FOM VOL 1 Flashcards

Question 1

Q

How many separate Volumes does the Flight Operations Manual (FOM) Consist of?
(FOM VOL1, Sec 1.01)

Answer

A

3;
Vol I: Policy/Procedures Non-AC related.
Vol II: Operating Policy/Procedures for specfic aircraft.
Vol III: Aircraft/Systems information Specific to type.

Question 2

Q

What is the difference between a Bulletin/Pilot Alert?
(VOL1, Sec 1.01)

Answer

A

BULLETINS; incorporate changes temporary in nature. Issued to inform of short term or transitional procedures. They supersede any related information in the manual.

PILOT ALERTS; are not issued as part of the FOM. They are disseminated electronically and emphasis or clarify policies/procedures. They do not modify policy or procedures in the FOM.

Question 3

Q

What are some of the PIC/SIC Duties and responsibilities?
(FOM VOL1; Sec, 5.10, FOM VOL 1; 20.20)

Answer

A

– The CA is the PIC. During flight time is in command of the aircraft, crew and is responsible for the safety of the pax, crew, cargo, and airplane. Has full control and authority in the operation of the aircraft, without limitation over the crewmembers and their duties during flight time whether or not they hold valid certificates authorizing them to perform the duties of those crewmembers.

No person may operate a civil aircraft unless it is in an airworthy condition for safe flight. The pilot in command will discontinue the flight when unairworthy mechanical, electrical, or structural conditions occur.
The PIC is responsible for following the dispatch release and the flight plan to the fullest extent possible. If a flight plan has not been filed, the CA must contact dispatch and arrange for it to be filed. The CA will review the MEL/CDL and or any approved company technical information relating to the aircraft and its status. the CA has the authority to deviate from the flight plan as necessary due to weather conditions, winds, passenger comfort, or safety of flight.

The First Officer is second in command. Should the CA become incapacitated, the FO will assume the CA duties and remain in his/her seat.

Question 4

Q

Do all cabin seats need to be assigned for flight deck or flight attendant jump seat is to be utilized.
(FOM; VOL 1, Sec 10.10)

Answer

A

No,
-The flight deck and flight attendant jumpsuits may be utilized on a discretionary basis; All cabin seats need not be assigned in order to assign the jumpsuits.

Question 5

Q

Must a frontier employee have the letters ACM on their badge in order to occupy the flight deck jumpseat?

Answer

A

Yes,
Unless the frontier employee possesses a signed letter of authorization from frontier flight ops management. The CSA must verify the employment of the ACM via the employee verification database available on www.myfrontier.org.

Question 6

Q

Can a mechanic sit in the flight deck jump seat for travel?
(FOM, VOL1, 10.10)

Answer

A

Yes,
But frontier mechanics must be on duty in order to access the flight deck jumpseat.

Question 7

Q

Can pilots and dispatchers of other airlines use our flight deck jumpseat privilege?
(FOM, VOL1, Sec 10.10)

Answer

A

Yes,
Pilots and dispatchers of other airlines may be authorized to occupy the flight deck jumpseat on domestic flights if there is a reciprocal agreement in place. Eligibility must be verified by the CSA through CASS.

Question 8

Q

Can crewmembers /employees use the flight attendant jumpseat on international flights?
(FOM, VOL1, Sec 10.10)

Answer

A

Yes,
– crewmembers and employees who are eligible to use the cabin jumpseat on domestic flights may do so on international flights.

Question 9

Q

Who can occupy the flight deck jumpseat on international flights?
(FOM, VOL1, Sec 10.10)

Answer

A

– Frontier employees with a CM authorization (either via Frontier ID “ACM” or a letter of authorization) may utilize the flight deck jumpseat on international flights.

Question 10

Q

Who must fill out the ACM authorization form?
(FOM, VOL1, Sec 10.10)

Answer

A

All persons (except FAA Inspector’s) requesting access to the flight deck or cabin jumpseat.

Question 11

Q

The captain is the final authority over flight deck access and he/she have the right to deny access to any person without exercising their emergency authority with the exception of?
(FOM; VOL1, Sec 10.10)

Answer

A

FAA air carrier inspector
DOD evaluator
US Secret Service agent
Representative of the NTSB

Question 12

Q

What is required for the ACM briefing for persons sitting in the flight deck jumpseat?
(FOM; VOL1, Section 10.20)

Answer

A

Show the briefing card will sufis but It is the responsibility of the Captain to ensure that all flight deck ACM’s, with the exception of frontier pilot ACM’s trained on the type of aircraft, or briefed on sterile cockpit, flight deck door security, emergency equipment operation, and cockpit evaluation procedures. The jumpseat briefing card maybe used to satisfy this briefing requirement.

Question 13

Q

What are the alcohol limits for flight crew?

Answer

A

FAR’s/Company policies Prohibits Pilots from acting as crew members:
-Within 10 hours of consuming any alcohol beverage
-While under the influence of alcohol
-While having an alcohol concentration of 0.04 or greater in a blood or breath specimen
-While using any drug that affects personal faculties in anyway contrary to safety

Company policy may be more restrictive and includes time prior to and during:
-Reserve period
-Company assigned Deadhead or travel
-Ground School or training events

Question 14

Q

Employees with knowledge of an accident involving an aircraft for which they performed a safety sensitive or security related function at or near the time of the accident may not use alcohol for ____ Hours after the accident unless he or she has been given post accident test for drugs and alcohol, or if Frontier Airlines has determined that their performance cannot have contributed to the accident?

Question 15

Q

When will pilots Don and use the O2 masks?

Answer

A

Cabin pressure altitude above 10,000’

Question 16

Q

Is landing at night without runway lights permitted?

Answer

A

NO, runway lights must be available and operational for all night operations.

Question 17

Q

Is operation of the aircraft (movement under its own power) permitted on any surface if breaking action is Nil?

Answer

A

No, if surfaces reported as NIL rather than closed, Frontier Airlines prohibits the operation of its aircraft over any portion of the ramp, taxiway or runway that is considered to be BREAKING ACTION NIL (BRAN).

Question 18

Q

When do “Braking Actions Advisories” going to affect?

Answer

A

When tower controllers receive runway breaking action reports Which include poor or Nill
Or
Whenever weather conditions are conducive to deteriorating or rapidly changing runway breaking conditions.

Question 19

Q

Are intoxicated person’s allowed to board the aircraft?

Answer

A

No, person who appears to be intoxication shall be denied boarding

Question 20

Q

Is the flight crew able to store baggage for passengers on the flight deck

Answer

A

At the CA’s discretion, they may except to secure baggage on the flight deck for any eligible jumpseat ACM’s (working/not working crewmembers of Frontier Airlines).

Question 21

Q

Does frontier Airline carry HAZMAT for commercial transportation?

Question 22

Q

How are dangerous goods that require flight crew notification communicated to flight crew?

Answer

A

Either on appropriate forms, or the weight and balance worksheet.

Question 23

Q

When can cellular phones be used on plans?

Answer

A

At the gate, inbound taxi, outbound taxi/tarmac delays. Cellular communications are not authorized once the main cabin door os closed.

Question 24

Q

When are radio reports required?

Answer

A

-Deviation from ATC Clearance or instruction for an emergency or in response to a TCAS Resolution Advisory (RA).
-When vacating any previously assigned altitude or flight level for a newly assigned altitude of flight level.
-When unable to climb/descend at a rate of at least 500 ft./min.
-When an approach has been missed. (Request clearance for specific actions, to Altn airport, to another approach).
-Change in the average air speed (at cruising altitude) and it varies by 5% or 10 minutes (which ever is greater) from the filed in the flight plan.
-The time and altitude or flight level upon reaching a holding fix or point at which cleared.
-When leaving any assigned holding fix or point.
-Pilots encountering WX conditions not forecasts or hazardous conditions or irregularity in a ground NAV facility in flight essential to safety of flight.
-Any malfunction or anomalies of NAV, or COMM equipment, complete or partial loss of ILS receiver. Reports should include call sign or flight number, equipment affected, and nature or extend of assistance required.

Question 25

Q

When are position reports required while not in radar contact?

Answer

A

Compulsory reporting points,
Aircraft not in regular contact,
Whenever ATC requests,
Final approach fix inbound,
FAF inbound; Non-Precision APP or OM or Fix in LIEU of OM; Precision APP
ETA error more than 3min.

Question 26

Q

What shall a position report consist of?

