FOM VOL II Flashcards

Question 1

Q

What is the difference between AC206–299, AC301–399, AC601–699, and AC701–799, in other words, which tail numbers correspond with A320 vs A321 and which tail numbers correspond with CEO vs NEO aircraft?

Answer

A

AC 206-299: A320 CEO Aircraft.
AC 301-399: A320 NEO Aircraft (LEAP Engines).
AC 701–799: A321 CEO aircraft.
AC 601–699: A321 NEO (Pratt & Whitney Engines).

Question 2

Q

Where can you find a list of abbreviations and symbols?

FOM VOL II, Sec 00.10

Answer

A

Chapter 0, abbreviations, and symbols section

Question 3

Q

Where can you find unit abbreviations and a unit conversion table?

FOM VOL II, Sec 00.15

Answer

A

Chapter 0, conversions section

Question 4

Q

What does an asterisk * mean on flows and checklist?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.01

Answer

A

Asterisk * items must be checked/accomplished before EVERY flight. If a crew switches aircraft in the middle of their day, every item must be completed again, as it is now the crew’s “first flight in the new aircraft”.

Question 5

Q

When must radio tuning be performed by the pilot monitoring (PM)?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.01

Answer

A

The tuning of radios may be accomplished by either pilot. However, radio tuning must be performed by the PM whenever the auto pilot is not engaged or whenever below FL180.

Question 6

Q

What is RVSM and when does it begin and end?

FOM VOL II, Sec 25.AK

Answer

A

Reduced vertical separation, minima or minimum (RVSM) is the reduction, from 2000’ to 1000’, of the standard vertical separation required between aircraft flying between FL290 and FL410.

Question 7

Q

Is the auto pilot required to be engaged during RVSM?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.01

Answer

A

An auto pilot is required to be operative and engaged during operations in RVSM airspace, except when turbulence or other circumstances required disengagement.

While the autopilot is off, the PF must command the PM to make any automation changes necessary.

Question 8

Q

May the pilot flying (PF) engage the auto pilot himself?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.01

Answer

A

The PF may command the autopilot engagement from the PM, or may engage the autopilot themselves.

Question 9

Q

If the Flight Directors are engaged, while hand flying, must the Flight Director orders be obeyed?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.01

Answer

A

Yes. When the PF hand flies the aircraft using the flight director, the flight director orders must be obeyed.

Question 10

Q

Should both flight directors be either on or off? In other words, should one pilot have his FD on and the other pilot have his FD command bars off

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.01

Answer

A

Both flight directors should be either on or off, If the PF does not wish to fly the flight Director orders, both pilots must turn off their flight directors.

Question 11

Q

When must A/THR be disconnected for a manual thrust landing?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.01

Answer

A

If the pilot is going to perform the landing using manual thrust, the PF will advise the PM prior to disconnecting the A/THR and ensure A/THR is disconnected prior to 1000’ AFE.

Question 12

Q

What are some of the “Rules of the FMGS“?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.01

Answer

A

– Below FL180, the PM will perform all MCDU entries.
– At or above FL180, the PM will normally perform all MCU entries.
– When route modification is made, the pilot making the change will announce “Confirm” and the other crewmember, once it verified, will reply “ Insert.“
– Verify the AP/FD/ATHR and engagement status on the FMA.
– All FMA changes will be announced by the PF as defined in section 3.40 FMA.
– Monitor the AP/FD/ATHR resulting guidance on the basic flight instrument scales of the PFD (HDG, SPD, ALT, and attitude).
– Use extra vigilance during high workload. Or during an ECAM action – the flight crew will be aware of, and acknowledge transition or reversion mode (e.g., “Triple click “).
– If the PF is not satisfied with the guidance, he or she must.
*Revert to basics.
*Fly the aircraft.

Question 13

Q

Are the sidestick inputs added together?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.01

Answer

A

Yes. The flight crew should keep in mind that sidestick inputs are algebraically added. However, the inputs combined are never more than max deflection from a single side stick.

Question 14

Q

When is the preliminary cockpit preparation performed?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.07

Answer

A

Before the application of electrical power, to avoid inadvertent, operation of systems and danger to the aircraft and personnel. The procedure also includes a PE start, safety, checks, system, status, checks, and the establishment of electrical and pneumatic power.

