143
What does the yellow speed trend line on the airspeed display indicate?
Speed the Aircraft will reach in 10 seconds if acceleration/deceleration remains constant
144
Which of the following is TRUE regarding VLS?
VLS represents lowest selectable speed providing an appropriate margin to stall speed. In approach mode VLS is equivalent to Vref.
145
How is VLS displayed on the PFD?
VLS is represented by the top of the amber stripe along the airspeed scale
146
Which of the following TRUE regarding altitude/speed constraint circles? (Select all answers that apply)
White - constraint is not taken into account.
Magenta - constraint is predicted to be satisfied.
Amber - constraint is predicted to be missed.
147
What does the appearance of a green arrow in the queue at the bottom of the E/WD screen?
Information has overflowed off the screen and the pilot must scroll down using the CLR push button on the ECAM panel.
148
What is the active range of the A/THR?
From just above IDLE to the CL detent (dual engine ops), and just above IDLE to the MCT detent (single engine ops).
149
When will the RAT automatically extend?
The RAT will automatically extend if AC BUS 1/2 are not powered and airspeed is <100kts.
150
What is the approach category for the A320?
Cat C
151
What is the maximum crosswind limitation for takeoff?
35kts
152
What is the maximum cross wind limitation for landing
38kts
153
What is the maximum tire ground speed?
195kts
154
What is the maximum windshield wiper operation speed?
230kts
155
What is the maximum Aircraft Speed with the cockpit window open?
200kts
156
(On a 320/321 aircraft) the maximum taxi speed when making a turn is_____ when the aircraft weight is greater than____?
20 kts; 167,550lbs
157
What is the maximum altitude to start the APU using battery power only (Electrical Emergency Configuration)?
25,000” MSL
158
What is the auto pilot minimum engagement height after takeoff (if SRS is indicated)?
100” AGL
159
What is the auto pilot minimum engagement enroute?
900” AGL
160
What is the minimum oil temperature required before takeoff?
19° C
161
What is the maximum time to use TOGA thrust with all engines operating?
5 minutes
162
What is the maximum time to use TOGA Thrust and with 1 engine inoperative?
10 min
163
What is the maximum altitude of flaps or Slats may be Extended?
20,000” MSL
164
What is the minimum height the auto pilot can be engaged during a go-around?
100” AGL
165
To meet frontiers stabilization Approach and Criteria, by 1,000” AFE, the aircraft must be (select all that apply)?
Do you know steady rate of decent not to exceed 1200 ft./min.
Auto correct little path, course (Course).
On the correct vertical path (Glidepath).
166
To meet Frontier’s stabilized approach criteria by 1000 feet AFE, the aircraft must be (select all that apply)?
In the final landing configuration (Landing gear/flaps extended)
Absent of any GPWS Warnings and Cautions.
167
To meet Frontier’s stabilized Approach and Criteria by 500” AFE the aircraft must be (select all that apply)?
In a steady rate of dissent not to exceed 1000 ft./min.
Within -5 to +15 kts of target speed for approach
168
What does “Correct Lateral Path” mean in terms of Frontiers Stabilized Approach Criteria?
+ or - 1 dot ILS/LOC, 1/2 Dot for VOR, or 0.3 NM cross track for RNAV GPS (Not RNP RA Apps)
169
What is the maximum tail wind limitation for takeoff A321?
10 kts
170
What is the maximum tail wind limitation for takeoff (A321)?
10 kts
171
What is the maximum tailwind limitation for landing (A320)?
10 kts
172
What is the maximum tail wind limitation for landing (A321)?
10 kts
173
What is the maximum wind speed for passenger door operation?
65 kts
174
What is the maximum wind speed for cargo door operation?
40-50 , nose into wind, door must be closed by 65 kts.
175
If the aircraft nose is oriented into the wind, or if the cargo door is on the Leeward side of the aircraft, operation of the cargo door is permitted it winds up ____. If the wind speed begins to exceed these limitations, the cargo door must be closed before the wind speed exceeds _____.
50kts/65kts
176
What is the recommended turbulent air penetration speeds below FL200 (A320)?
250kts
177
What is the recommended turbulent air penetration Speed from FL210 - FL310? (A320)?
275kts
178
What is the recommended turbulent air penetration Speed above FL310 (A320)?
M.76
179
What is the recommended turbulent air penetration speeds below FL210 (A321)?
270kts
180
What is the recommended turbulent air penetration speed between FL210 and FL310 (A321)?
300kts
181
What is the recommended turbulence air penetration speed above FL310 (A321)?
M.76
182
At what height will the auto pilot be turned off for an RNAV visual approach?
500” AGL
183
When must the auto pilot be turned off for a non-precision Approach?
DDA/DA
184
At what height must the auto pilot be turned off for a non-autoland ILS with a CAT 1 FMA?
160” AGL
185
At what height must the auto pilot be turned off for a non autoland ILS with a CAT 2/3 FMA
80” AGL
186
When must the auto pilot be turned off for an auto land approach?
ROLLOUT/Taxi Speed
187
Frontiers policy is set up for, brief, and fly a CAT 2 or CAT 3 autoland IF the reported visibility/RVR is at or below____ or _____ and all the requirements for an autoland can be met.
1/2 SM, 2400 RVR
188
What is the minimum engine oil quantity for NEO?
9.0 qts, plus .5 qts for every hour of estimated flight time, not less than 10.6 qts. If engines have been shut down for 3 hours, reduce these values by 3 qts.
189
What is the minimum engine oil quantity for CEO Aircraft prior to each flight?
9.5 qts plus .5 qts for every hour of estimated flight time.
190
Takeoff at reduce Thrust is prohibited when?
Slippery or contaminated runaways, suspected, reported, or known wind-shear reported, when special departure procedures specify full power for takeoff.
191
Which of the following on memory items for “LOSS OF BRAKING”?
REV MAX
BRAKE PEDALS, RELEASE
A/SKID ORDER, OFF
A/SKID NW STRG, OFF
BRAKE PEDALS PRESS
MAX BAKE PR, 1000 PSI
IF STILL NO BRAKING, PARKING BRAKE, SHORT SUCCESSIVE APPLICATIONS
192
What is the memory item for “SMOKE/FUME/AVNCS SMOKE”?
OXY MASK/GOGGLES, USE/100%/EMER
193
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARE MEMORY IITEMS FOR “STALL WARNING AT LIFT OFF”?
THRUST, TOGA
PITCH, 15°
BANK WINGS LEVEL
194
Which of the following are memory items for “WINDSHEAR WARNING”?
THR LEVER, TOGA
AP, KEEP ON
SRS ORDERS, FOLLOW