Answer

A

-Aircraft call sign in flight number, position with regard to reporting point
-UTC time over the reporting point
-Flight level and altitude
-Name and ETA over the next reporting point
-Name of next to succeeding reporting point

Question 27

Q

Lost COMM Procedure

Answer

A

Sqk 7600
VMC:
-Land as soon as practical
-Make visual contact with tower, obtain clearance to land via light gun signals

IMC:
-Continue by route in last ATC clearance
-If radar vectored, by direct route from point of radio failure, to the fix, route, or airway specified in clearance
-In absence of the assigned route, by the route ATC has advised may be expected
-In absence of the previous clearance, by the route filed in the flight plan

Altitude:
-If clearance limit is a fix from which an approach begins, commence descent and approach as close as possible to the EFC time; if an EFC is not received, as close as possible to the ETA from the filed flight plan.
-If clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins, leave clearance limit at the EFC time or if an EFC has not been received, proceed to a fix from which an approach begins and commence approach as close as possible to the ETA from the flight plan.

Question 28

Q

What do you do if you loose WX radar en-route?

Answer

A

(Vol 1,Sec 10-30)

The flight may be continued to it’s planned destination provided thunderstorms or hazardous WX can be avoided visually.

Question 29

Q

Special Airport Requirements

Answer

A

(Vol 1, Sec 10.40)
Preceding 12 months
-CA or FO made an entry to the airport, including a T/O and Landing
-CA qualified by use of pictorial means

NOTE: Currency requirements do not apply w/1000’ ceiling above lowest MEA/MOCA or initial approach ALT prescribed by the INST plate, and at least 3sm Vis.

Question 30

Q

When is the First Officer flying restricted (FO High Mins)

Answer

A

< 100hrs: Includes OE
-RVR for runway is <4000’ (RVR is controlling over visibility)
-Visibility < 3/4 SM
-Wet, Slippery, or Contaminated runways
-Braking Action < Good
-cross wind >15kts
-LLWS Advisory Alerts in affect, another Aircraft reports Windshear
-Special Airport
-Captains Prerogative

Question 31

Q

FO takeoff Mins

Answer

A

Recommended CA does T/O when Visibility is < 1/2 SM or 1800’ RVR

Question 32

Q

Captains are considered on High Mins when and what are they

Answer

A

<100 hrs; Does not include OE
-Increase DA or MDA by 100’
-Increase Visibility by 1/2 SM or RVR equivalent

Question 33

Q

Dispatch WX requirements for High Min CAs

Answer

A

Destination:
Min Visibility required for approach plus 1/2 SM
(unless dispatch under Exemption 21515 as described below)

Alternate:
MDA or DA visibility need not be increased (100’ and 1/2sm) above those applicable to the airport when determining an alternate airport mins (i.e. 400’ & 1sm or 200’ and 1/2sm). This includes takeoff, enroute, first and second alternate airports. However, when conducting an instrument approach at an alternate airport, the MDA/DA and visibility requirements must be increased by adding 100’ and 1/2sm or RVR equivalent.

Question 34

Q

What approaches are High CA mins not allowed to do

Answer

A

CAT III operations

Question 35

Q

What is Exemption 21515
Ref: FOM VOL I, Section 10.40

Answer

A

Exemption 21515 provides relief from 121.652(a) and (c), permitting high minimum CA subject to higher minimums to be dispatched and operate to CAT I/CAT II minimums . (Table 10.40.3)

RVR < 1000’, Approach not authorized
1000’ < or = RVR < 1800’, Crews may do CAT II using Procedure B
RVR >/= 1800’, Crews may execute using Procedure A or B

Question 36

Q

Do we use Exemption 20144 to dispatch High Min CAs

Question 37

Q

If the flight crew diverts and then finishes their sequence of flights, does the diversion add a segment to our total segments for the day

Question 38

Q

May a flight be continued if before takeoff you know you will exceed flight time limits

Answer

A

No, F9 may not schedule a flight crew member, nor may a flight crew member accept or continue an assigned flight duty period if the total flight time will exceed flight time limits.

Question 39

Q

Is domicile time used when calculating flight time and duty limits

Answer

A

Yes, Crew members will use the local time of their domicile when beginning a flight segment for the purpose of calculating flight time and duty limits for Table 10.50.01/.2 unless directed otherwise by Dispatch or Crew Scheduling.

Question 40

Q

Is a Dead Head leg at the end of a sequence counted toward the flight duty period limit

Question 41

Q

Are Flight time extensions permitted prior to takeoff

Answer

A

No, Prior to Takeoff, flight time extensions are not permitted. A pilot may not depart, nor may the Company dispatch a flight with a known condition that would extend the flight time to the point a flight time limit would be exceeded.

Question 42

Q

Are flight Duty Extensions permitted prior to Takeoff

Answer

A

Yes, If unforeseen operational circumstances arise, flight duty period extensions may occur with the concurrence of the crew member, the PIC, and the Company. An extension of more than 30 mins is permitted only once between required 30 hour rest periods.

Prior to takeoff: A Flight duty extensions of up to 2 hours may occur if the following conditions can be met.
- Only one extension greater than 30 mins may occur between required 30 hour rest periods.
- The extension may not cause the crew member to exceed a cumulative FDP limit.

Question 43

Q

Each crew-member must be provided with a minimum of ____ consecutive rest (Free of all Company assigned duty) within the past 168 consecutive hour period. (Rolling Week)

Question 44

Q

When must the crew-member update their iOS, Lido mPilot, FlySmart+/eQRH, and company approved DMS application

Answer

A

Prior to reporting for Duty

(PAGE 45, Study Guide Vol 1)

Question 45

Q

How many hours of rest is required between flight duty or reserve availability periods? How many hours of uninterrupted sleep opportunity is required?

Question 46

Q

When must the EFB be secured

Answer

A

Only during critical phases of flight

Question 47

Q

If the CA of FO lost their EFB, may they barrow a fellow crew-member EFB to conduct aa flight

Question 48

Q

Explain how you would handle an EFB failure before departure, during taxing, or between legs of a trip

Answer

A

Ref: VOL 1, Section 10.70, pg. 15; EFB Failure flow chart

Question 49

Q

When is the PIC the (ISC) “In Flight Security Coordinator

Answer

A

Cabin doors Shut to Cabin door open

Question 50

Q

Must we land at the nearest suitable airport for an inflight engine shutdown

Question 51

Q

When is a crew briefing performed to flight attendants

Question 52

Q

Must the CA brief all Flight Attendants

Answer

A

No, Just the FO and at least 1 Flight Attendant, Preferably “A.” The FA’s not briefed by the CA should at some point make an attempt to introduce themselves to the Flight Deck Crew prior to departure.

Question 53

Q

Should the Crew briefing to flight attendants take place near passengers

Question 54

Q

Must all Flight attendants be on board and remain onboard during passenger boarding and de-boarding

Question 55

Q

Are Pilots permitted to stand in for a flight attendant during passenger boarding and de-boarding

Question 56

Q

May a pilot in uniform stand in for a flight attendant on a through-flight situation

Question 57

Q

Who has operational control to refuse a passenger

Question 58

Q

Who is required to board passengers with disability or those passengers who require assistance

Answer

A

CSA’s or contract venders

Question 59

Q

Must a passenger provide a physician’s statement stating the use of a POC is necessary? Must the CA be notified?

Answer

A

Yes/Yes, CA must also be notified of the contents of the physician’s statement including the magnitude and nature of the passenger’s oxygen needs.

Question 60

Q

When are the flight crew required to report for duty

Answer

A

-1 hour prior, Domicile/International
-45min prior, away from domicile
-Reserve flight crew members are required to report for duty as defined within the guidelines of the duty assignment

*If not all crew members are present 45 min prior to departure, call crew scheduling

Question 61

Q

Where can you find what manuals/equipment are required to be on board for each flight

Answer

A

FOM VOL.1, Sec 20.10 pg. 2; Table 20.10.1

Question 62

Q

Will dispatch provide flight paperwork for all company flights including operations conducted under 14 CFR 91 Rules

Question 63

Q

Briefly explain the joint responsibility of the Captain and the Dispatcher

Question 64

Q

Who has the authority to delay a flight

Answer

A

Both Captain and Dispatcher

Answer 48

A

SOC (System Operations Control)

Answer 49

A

-1,2,3 rule for Domestic/Flag, A/C dispatched under IFR will have at least 1 alternate airport for each destination on the dispatch. However, No alternate is required if 1 hour before/after the ETA at destination the WX reports or forecast or any combination indicate,

CEILING; 2000’ AFE (Domestic), >2000’ AFE or 1500’ above lowest IAP minimum (FLAG)
VISIBILITY; 3sm (Domestic), >3sm or 2sm more then lowest visibility minimum (FLAG)

Answer 50

A

WX @ Departure airport is < CAT 1 min for that airport; Max 1hr normal cruise, SE, Still Air, max 330nm

Answer 51

A

Ceiling is within 100’ or Visibility is within 1/2sm for that airport
Based on CAT1 mins, when marginal WX at Destination and Alternate, at least one additional alternate is required

Answer 52

A

When dispatched to airports based solely on availability of RNAV (GPS or RNP) must always have an Alternate with a suitable (GPS or RNP) approach available

Answer 53

A

Severe Icing forecast within 1hr of arrival, an alternate is required

Answer 54

A

Method 2 dispatch, and alternate is required

Answer 55

A

Always need an Alternate

Answer 56

A

> then 6hrs; Alternate Always required

Answer 57

A

Flight may be dispatched under 20144 w/use of “BECMG, PROB, TEMPO” in remarks stating WX could be below minimums at time of arrival provided the main body of the report destination ceiling and visibility for the alternate will be at or above minimums when the flight arrives. This exemption is subject to the following:

2 Alternates must be listed in the dispatch, and the remarks section must show flight dispatched under exemption 20144.

Conditional remarks on WX reports or forecast indicate worst WX are forecast to be:
-Destination, 1/2 minimum visibility required for IAP expected
-1st Alternate not < 1/2 required alternate minimum ceiling and visibility for the airport
-2nd Alternate or above the alternate minimums for that airport
-Fuel to fly to destination, fly and land at most distant alternate, expected ATC routing, then 45 minutes normal cruise
-PIC must contact Dispatch enroute for current WX at destination/alternates and coordinate to continue or divert
-BECMG TAF that is DETERIORATING valid first minute of period, BECMG TAF that is IMPROVING not valid unit last minute of period.