Question 15

Q

During the preliminary carpet preparation, what should the flight crew check on the PBE?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.07

Answer

A

– Protective, breathing equipment (PBE) stowed and serviceable.
– Check that humidity indicator is “Blue” and “Green” tamper evident seal is installed.

Question 16

Q

Who is responsible to check the expiration date of the emergency equipment?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.07

Answer

A

MCC. 🎚️ Denotes that all inspections placarded compliance dates are the responsibility of the maintenance department.

Question 17

Q

During the preliminary cockpit preparation, and prior to adding electrical power, what must we check regarding battery voltage? Is a battery voltage system check required if the electrical system is supplied with AC electrical power?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.07

Answer

A

Check battery voltage with BAT switches off – 25.5 volts minimum to ensure a charge above 50%. ELEC system is supplied with AC power, BAT VOLTAGE check is not required.

Question 18

Q

During the pre-flight phase, if there is no water pressure in the labs, what could you do to get water pressure?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.07

Answer

A

It may be necessary to use APU bleed air to provide water pressurization.

Question 19

Q

What may occur if the flight crew presses the APU FIRE test PB for more than 3 seconds?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.07

Answer

A

“Warning”

The automatic shutdown of the APU and the discharge of the APU FIRE extinguisher bottles may occur if the flight crew presses the APU FIRE test PB for more than 3 seconds.

Question 20

Q

Will the AP start if BAT1 and BAT2 are selected off?
FOM VOL II, Sec 3.07

Answer

A

APU will not start unless BAT 1/2 are in Auto.

Question 21

Q

When is a full a DIRU alignment required? How about a fast alignment?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.07

Answer

A

A complete alignment must be accomplished in the following cases:
– before the first flight of the day.
– When there is a crew change.
– When GPS is not available and NAVAID coverage is poor on the expected route.
– When GPS is not available and expected flight time exceeds three hours.
– All international and Alaska flights.
– Flight in class two airspace.

A fast IRS alignment must be performed. If a complete IRS alignment is not necessary and the difference between the IRS position and the MCDU position is at or above 5nm ( see MCDU POSITION MONITOR page).

Question 22

Q

How long after gate arrival (BLOCK IN) should we wait before selecting the ADIRS to off?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.07

Answer

A

5 minutes, this ensures the FMGC and AOC has entered the pre-flight phase.

Question 23

Q

When any brake temperature exceeds _______, avoid applying the parking brake unless operationally necessary?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.07

Answer

A

500°C , or 350°C with brake fans on, avoid applying parking brake unless operationally necessary, at least one of the pilot stations will be manned anytime the parking brake is released.

Question 24

Q

How can you recharge the accumulator pressure if the accumulator pressure gauge is showing out of the green band? What must you be aware of before recharging the accumulator pressure?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.07

Answer

A

The ACCU PRESS indication must be in the green band if required use the electric pump on Yellow hydraulic system to recharge the brake accumulator.
-Get ground crew clearance before using the electric pump.

Question 25

Q

During preflight, what should you do if you notice the flight control surface position do not agree with control handle position?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.07

Answer

A

Check with maintenance crew before applying hydraulic power.

Question 26

Q

During preflight, what is the normal range when performing in the hydraulic reservoir fluid level check?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.07

Answer

A

– If AC 384–399, 601–699: check the hydraulic fluid level is in the normal range; green fluid level indication is inside the “normal feeling range.“
– If AC 206– 299, 301–383, 701–799: verify the hydraulic fluid level in each system is within the acceptable range.

Note: the volume of the hydraulic fluid in the reservoir may change with the variations in OT and aircraft configuration. Therefore, a fluid level above the normal range, extending up to an equivalent of half the normal range is acceptable.

Question 27

Q

On the preflight check, how should you check the oil quantity on NEO aircraft?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.07

Answer

A

Set the ENG 1 and 2 FADEC GND PWR PB–SW on the overhead maintenance panel “ON”. Check the levels on the ENG SD page, then shut “OFF” FADEC GND PWR PB–SW on the overhead panel.

Question 28

Q

Should the parking brake be set? 0N or OFF for the exterior inspections, i.e., the walk around?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.09

Answer

A

The parking brake must be ON during the exterior walk around, in order to enable the fly crew to check the break where indication.