-Valid for domestic flights, not FLAG or SUPPLEMENTAL operations

Answer 58

A

-Dispatch or Flight release
-Flight Plan
-Current WX (METAR/TAF at time CA signs release)
-NOTAMS
-Performance (AWP or TLR)
-WB (AWP or Load Planning)

Answer 59

A

FOM VOL1, SEC 20.30;

When AWP is available, the TLR or data from the TLR is only required when the special ACARS runway entry codes are necessary due to runway NOTAMS being in effect (shortened runway, temporary obstacle in departure path).

Answer 60

A

Reference FOM VOL 1, Section 20.32 pgs 1-11

Answer 61

A

Fuel DEN: Planned Ramp Fuel load
BRAKE RLS: Required fuel at Take off
ENRT BURN: Fuel used from Take off to Landing at destination
TAXI BURN: in pounds fuel used only for taxi for departure

Answer 62

A

For 2 ENG aircraft, net altitude is the altitude which the aircraft can maintain a 1.1% climb gradient at current weight.
Service Ceiling or 0% climb gradient is approximately 5000’ higher than the net altitude capability. The difference between the net and actual altitude is the operating safety margin.

Answer 63

A

Method 1 performance ensures the aircrafts net altitude capability will clear all obstructions 5sm on either side of intended route by 1000’ until reaching destination. AC must also have a positive net gradient at 1500’ above destination airport. These requirements provide actual aircraft capability of approx. 6000’ above most critical obstruction and 6500’ AFE at Green Dot and planned positions.

Planning purposes only

Answer 64

A

Method 2 performance ensures an aircraft with an engine failure can divert to at least one suitable airport (drift down alternate) from cruise altitude by the aircrafts net driftdown altitude will clear all obstacles 5sm on either side of the route by 2000’ until reaching diversion airport. These requirements provide actual aircraft altitude capability of approximately 7000’ over most critical obstruction and 6500’ AFE at Green Dot.

Planning purposes only

Answer 65

A

Method 2 dispatch performance analysis assumes the aircraft diverts to the suitable airport when it is a beam the airport along the plan route and that the suitable airport is no more than 130NM from the abeam point. If the beam point is behind the aircraft, reverse course in proceed back along the plan route to the beam point and then direct to the driftdown airport.

Answer 66

A

If I takeoff alternate is required, flight plan routing is determined utilizing a method 1METW to ensure adequate terrain clearance from the departure airport direct to the takeoff alternate. If the flight encounters an engine failure before reaching the flight plan cruise altitude, the flight planning analysis assumes the flight crew will comply with the following:

– Reverse course and proceed back to the departure airport.
– After returning to the airport, the analysis assumes the flight crew will proceed direct to the takeoff alternate airport.

These assumptions are for planning purposes only

Answer 67

A

For in-flight purposes, a legal suitable airport is one where a safe landing can be made. When determining airport suitability, consider the following: actual and forecast weather, location of airport in reference to terrain, available navigate and approaches, approach minimum‘s, length of runways, NOTAMs, Emergency equipment, and passenger handling facilities.

At the beginning of descent (TOD), the nearest airport in a point of time is usually the destination airport, even if the suitable airport is closer in distance, unless an emergency descent is required.

Answer 68

A

The correct crew names (including the captain) are not required unless the release is for a supplemental operation. If a crewmember changes on the supplemental flight, the captain will need to obtain an ARTR.

Answer 69

A

Crews may block out prior to the dispatch release time once all revenue passengers and cargo have been boarded. However, a block out time of more than 10 minutes early must be coordinated with dispatch.

Answer 70

A

If a crew member changes on the supplemental flight, the captain will need to obtain an ARTR
In excess of one hour past the dispatch release time
Alternate added or changed: Once the flight is underway, selection of a different alternate requires the dispatcher to provide an ARTR to ensure the aircraft has an adequate fuel supply and the airport is operationally suitable
Fuel added more than 1000 pounds. Or less than brake release: the captain may add up to 1000Lbs over the plan fuel at his/her discretion. An amount greater than 1000Lbs shall require an ARTR from dispatch. If the CA wishes to reduce the fuel load below the brake release fuel, he or she must contact dispatch to obtain an ARTR.
MEL/CDL/NEF added or removed: MEL/CDL/NEF items must be shown on the dispatch release prior to advancing the thruster levers for takeoff. Contact dispatch to obtain an a RTRF there is a disparity between the aircraft logbook and the release, or if an item is deferred in accordance with MEL/CDL manual procedures after blackout.
Enroute deviation greater than 100NM: If the planned route is changed by ATC prior to takeoff, and the resulting stage length increases by more than 100NM, the Captain must obtain an ARTR.

Answer 71

A

By any available means, (Phone, Radio, ACARs, Aviobook, MCWebb etc).

Answer 72

A

For an ARTR to be valid, amendments must be acknowledged by the CA via ACARs, phone call, or radio to dispatch, or via a company agent?

Answer 73

A

ARTR#, time of issuance, and dispatcher initials.

Answer 74

A

Use the manual dispatch release form contained in the diversion/forms kit on board each aircraft. The information required to fill out the form may be obtained from dispatch by any available means (most commonly by a telephone or ACARS). Text items and numbers shown in light blue illustrate what required information must be filled in.

Answer 75

A

– Forecast weather conditions which may delay a flight
– Anticipated traffic delays
– fuel for a possible missed approach
– fuel considered unusable due to MMEL/CDL restriction
– any other conditions that may delay landing of the aircraft
– international flights dispatched under op spec B043, additional fuel of 10% of the flight time during which the aircraft position cannot be reliably fixed at least once an hour will be included.

Note: The reason for any additional contingency fuel, above a standard amount, will be noted in the remarks section of the release.

Answer 76

A

– Climb to Cruise flight altitude
– Cruise flight to the most distant alternate initial approach fix
– Planned at cost index of 0
– One approach and landing at the most distant alternate airport.

Answer 77

A

Reserve fuel of 45 minutes a flight time (based on last cruise altitude in the flight plan) is included for all operations.

Answer 78

A

Total fuel burn, Contingency, ALTN and reserve fuel. Brake Release is the minimum fuel that must be on board to push the thrust levers up for takeoff.

Answer 79

A

Extra fuel is used for the possibility of extended taxi time.

Answer 80

A

Taxi Fuel; added for a normal taxi burn. (The TAXI outfield)
Taxi In; is a time value to assist with the determining flight time limits. (Estimated taxi time from landing to the gate).

Answer 81

A

Ramp Fuel: Is the total of Brake Release, Extra, Tanker and Taxi fuel.

Answer 82

A

For planning purposes
To serve as a back up for when AWP is unavailable
A means of determining ACARs runaway codes for runways shortend due to construction, temporary obstacle, etc.

Answer 83

A

No, the takeoff data is based on this QNH and is valid when is the actual QNH is no less than .10 below PQNH. (This restriction does not apply to the Landing Data section)
* If QNH falls below this value, CA must use AWP or request new TLR/performance data by any means

Answer 84

A

The simple-special procedure differs from standard procedures in that a turn to a NAVAID or heading is required before reaching 1000’ AFE
Flap Retraction Altitude (FRA) remains 1000’ AFE unless otherwise specified in the FRA column of TLR

Answer 85

A

Yes, they are mandatory in IMC/VMC. However, they are only mandatory in VMC until reaching 1000’ AFE unless otherwise specified.

And IMC, if radar vectors are not available, comply with a simple special procedure until 3000’ AFE at which time you may proceed on course (if applicable).

Answer 86

A

Unless otherwise noted, hold STD on the inbound radio using direct entry. (STD= right turns and 1minute legs)

Answer 87

A

Complex special-procedure is issued when an engine failure procedure is too complex to fit in a simple special table and or other considerations must be taken into account.

Answer 88

A

Yes, and the procedure must be flown in it’s entirety regardless of IMC or VMC.

Answer 89

A

– Standard engine failure procedures are located in TLR and AWP solution.
– Simple special engine failure procedures are located in the TLR and the AWP solution.
– Complex special engine failure procedures are located in the SID section of the Commercial Navigation Charting application (Lido)

Answer 90

A

Either through AWP solution or using the QRH planning distance performance section. The landing report of the TLR is for planning purposes only.

Answer 91

A

– Obtaining a child count
– Increasing the PMTOW or reducing tanker fuel (if any).
– Removing weight in the following order of priority
1. COMAT (not AOG).
2. Space available non-rev passengers and bags. Lowest priority seniority removed first
3. Positive space Nonrev passengers and bags
4. Revenue passengers and bags
5. AOG COMAT

(VOL 1; Section 20.37)

Answer 92

A

Yes, as long as there is coordination between the loadmaster and the flight crew, late bags may be accommodated after block out and prior to ENG start. The crew must ensure the weight and balance manifest (obtained via AWP or load planning) is adjusted, as necessary, to account for the late bags.

Answer 93

A

Cabin Seat Baggage = 90 LBS

Answer 94

A

AWP solution (Primary Method)
Arrow data cFDP application along with the TLR for takeoff performance data
Weight and Balance manifest provided by Centralized Load Planning. (CLP)
Computer Generated W&B Manifest from CLP.
Note: except in Denver, or computer generated weight and balance manifest must be signed by the captain and left with the departure station.

Answer 95

A

Yes, except in Denver, all computer generated weight and balance manifest must be signed by the CA and left with the departure station or given to the Charter Coordinator. In the ladder case, the Charter Coordinator will mail a copy of the manifest to SOC. In Denver, the load planner signed the final copy that is archived.

Answer 96

A

No, the load planner will sign and archive the weight and balance manifest

Answer 97

A

Departure fuel will not be less than required:
– to fly to airport to which it is dispatched
– there after to fly to and land at the most distant alternate, where required
– there after to fly for 45 minutes at last flight plan cruise altitude

Must consider:
– one instrument approach and possible missed approach at destination
– wind and other weather conditions forecast
– anticipated traffic delays
– any other known conditions that may delay landing of the aircraft
– increased fuel consumption for higher than normal crew speeds for flights which are behind scheduled departure

*International flights (including flights to Alaska) will be dispatched with additional fuel, as required by OPS spec B043, to fly for a period of 10% of that portion of the end route time with the aircraft position cannot be “reliably fixed“ at least once each hour. This fuel will be shown in Contingency fuel.

Answer 98

A

1000lbs / ARTR

Answer 99

A

Yes, compare the FOB to release fuel; as long as the FOB is no less than 500lbs from the release fuel, no crew action is required and the fuel is considered reliable.

Answer 100

A

300 gallons (divided by 6.7) or 1100 L (divided by 1.77)
(FOM VOL.I, section 20.38)

Answer 101

A

Yes, but avoid electrical power transfers

Answer 102

A

There are none

Answer 103

A

Mostly yes. Visibility is normally the only requirement for takeoff minimums.

However, if a ceiling value as specified as required on the SID chart or the back of the airport diagram, it must be complied with if we are using that SID or a particular runway that requires ceiling minimum’s.

Answer 104

A

Visibility: 1 SM or 5000 RVR

Answer 105

A

Standard takeoff minimum may be used or any lower than standard takeoff minimums authorized in Ops Spec C078

Answer 106

A

Yes. When we feeling at the gate, the main cabin door should remain open until fueling is complete.

Answer 107

A

500/500/500 RVR with HIRL and CL Lights.

Answer 108

A

When WX conditions at the departure airport is below CAT I landing minimum for that airport, I takeoff Walton airport is required. (CAT 1 = 1800 RVR or 1/2 sm or better).

Answer 109

A

When a takeoff alternate is required, a maximum time of 1+00 (normal crew speed, single engine, still air) and the maximum distance of 330 NM may be used.

Answer 110

A

When RVR is 1200ft or less SMGCCS goes into effect.

Answer 111

A

At most airports that authorize CAT II/III operations below 600 RVR, “follow me” vehicles are available in the event that crews need additional guidance to the gate due to restrict visibility

Answer 112

A

“Severe Ising” is defined as the rate of accumulation of ice where de-icing/anti-icing equipment fails to reduce or control that hazard.

Answer 113

A

If severe icy conditions are forecast at the destination within one hour of the scheduled arrival time as suitable alternate must be listed on the release.

Operations are prohibited:
-In Moderate or Heavy freezing rain and heavy freezing drizzle
-In known severe icing conditions, except under emergency authority of the CA

Answer 114

A

Reference Table 20.50.1, VOL I Section 20.50
-Non-Pre No Vert Guidance- LDA,LDA/DME, LOC, LOC/DME, VOR, VOR/DME, VOR/DME RNAV, RNAV (GPS), RNAV (GNSS), GPS
with Vertical Guidance- LDA w/Glide Slope, LDA/PRM, LDA/DME PRM, RNAV (GPS), RNAV (GNSS), RNAV PRM
-Precision App- ILS, ILS/DME, ILS/ PRM

Answer 115

A

Derived Decision Altitude (DDA) must be utilized when conducting an approach with a published MDA(H). DDA is derived by adding 50’ to the published MDA(H). This will ensure the aircraft will not descend below the published MDA(H) if the required visual references for continuing the approach are not observed and a missed approach is necessary.
Note: A circling manuever uses a MDA not a DDA

Answer 116

A

To perform a circle to land maneuver, the pilot must:
- Have a ceiling and invisibility that is higher of either reported ceiling and visibility of at least 1000’/ 3sm; or reported weather is at least equal to the chart circling minimums for the approach to be used.
- Use the higher MDA of either:
-1000’ (HAA)
- MDA of the charted circling to land minimums for the approach to be used
- Clear of Clouds
-If visual reference to the airport is lost, a Missed Approach must be executed!!!

Note: Only Circling Maneuvers require BOTH visibility/ceiling to start approach, All others only require visibility to begin the approach.

Answer 117

A

If weather deteriorate inside of the FAF, operations based upon a DH/DA may continue to the DH/DA and land if the specified visual reference is subsequently established by the pilot no later than DH/DA.

Operations based upon Alert Height (AH) may continue to land after passing the FAF regardless of reported weather conditions if equipped with a fail operational (CAT III DUAL) landing/rollout system which did not indicate a malfunction prior to passing the Alert Height (AH).

Answer 118

A

(SA) CAT II, Yes
(SA) CAT I, No

Answer 119

A

When terrain contours are published on any SID, STAR, or approach procedure at that location. A mountain symbol may also be inserted in the Airport Information Pages (AIP) found on the top of the first page of an airport that meets the train to the airport policy criteria.

Answer 120

A

No, if terrain is not a threat to a specific flight this train briefing may not be required.

Answer 121

A

During critical phases of flight
- Ground operations involving taxing (when in motion).
- Takeoff and landing operations; and all other flight operations conducted below 10,000’ AFE, except cruise flight

Answer 122

A

While the aircraft is in motion onto the ground
During takeoff, initial claim, descent below 18,000’ and landing
Prior to entering an area of expected moderate or greater turbulence
After entering an area of moderate or greater turbulence until conditions improve

Answer 123

A

121.5; If ACARS is MEL’d, then monitor ARINC

Answer 124

A

Departure: Out/Off times and fuel on board
Arrival (in range call): ETA, specials, and fuel on board
At the gate arrival: On/Times and fuel on board

Answer 125

A

ACARS TOGA Report
- To meet the requirements of Frontier’s engine monitoring program, each aircraft must perform a max power takeoff (or TOGA takeoff) at specified intervals.

Answer 126

A

On the reports to dispatch tables located in FOM VOL. I, section 25.10, pgs 5–6

Answer 127

A

When passing through 10,000’ AFE or 30 nautical miles from the destination airport which ever occurs first?

Answer 128

A

Seatbelt signs off, then back on

Answer 129

A

Pushing the Forward and Aft Call Buttons signifies the aircraft has been cleared for takeoff and landing

Answer 130

A

Reviewing the aircraft logbook and placards prior to flight to determine the effect of MEL/CDL/NEF/INFO on the planned operation the CA shall find the last airworthiness sign up and from that page forward:
Determine whether the maintenance status of the aircraft is acceptable for flight by checking the aircraft logbook for any open or deferred items. Flight is not permitted with an open right up in the aircraft logbook
Verify all MEL/CDL/NEF items are listed on the release. Note: TDI/INFO only items are not required on the release.
Ensure compliance with MEL/CDL requirements and special maintenance and operational procedures, as necessary.