Question 29

Q

During the preflight inspection, i.e. walk around, you notice one or more landing gear doors are open. What should you do?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.09

Answer

A

Contact MCC through the responsible dispatcher prior to applying hydraulic power

Question 30

Q

During preflight, how do you perform the CVR test?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.11

Answer

A

*If AC 213 through 299, 301–399, 701–799, and 603–620:
– Loudspeaker volume knob……… Off both sides.
– ACP INT/RAD SW, CA FO………. SET to INT.
– INTERPHONE VOLUME RECEPTION knob CA/FO………. RELEASE.
Turn down the volume to minimum.
– CVR TEST PB……….. PRESS AND MAINTAIN
The CVR test is successful when an audio test signal is heard through the loudspeakers and the CVR TEST PB is pressed and maintained. Depending on the CVR model, the audio test signal is either continuous or a short repetitive tone/beep every 4 seconds. The audio test signal stops when the CVR TEST PB is released.
– Note: on some aircraft, the audio test signal may be muted and hard to hear. Listen carefully to ensure the tone is discernible.
– The flight crew may also hear an acoustic feedback during the test. The test is still valid even if the acoustic feedback is Hurd
– The acoustic feedback can also be reduced by preventing the cockpit ambient microphone from picking up the ambient sound, by temporarily covering it during the test.

If AC 621–699.
– HEADSET/BOOM SET CVR ……………. PLUG IN.
– INT/RAD SW CA and FO ………………. SET to INT.
– INT reception knob, CA and FO…………. PRESS OUT.
Turn down the volume to the minimum.
– CVR TEST PB PRESS and MAINTAIN.
The CVR test is successful. When audio test signal is heard through the headset/boom set and the CVR TEST PB is pressed and maintained.
Depending on the CVR model, the audio test signal is:
– A short tone
– A short tone, and a beep every four seconds.
– Two short tones, and a beep every four seconds.
– The audio test signal stops when the CVR TEST PB is released.

Question 31

Q

Why do we place the NO SMOKING/SIGNS selector in the AUTO position?
FOM VOL II, Sec 3.11

Answer

A

The AUTO position allows the emergency exit lights to charge when the gear is retracted.

Question 32

Q

When do we select LO vs NORM vs HI PACK FLOW?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.11

Answer

A

LO: if the number of passengers is below 141 (AC216–299 and, 301–399) or 168 (601–699).
NORM: for normal operating conditions.
HI: for abnormally, hot and or humid conditions.

AC 701–799
– ON: for ECON flow if the number of passengers is below 168.
– OFF: for no normal flow.

Question 33

Q

If the APU is supplying the PACKs, PACK controllers automatically select what flow independent of the selector position?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.11

Answer

A

AC 216–299, 301–399 and 601–6999:
Note: if the APU is supplying the PACKs, PACK controllers automatically Salek HI flow independent of the selector position.

AC 701–799:
Note: if the APU is supplying the PACKs, PCK controllers automatically select 120% of the normal flow independent of the push button position.

Question 34

Q

If LP or H P. Ground air is connected, should we use APU bleed?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.11

Question 35

Q

How do we perform the battery charging cycle during Cockpit preparation?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.11

Answer

A

– (C/F), ELECTRICAL PANEL……………………………. CHECK
Scan and check that there are no Amber alert except GEN FAULT lights.
– ELEC PB (ECAM control panel)…………………….. PRESS
– BAT1 PB and BAT2PB……………………..OFF then ON
This action initiates a charging cycle of the batteries. 10 seconds after setting all BAT PB ON. Check the ELEC SD page that the current charge of the battery is below 60 A and is decreasing, if the charge of the last battery is not below 60 A, wait until the end of the charging cycle of the batteries and perform this check again.

Question 36

Q

During refueling, what might happen if the FUEL MODE SE LPB – SW is left in the MAN position on the ground and the CTR TK L XFR PB – SW and CTR TK R XFR PB – SW are not in the off position?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.11

Answer

A

There is a possibility of fuel spillage in this configuration. The center tank fuel transfer will not stop when the wing tanks become full.

Question 37

Q

In AC 216–229, what procedure should we apply? If FUEL CTR TK PUMPS LO PR caution appears on the ground or in when the center tank is less than 440 LBS.