Answer 131

A

A discrepancy must be entered in the logbook for the missing pages, contact maintenance control through the responsible dispatcher.
Maintenance will complete specified task to ensure that no open discrepancies exist and/or schedule maintenance tasks are overflown, return the aircraft service, and make the entry in the corrective action column. Once these procedures have been completed, the flight may depart as normal.

Answer 132

A

Aircraft QRH
FOM VOL II
Maintenance Manual guidance as directed by MCC
For additional information on system reset procedures, reference the QRH>QRH procedures>System Reset and FOM VOL II, Sec 5.05

Answer 133

A

True. When the aircraft is inflight, the flight crew is limited to attempting a system reset only as described in the aircraft QRH

Answer 134

A

Only one successful system reset (of the same system) is authorized per flight leg.

Note: This does not preclude a crew attempting an additional reset directed by MCC after the crew attempts a reset. In this case, it would be considered one attempt to reset the system.

Answer 135

A

Make a successful system reset entry in the logbook (Fig.25.20.10)
Note: a corresponding maintenance entry is not authorized.
Must include the CA signature
Contact MCC through the responsible Dispatcher to review the logbook for accuracy and maintenance tracking purposes

Answer 136

A

Contact MCC through the responsible Dispatcher to identify if other system reset guidance is available.
If no other guidance is available, Or the system reset is unsuccessful, crew will enter fault as a discrepancy for appropriate maintenance action.

Answer 137

A

False. The entry must identify the authorizing manual reference the system reset was approved through.
Must be documented as “Authorized Per” specific manual
(“Reset system successfully per AMM XX-XX-XX”)

Answer 138

A

The CCR is a form used by flight attendants to notify flight crew of cabin discrepancies. The form may be discarded once all items are entered into the aircraft logbook.
- May be presented to flight crew during preflight or completion of flight

Answer 139

A

Dispatcher/MCC

Answer 140

A

Single word or phrase errors are corrected by drawing a line through them; adding the correct information adjacent to the lined out item.

Correcting entire block entry, a diagonal line through the entry and right “Entered In Error” or (EIE) on the diagonal line.

DO USE CORRECTIVE FLUIDS!

Answer 141

A

No. If no maintenance action has been performed, a log page is not required to be completed for each calendar day.

Answer 142

A

A/C number
Today’s date: (Based on mountain standard time – Denver)

Answer 143

A

Mountain Standard Time (Denver)

Answer 144

A

A Discrepancy
A Flight Crew Placarding (FCP)
A System reset
A Follow-up Required
An Overweight Landing

Answer 145

A

No. Each entry block should reference only one item, even when items are similar

Answer 146

A

Computer Reset, Follow-up Required, or Flight Crew Placard (FCP).

Answer 147

A

If a discrepancy or malfunction occurs after block out prior to Takeoff, crews should consult the eQRH/contact dispatch and MCC to determine if a computer reset may be performed. If the system cannot be reset, or the reset is unsuccessful, the flight may continue without returning to gate for maintenance action if the item can be deferred using Flight Crew Placard procedures.

Answer 148

A

Yes, discrepancies and malfunctions that are discovered or reported while aircraft is at the gate shall be addressed prior to block out. The discrepancy or malfunction shall either be repaired or deferred using the MEL/CDL/NEF program or other approved means.
Discrepancies occurring during flight must be entered in the aircraft logbook upon arrival. Crews are encouraged to notify MCC as soon as possible to minimize delay.

Answer 149

A

MEL/CDL/Info only: Orange
MEL/CDL-FR: Green
NEF: Pink

Answer 150

A

Yes, if the appropriate placard is not available, a different color may be used until the correct one is available.

Answer 151

A

Contact MCC through the responsible dispatcher.
Note: zip ties are acceptable and are to be installed.

If circuit breaker collars are not available during initial placarding, contact frontier engineering department for EA permitting and alternate part/method of collaring the circuit breaker

Answer 152

A

FOM VOL. I, Section 25.20 pg. 13–16

-Aborted/reject to takeoff
-Airframe vibration report
-Auto land
-Bird, wildlife and lightning strikes
-Brake overheat
-Extreme dust conditions
-Engine failure/shut down in-flight
-Flap over speed
-Gear pins
-Hail
-Overweight and hard landing (load 15 report)
-Odor, smoke/fume event
-Nose with vibration report
-RVSM operations: altitude deviation of 300’ or more
-TAXI outside of defined movement area or off of hard surface
-Severe or greater turbulence encountered
-Volcanic Ash

Answer 153

A

Not until receiving maintenance approval do not operate any control switch or circuit breaker on and out of service aircraft unless specifically authorized to do so by mechanics performing maintenance.

Answer 154

A

MEL: the MEL program allows for a temporary change in type design to address missing or in operative equipment in order to maintain the validity of the airworthiness certificate.

CDL: the CDL program allows for continued operations with missing secondary air frame and engine parts.

NEF: The NEF program allows the deferral of an operative, damaged or missing items that will have no effect on the safe operation of the aircraft, and which are not required by certification standards or operating rules. NEF items are most commonly generated from a cabin condition report (CCR), but may also include items found on the flight deck and in the cargo compartment.

Other Deferred Maintenance (ODM): Referrals that our crew visibility in nature utilize and info only placard to notify air crewmembers that the items on the placard has been documented and is being tracked by maintenance department.

Info-Only Placard: Deferrals that are not addressed in the MEL/CDL/NEF manual. Refer to the MEL general – deferral placard section for more information on deferral placard procedures for other deferral maintenance (ODM) items.

Answer 155

A

Hand/Light signals for break release, clear to push, and emergency stop.

Answer 156

A

a vehicle may be equipped with a “Severe Weather Aircraft Parking Systems,” used to Marshall aircraft into parking positions, utilizing light signals

Answer 157

A

FOM VOL. I, section 25.30

Answer 158

A

F9 is authorized to use the Advanced Visual Docking Guidance System (A-VDGS) which uses an eye-safe infrared laser and 3-D scanning to detect and measure nose, engine, and wing positions to verify the aircraft type and safely guide the aircraft to the correct stop position

Answer 159

A

Yes, the following conditions must exist:
– Must maintain the 91.155 cloud clearance requirements.
– Reported ceiling and visibility to be 1000 feet or greater, 1sm visibility (2sm night).
– Remain in VMC until IFR clearance received.
– Must obtain IFR clearance ASAP, but no further than 50 nautical miles from departure airport.

Answer 160

A

SID/STAR: Total system error if not more than 1NM 95% of the total flight time (i.e., RNP 1.0).
RNP Q/T route: Total system error for not more than 2NM 95% of the total flight time (i.e., RNP 2.0)

Answer 161

A

The pilot must:
-Be able to engage the RNAV flight guidance no later than 500’ AFE
-Maintain a total system error of not more than 1NM 95% of the total flight time (RNP 1.0)
-Use a flight Director and or auto pilot in LNAV mode (Managed NAV).
-Procedure must be retrieved from navigation database (DO NOT BUILD IT).

Answer 162

A

Yes, RNAV 1 procedures require the use of RNAV systems with GPS or DME/DME/IRU. Procedures are authorized with GPS inoperative using DME/DME/IRU provided NAV Accuracy is “HIGH.”
-Most SID/STAR and approach plates will note GPS or DME/DME/IRU required.

Answer 163

A

Prior to entry:
– 2 primary altitude measuring systems.
– 1 automatic pilot system
– 1 altitude alerting device.
– 1 altitude reporting transponder.

Specific equipment:
– Flight warning (FWC)
– Flight control unit (FCU)
– Auto pilot.
– Transponder with altitude reporting capabilities
– 2 PFD
– 2 ADR’s
– 2 DMC’s

Answer 164

A

Q and T routes are RNAV routes within high and low altitude enroute structure requireing system performance by GPS/and or DME/DME/IRU systems. A/C operating on domestic RNAV routes must maintain a total system error bounded by the RNP value of 95% of the total flight time (RNAV 2 = 2nm or RNP 2.0)

Answer 165

A

Class I navigation is any enroute flight operation conducted within service volumes of VOR, VOR/DME and or NDB navigation facilities.
Class II navigation is outside Class I

Answer 166

A

6.2 hours, may be relevant when opperating to Cancun and loss of both GPS occurs. Class II A/C will down grade to IRS ONLY navigation during spots of CLASS II navigation. (no GND Base facilities available). When entering back to CLASS I, the A/C with upgrade to DME/DME/IRU navigation

Answer 167

A

RNP 10 is a navigational specification applicable to oceanic and remote area operations that allows 50nm lateral separation over specific areas when operational requirements have been met.

All aircraft conducting RMP 10 operations will have a 95% cross-track error (XTK) of less than 10nm. This includes positioning error, Flight Technical Error, path definition error and display error. All aircraft will also have 95% along-track positioning error of less than 10nm.

Answer 168

A

– Gulf of Mexico.
– The Atlantic airspace between the U.S. east coast and Caribbean destinations.

Answer 169

A

Yes, an auto pilot must be engaged and functioning properly, unless turbulence or other circumstances require disengagement

Answer 170

A

When:
- ATIS reported RVR/visibility is at or below 2400 RVR or 1/2 SM
- Cat II or CAT III runway is available
- Aircraft is autoland capable.
– Both crewmembers are trained

Answer 171

A

Visibility is the only requirement for landing minimums. An approach can be made if the required visibility is reported, regardless of the ceiling. The only exception to this is minimums for a circling maneuver.

Answer 172

A

Green Dot

Answer 173

A

When any change to existing clearance results in landing with less than planned reserve fuel. This is not a declaration of an emergency situation nor imply a need for traffic priority but merely and advisory.

Answer 174

A

The CA SHOULD declare a fuel emergency, when there is need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing. Report remaining fuel in minutes
The CA WILL declare a fuel emergency, when calculated fuel at landing at the nearest suitable airport is less than PLANNED FINAL RESERVE fuel.
“MAYDAY, MAYDAY, MAYDAY, Fuel.”

Answer 175

A

(FOMVOL. I, Section 30.10)

Answer 176

A

Yes, if the crew is to keep the aircraft for the next flight, the pre-flight exterior inspection will suffice for the inspection as well. If the crew is to leave the aircraft, the crew leaving the flight must accomplish a Post flight exterior inspection. The oncoming crew accomplishing the preflight exterior inspection does not satisfy this requirement.

For international flights, the crew must ensure that all customs clearance requirements have been met prior to performing the walk around inspection. If it is impractical for the crew to perform the Post flight exterior inspection (the aircraft has been repositioned), the crew shall contact MCC through the responsible dispatcher to request a post exterior inspection .

Answer 177

A

All company ASAP, fatigue and incident reports are to be submitted through the ProSafeT via the ProSafeT application on the EFB or MyFrontier.org>My Limks> ProSafeT.

Answer 178

A

International flight rules may be conducted under domestic, supplemental, or flag rules. The dispatch release will indicate when a flight is being conducted under flag or supplemental rules.
(FOM VOL. I, section 35.10).

Answer 179

A

International briefcase contains all documents, required by the United States and the destination country for exit and entry.
The “A“ flight attendant shall verify that the international briefcase contains all required forms in sufficient quantity for the round-trip.

Answer 180

A

GPWS
TCAS
ACARS

Answer 181

A

ACARS
If necessary, ACARS may be in-operative for dispatch with the approval of the Director of Operations, the Director of Safety, the Chief Pilot, or an assigned design acting in their behalf

Answer 182

A

True.
Atlantic: To ensure adequate VHF capability, crews must remain west and south of the New York, CTA/FIR, when operating aircraft, not equipped with long range, communication systems (LRCS) refer to operations and international airspace procedures when operating in the New York oceanic portion of the west Atlantic.

Answer 183

A

Anytime the estimated time of arrival at the destination exceeds 15 minutes beyond the ETA generated by the MGC at wheels up.
Anytime the assigned cruise altitude varies by 4000’ or more from the flight plan cruise altitude for longer than 15 minutes.
Anytime the flight deviates more than 100nm from the flight planned route.

Answer 184

A

No, we must request a VMC approach.

An ICAO “Visual Approach” is the equivalent of a “Contact Approach” under U.S. FAR’s Frontier does not conduct contact approaches.

Answer 185

A

The omission of a specified approach indicates that any authorized procedure may be used at the CA discretion

Answer 186

A

The West Atlantic (WAT) is an extensive network of routes linking points in the United States, Canada, Bermuda, the Bahamas and the Caribbean. This airspace is contained within certain areas of the New York Oceanic, Miami Oceanic, and San Juan Oceanic.

Answer 187

A

Yes, per Ops Spec B045 using a single HF radio. The areas within the West Atlantic (WAT).

Answer 188

A

HF is not required for operations in the Gulf of Mexico Special Provisions area unless a component of the VHF Extended Range Network (VERN) is inoperative. No allowance is made for operations with a single VHF voice radio in the Gulf of Mexico special provisions area.

Answer 189

A

The Selective Calling System (SELCAL) is a signaling method to alert an individual aircraft that a ground station wishes to communicate with it. SELCAL signals can be transmitted over HF or VHF. While SELCAL is functional and available in domestic operations and VHF frequencies. It is mostly used in oceanic operations HF frequencies. Properly working SELCAL relieves the crew from maintaining a listening watch on assigned HF frequencies during oceanic operations.

Answer 190

A

– Position fix the aircraft is passing.
– Time: UTC time over the reporting point
– Altitude: Flight level or altitude
– Position: Name of the next compulsory reporting point
– Time: ETA over next compulsory reporting point
– Position: Name of the succeeding compulsory porting point
– Any additional pertinent remarks (e.g., turbulence significant meteorological conditions).

Answer 191

A

Yes, provided:
– GPS primary or NAV ACCURACY HIGH.
– Course and appear reasonable.
– Abeam points are selected for fuel scoring procedures while in Class II Airspace.
– Course and distance checks listed above are resumed upon rejoining the flight plan route while in Class II Airspace.

Answer 192

A

Strategic Lateral Offset Procedures. The strategic lateral offset procedure has been designed to include offset to mitigate the effects of turbulence of preceding aircraft.

Answer 193

A

Strategic lateral offset shall be established at the distance of 1NM or 2NM to the right of the centerline relative to the direction of flight.

Answer 194

A

Gulf of Mexico and WAT airspace

Answer 195

A

Pilots are not required to advise ATC nor request authorization to apply SLOP in the Gulf of Mexico non-radar environment airspace or WAT non-radar environment airspace. If the flight crew desires to continue SLOP once entering radar environment airspace, they must obtain clearance from ATC to exiting the non-radar environment. If SLOP is desired to be conducted in areas of radar environment, ATC approval must be obtained. This includes those areas of the Gulf of Mexico control area (CTA) where ATC radar surveillance is available. Otherwise, SLOP must only be initiated and terminated within the radar environment.

Answer 196

A

The Ops Agent

Answer 197

A

A permit to proceed

Answer 198

A

Be familiar with how to deal with international diversions for each of the countries that frontier serves. Since each country is unique with its own policies, there is not one single procedure to follow. However, there are two common principles discussed in all international diversions.

Coordination with dispatch/SOC as soon as possible is essential when diverting on international flights

Do not open any door open parentheses cabin or cargo), window or any exterior compartment (fuel doors, etc.) until customs or immigration officials has cleared the flight to do so. When possible, cruise should wait until dispatch has communicated to the crew that they have received authorization to open any door, or take any services. Failure to keep the aircraft “sterile” could result in a U.S. Custom fine. However, the Captain still has the right to exercise his/her emergency authority.

Answer 199

A

Mayday: aircraft in distress.
Pan : Aircraft is in an urgency condition

Answer 200

A

RVR <1200’ Service Movement and Guidance Control Systems (SMGCS) will be implemented if installed and Operational

“Follow Me” services are available at MOST airports that authorize CAT II/III Ops <600’ RVR. Vehicles will be available to guide AC to within visual reference of gate and ground personnel.

Answer 201

A

PIC Shall Not begin an approach if visibility is <3/4sm; 4000’ RVR;
Unless 15% additional runway is available for landing at destination airport.

Answer 202

A

1sm - 5000’ RVR

Answer 203

A

Lowest Authorized RVR
TDZ MID RO (Roll-Out)
1200’ 1200’ 1000’
*RCLM (day light only) or HIRL, or CL Lights
1000’ 1000’ 1000’
*RCLM/HIRL, or CL Lights
500’ 500’ 500’
*HIRL/CL Lights
Note: <1600’ RVR, Min of two RVR reports systems are required. All available are controlling except Far-End RVR report.

Answer 204

A

WX is <CAT I Minimums at departure airport a T/O Alternate is needed.
1 Hour normal cruise, Single Engine, Still Air and no >330nm.

Answer 205

A

1 Operational NAV Facility, Straight in non-precision/CAT I Precision approach.

Answer 206

A

Ceiling within 100’ or 1/2sm of Minimums for that airport based on CAT I mins and at first Alternate based on derived alternate mins are marginal, and additional alternate is needed.

Answer 207

A

In an emergency situation that requires immediate action, the PIC may take any action they consider necessary. They may deviate from operational procedures and methods, WX requirements, FAR’s to the extent required in the interest of safety. They MUST keep ATC/Dispatch informed of progress of flight and submit an Incident Report within 36hrs. If priority is given by ATC, the PIC will submit a detailed report of the emergency with 48hrs to the requesting ATC manager.

Answer 208

A

-CAT I to published DA
-A/C must be capable for coupled APP
-CA/FO must have at least 75hrs as PIC or SIC in A/C
-RVR/VIS < 3/4sm or 4000 RVR, Max X-wind 15kts braking action good or better

Answer 209

A

-CAT II to published DH
-CA has 300hrs as PIC or SIC in turbo jet A/C
-Airport must be CAT II autoland capable
-CA or FO must have 75hrs of PIC/SIC in A/C
-CATII/III procedures use to autoland or missed approach

Answer 210

A

Yes, After Takeoff a flight duty period may be extended to the extent necessary to safely land the A/C at the next destination airport or alternate airport as appropriate

Answer 211

A

10hrs, 8hrs

Answer 212

A

Aviobooks library

Answer 213

A

F9 has been granted exemption 20195 allowing dispatch to destinations in the contiguous U.S., DC without designating an alternate when within +/- 1hr of ETA the minimum ceiling and visibility are lower then 2000’ AGL/3sm. Dependent on availability of CAT I or CATII/III visibility at destination. This exemption allows reduction of ceiling/visibility minimum requirements to designate a destination alternate to:

CAT I: 1000’ AGL/3sm
CAT II: 1000’ AGL/2sm
CAT III: 1000’ AGL/2sm

Answer 214

A

Must include following:
- Flight Operated Under Exemption 20295
- Crew/Aircraft must be CAT I/II/III capable w/reduced minimum (Ceiling/Visibility)
- Destination must have operable ILS at ETA, w/reduced minimums per table 20.20.1
-Dispatch prohibited when TS are reported/forecast +/- 1hr ETA
-Dispatch under this exemption not permitted in conjunction w/exemption20144
-This exemption is only authorized to destination within the contiguous U.S. and D.C.. Use of this exemption is prohibited anywhere else.

*Exemption 20295 can be used to travel from airports outside Lower 48/D.C. to destination within said areas.

Alternate must be filed when: WX forecast below requirements in table 20.20.1 within +/- 1hr of ETA

Answer 215

A

CA must inform Dispatch as soon as practical:
- Lateral deviation >100nm (Pre-departure/enroute reroute or deviations)
- Vertical deviations >4000’
- ETA exceeding planned ETA by >15 minutes
-Fuel consumption in excess of planned having negative affect on fuel requirements
-Fuel system component failure or apparent malfunction the may have a negative impact
-Significant WX/Turbulence from planned or forecast
-Assigned holding; Enroute or arrival
-Unplanned or sustained use of deicing or anti-icing equipment

Answer 216

A

FA Cabin count

Answer 217

A

Record/mapped and marked with an “X” by authorized personnel
Crews discovering this damage should;d look for these markings to determine the damage is known.

Answer 218

A

Both pilots must clear the parking/safety area, do not proceed if its not clear
Verify correct A/C type/Running Arrows are displayed
Don’t move A/C nose past the jet-bridge unless A-VDGS is displaying centerline indicator
Stop when “WAIT” or “STOP” message is displayed

Answer 219

A

Clean/Dry runway
Ceiling/Visibility minimum 1500’/5sm
Operating PAPI/VASI; mins 1000’/3sm
NOT AUTHORIZED if Windshear reported
Tail wind < 3knots
Touchdown 1st 3rd of Available Landing Distance (ALD) in no case beyond 3000’ from approach end of runway or “Go Around” (RLP)
LAHSO not to be conducted below Rejected LAnding Procedure (RLP) ceiling/visibility minimum
Notes:
LAHSO ALD published in Airport Operation Information (AOI), Lido.
LAHSO runway aliases for ACARS landing performance are found on the TLR

Answer 220

A

<1000’ AFE
If MEL/CDL impacts landing distance
If any failure occurs during flight that impacts landing distance
CA determines not acceptable

Answer 221

A

Appx 275lbs/hr

Answer 222

A

Reposition Flight:
- Prior to or upon completion of a revenue flight
- New A/C aquistion or sale/lease return
- Sending for or returning from scheduled MX checks or reconfiguration
Ferry Flight (Special Flight Permit):
- A/C does not meet airwothyness requirements, but is capable of safe flight
- Flying an A/C to a MX base for repair, alterations, or MX or to a point of storage
- Evacuating an A/C from an area if impending danger

If an A/C is airworthy, it will be operated as REPO without a SFP

Answer 223

A

14 CFR 91 rules, although 14 CFR 121 are not applicable. to Part 91 operations. The company is to provide the same level of preflight planning and support to all F9 Flights.

Answer 224

A

Yes, under Part 91 rules, Non-Rev PAX are permitted with the approval of the CA/Cheif Pilot or his or her designee. The names will be communicated to SOC/Dispatch before the flight

Answer 225

A

CA will ensure the emergency systems and equipment are inspected, available, accesabile and their serviceability prior to the flight
- Brief:
All occupants on Arming/Disarming of doors and slides for T/O and landing, Turbulance encounters, Medical situations, stowage of bags for T/O and Landing, and Emergency exits. The Safety information card (in seat backs) will address Restrictions to onboard smoking, fasten seatbelt sign, Exit row responsibility, Emergency Exits.

*If FA’s are on board, they will perform briefing and ensure the cabin is ready for takeoff as usual

*Briefing is not required id the CA determines the PAX are familiar with policies and procedures outlined in briefing

Answer 226

A

Qualified Check Airman Captain or designated OCF pilot at one of the pilot stations is required. The Director of Operations or Chief Pilot may approve a deviation from this requirement

Answer 227

A

Allowance Times are used in conditions involving ice pellets
Hold Over Times are used in Conditions involving Frost, Ice or Snow

Answer 228

A

A logbook entry is required + Notifing the responsible Dispatcher and MCC

Answer 229

A

thin hoarfrost on the upper surface of the fuselage
frost layer 1/8 inch or less on the underside of the wing, in the area of the fuel tanks.
Snow/slush on the landing gear acquired during taxi operations. Do not allow the landing gear to be deiced with the ice fluid.

Answer 230

A

The aircraft may be deiced or anti-iced with its engines, and APU stopped, with the APU running, or with the engines running, as authorized. However, the flight crew should not start the engines or APU, while the fluid is being sprayed on the aircraft.

Answer 231

A

To determine snowfall intensity, the snowfall intensity as a function of prevailing visibility table (table 50) is required

Answer 232

A

Heavy snow and ice pellets

Answer 233

A

Yes, so long as airplane passes the pre-takeoff contamination check (exit road check) within five minutes of advancing the thrust levers for takeoff

Answer 234

A

Yes, so long as airplane passes the pre-takeoff contamination check (exit road check) within five minutes of advancing the thrust levers for takeoff

Answer 235

A

Mostly, no. If an allowance time expires, the aircraft must return for secondary deicing/anti-icing. Some extensions are permitted if precipitation stops prior to the allowance time expiring.
Reference the deice/anti-ice card for details.

Answer 236

A

No. Pre-takeoff checks (wing tip checks) and pre-takeoff condition checks (exit row check) are not required and may not be used to extend an allowance time.

Answer 237

A

Frontier Airlines is authorized to deice with flaps/slats extended, but must retract flaps/slats prior to Anti-ice

Answer 238

A

Type one de-ice usually orange or pink
Type two anti-ice green
Type three frontier does not use.
Type four anti-ice green

Answer 239

A

A pre-takeoff check (PTOC) is a check of the representative surface area (left wing tip to include sharklet or wingtip fence) for frozen precipitation. It is performed prior to takeoff and within the whole overtime.
Frontier Airlines is authorized to make this inspection from the flight deck, unless it is not possible to view the representative surface area, including sharklet, or wingtip fence. If it is not possible for the flight crew to view the representative area from the flight deck, the flight crew must conduct the pre-takeoff inspection through the cabin windows in a position that allows clear inspection.

Answer 240

A

The representative surface is defined as the outboard, upper surface of the wing, and in between the front and rear spars. While the sharklett and wingtip fences are not part of the representative surface, they should be included in the pre-takeoff check

Answer 241

A

A pre-takeoff contamination check (exit row check) is required in conditions of heavy snow, or if the hold overtime has been exceeded. The check must be accomplished within 5 minutes of beginning to takeoff roll. Multiple checks may be necessary in order to meet this requirement if takeoff delays are encountered.
A pre-takeoff contamination check is accomplished from the cabin as follows:
-Turn the wing lights on and dim the cabin lights if necessary.
-inspect the wings through the cabin windows in a position that allows clear inspection of the upper surfaces of both wings. The exit row are generally ideal for this purpose.

Note: flight deck door, security procedures must be used

In a pre-takeoff, contamination check, the observer must be able to determine the wings to include sharklet or wingtip fence and control surfaces are clear of any accumulation of snow, ice, or other frozen contamination, and that the anti-ice fluid has not failed (see below). If the view through the window is obscured, so that it is not possible to make this termination, aircraft may not takeoff.

Answer 242

A

Post De-ice check or Post Anti-Ice Check is a visual inspection from the cabin area, verifying the upper wing surfaces have been satisfactory deiced, or anti-iced (if required).
To accomplish this post de-ice/anti-ice check, one crewmember will go to the cabin, at or near the completion of the last process, at a position that will allow clear view of the upper surface of both wings through cabin windows.

If the icing is the only process required, the cabin inspection will be conducted at the end of the de-ice application.

If de-icing and anti-icing is required. The cabin inspection will occur at the end of the anti-ice application.

Answer 243

A

If this occurs, the pilot must return the aircraft to the gate and must contact maintenance control center (MCC) to clean the windshield and sensors. These fluids present operational problems for heated windshield and sensors mounted on the forward fuselage.

Answer 244

A

Brand and type of fluid used.
The percentage of fluid within fluid/water mixture.
Local time in the hours and minutes that the last anti-ice application began

Answer 245

A

No hold overtime exist for heavy snow. The flight crew must perform the pre-takeoff contamination (exit row check) within 5 minutes of advancing the thrust levers for takeoff.

Answer 246

A

Type I, II and IV fluids are no longer affected when the surfaces are losing their gloss, turning white, or have visible snow, or other precipitation remaining on the surface without melting. If this is observed, the fluid is no longer providing protection, and takeoff shall not be attempted.

Pg 93 of study guide

Answer 247

A

Reference, FOM VOL I, SEC 45. 20 pts 1-4

Answer 248

A

Emergency medical kit (EMK)

Answer 249

A

– Provide medical expertise and dealing with medical event.
– Shift the burden of liability off of the pilot and frontier and onto STAT–MD

Once contacted, STAT–MD assumes liability for the patient. This service is paid for on a subscription basis, not on a per call basis. Do not hesitate to contact STAT – MD when dealing with a medical concern .

Answer 250

A

Pre-flight:
STAT – MD may be reached by phone, 800–611–87524 or 412-647–5652

In flight:
Via ARINC phone patch (primary method)
Via ACARS in the text message addressed to STMD (alternate method.)

Answer 251

A

Tarmac delay is the elapsed time that an aircraft is held on the ground either before takeoff, or after landing with no opportunity for the passengers to deplane

Answer 252

A

– 3 hours for domestic flights
– 4 hours for international flights: (any flight between a US and foreign destination, regardless of the rules, under which the flight is released)

Answer 253

A

Departures: time starts for departures five minutes after the last passenger is boarded. If a ground delay occurs after departure from the gate, the actual start time should be obtained from SOC.

Holding on the gate: if a delay of 30 minutes or more, is anticipated/incurred at the gate, the main cabin door should remain open, and passengers must be notified of their ability to deplane in order to prevent the start of a tarmac delay.

Answer 254

A

Crucial activate the TDP checklist, whenever a ground delay could potentially lead to an excessive tarmac delay (90 minutes or more).

During any delay situation, pilot will update passengers every 15 minutes as described in the TDP checklist. The announcements on the checklist are to be read as written in order to protect the company from legal action. These announcements are designed to queue the cabin crew to perform appropriate actions at specific points during the delay.

Answer 255

A

The tarmac delay program (TDP) checklist can be accessed through the company approved document management system.
(AvioBook)

Answer 256

A

Extended Delay Kit (EDK) Each aircraft is supplied with an EDK containing food items. The kit is only to be used when a Tarmac Delay will reach two hours. It may not be used for any other purpose. The Cab crew is responsible for ensuring the EDK is on board and has not expired.

Answer 257

A

Yes, and yes, if an EDK is missing, expired or partially used, coordinate with dispatch to obtain a replacement. Missing and deficient kits are not valid logbook entries. The flight may depart without a usable extended delay kit, but must return to the gate within two hours, in the event of an extended Tarmac Delay.

Answer 258

A

The decision to divert is to be made as a joint decision between the captain and dispatcher. However, the captain remains the final authority for the safe conduct of the flight.

Answer 259

A

ARTR to ensure the aircraft has an adequate fuel supply, and the airport is operationally suitable.

Answer 260

A

SOC. If SOC is not available to make the decision, the captain may choose to keep playing passengers once the conditions for allowing passengers to disembark and VOL. Section 45.30 have been considered.

Answer 261

A

Transponder: squawk 7600
Visual conditions: if failure occurs in VMC, or the aircraft enters, and can maintain VMC for the remainder of the flight, - continue under the VFR and land as soon as practical. Prior to landing, make visual contact with the tower and obtain clearance to land via light gun signals.
Instrument conditions: if the failure occurs in MC, or it’s not possible to remain in the MC conditions, then continue the flight according to the following:

ROUTE:
– By the route assigned in the last ATC clearance of received;
– if being radar vectored, by the direct route from the point of radio failure, to the fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance;
– in the absence of an assigned route, by the route, that ATC has advised, may be expected in a further clearance; or
– in the absence of the previous, by the route filed in the flight plan.

ALTITUDE: At the highest of the following altitudes for the route segment being flown.
– The altitude assigned in the last ATC clearance received
– The minimum altitude for the IFR operations or
- The altitude ATC has advised may be expected in a further clearance,

LEAVE CLEARANCE LIMIT:
– If the clearance limit is a fix from which approach begins, commence, descent, and approach, as close as possible to the EFC time; or if an EFC has not been received, as close as possible to the ETA from the flight plan.
– If the clearance limit is not a fix from which an approach begins, leave the clearance limit at the EFC time; or if an EFC has not been received, proceeded to the fix, from which, in approach, begins, and commence approach as close as possible to the ETA from the flight plan.

Answer 262

A

FOM VOL I, Sec 45.35 Interception Procedures.

Answer 263

A

Will the passengers need to brace or evacuate:

Yes; call the FA’s using emergency call button,
- T.E.S.T.
Type of emergency
Evacuation anticipated.
Signals to brace, remain seated, and or evacuate (3 times)
Time remaining until landing

No; use the normal call button advise you are providing a cabin advisory.
Identify nature of irregularity.
Advise of a new flight. Plan line
Remind FA’s that emergency preparation is not anticipated

Answer 264

A

– First flight of the day
– International flights (not including Alaska)
– Private Charters
* following the charter and prior to operating as part 121 revenue flight.
* aircraft may be repositioned under part 91 without a search

Answer 265

A

– If a suspicious item is found, but GSC must be contacted. LEOs may also be contacted when appropriate.
– Do not handle any object that may be or may contain an explosive device or biological threat. LEOs must assess the threat and determine disposal procedures.

Answer 266

A

The security search form will normally be left on the clip located to the left of the captain’s seat for pilots to fill out if a security search is required. Stations are responsible for determining when an aircraft security inspection/search is required.

Answer 267

A

Section 4: flight deck inspection portion

Answer 268

A

CA/FO: are responsible for
-trash receptacles
- storage bins
- coat closet
- seatbelts/pockets
- seat cushions
- oxygen mask receptacles

Page 100 study guid

Answer 269

A

There must be a minimum of two people on the flight deck at all times. One of those people may be a working flight attendant, or in an ACM. Except in an emergency, and off duty or deadheading crewmember seated in the cabin is not authorized to access the flight deck during Flight

Answer 270

A

LEO’s. FAM’s and FFDO’s are not required

Answer 271

A

Yes.

The presence of FAMs, FFDOs and LEOs must not be revealed to any person without a “ need to know. “ Every armed individual “needs to know “the identity and location of other armed individuals on the aircraft and on the flight deck.

– The gate agent is responsible for notifying the FAM team leader of the presence and location of all FFDOs and LEOs on board.
– The PIC is responsible for notifying, all other armed individuals, including FFDOs, the presence and location of all armed individuals (including FAMs) on the aircraft.
- The PIC is responsible for notifying that a flight attendant of the seat, location of the FAMs team leader, and all armed individuals .

Answer 272

A

No frontier will not transport any prisoners under any circumstances.

Answer 273

A

The captain must ensure that:
– All crewmembers are aware of armed individuals onboard the aircraft.
– Each armed individual is aware of all other armed individuals onboard the aircraft.

Answer 274

A

The EW is used to alert fellow flight attendants, and passengers of any impending physical confrontation, violence, hijacking, or other threat occurring on board the aircraft (threat level 2,3,4 events).

In the event that the pilots hear the whistle or other indication of a physical disturbance, and no communication with the flight attendant in the cabin is established, the captain will declare an emergency and land at the nearest suitable airport.

Answer 275

A

Level 1: Verbal.
Level 2: Physical.
Level 3: Imminent threat of death or serious bottling injury.
Level 4: Attempted or actual breach of the flight deck.

Answer 276

A

FOM VOL I, Appx. B
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