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.11

Answer

A

FUEL MODE SEL pb…………………………..MAN
CTR TK PUMP 1 PB and CTR TK PUMP 2 PB…………………………….OFF

Question 38

Q

Why do we set the PA to ON, on ACP 3?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.11

Answer

A

This allows cabin attendant announcements to be recorded on the CVR. For proper recording, set at or above medium range.

Question 39

Q

What do we do if we notice a PB is illuminated on the maintenance panel?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.11

Answer

A

Check all lights are out on the maintenance panel. If not out, the crew will contact MCC to the responsible, dispatcher and verify that no work is being done before selecting the PB switch to OFF.

Question 40

Q

After initial electrical power – up, how long should we wait before pressing any push buttons? Why?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.11

Answer

A

At electrical power-up, FMGSs and FCU run through various internal tests. Do not press any push buttons until the test are complete; we approximately 3 minutes.

Question 41

Q

The characteristic speeds displayed on the MCDU (green dot, F, S, VLS) or computed based on what information?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.11

Answer

A

They are computed using the ZFW/ZFWCG entered by the crew on the INIT B page

Question 42

Q

During your preflight check, Grant speed on your ND check should be less than _______kts?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.11

Question 43

Q

When should brake fans be turned on?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.11

Answer

A

Breaks temperatures > 300°C and aircraft is on the ground. Flight crew should also coordinate with ground crew to ensure the wheel area is clear.

Question 44

Q

During pre-flight checks, what do you do if the ACCU PRESS indicator is not in the green band? What should you be cognizant of while you are restoring pressure and why?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.11

Answer

A

The ACCU PRESS indicator must be in the green band. If required, use the electric pump on the Yellow hydraulic system to recharge the brake accumulator. Get ground crew clearance before using the electric pump. Activating the yellow electric pump may activate hydraulic surfaces and injure ground personnel.

Question 45

Q

What VHF radios are available in emergency electrical configuration?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.11

Answer

A

Use VHF 1 for ATC, VHF 2 for ATIS and company frequencies. VHF 3 is normally devoted to ACARs.

Question 46

Q

During preflight carpet, preparation, you notice an incorrect landing field elevation for the destination airport on the ECAMPRESS page. What would you do?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.11

Answer

A

Note: the landing field elevation of the destination airport may not be correctly displayed on the ECAM CAB PRESS page. It is automatically corrected after first start.

Question 47

Q

Why do we match ATC transponders with AP 1/2?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.11

Answer

A

To ensure ATC receives the operating autopilot air data

Question 48

Q

During carpet preparation, what are the maximum altitude tolerances to check between ADR 1 and ADR 2 (on PFD1/2)? How about any ADR 1/2/3 to the ISIS?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.11/FMO VOL II, Sec 5.50

Answer

A

– 20‘ between ADR1/2/3
– 100‘ between ISIS and ADR, 1/2/3

FL/SPEED: GND CHECK
ADR1/2 on PFD: 20’
ADR3 and ADR 1 or ADR 3 ADR 2 on PFD: 20’
ISIS and any ADR one/2/3: 100’

Question 49

Q

Give me a departure brief.
FOM VOL II, Sec 3.11

Answer

A

– Logbook
– Weather
– Runway/airport surface conditions.
– Pilot flying and planned departure runway.
– Tax considerations.
– Clearance
– Abnormal/emergency procedures.
RTO procedure.
Engine out procedure
– Terrain awareness.
– Potential threats
– Review MGS entries (DIFRIPS

Question 50

Q

If ACARS is not available, what are the important items we must manually input into the FMGC?
Know how to input a manual W/B if AWP or ACARS is unavailable.
FOM VOL II, Sec 3.13/FOM VOL II, Sec 7.01

Answer

A

– ZFW/ZFWCG/THS; can be obtained from cFDP iPad app.
– FLAPS/Flex Temp; can be obtained from the TLR.
– V1,VR, V2; can be obtained from the TLR.

The cFDP iPad app can be used to obtain the ZFW/ZFWGC/THS if ACARS is inoperative. The TLR provides the FLAP/FLEXTEMP settings, as well as V1, VR, V2. The CFP, along with the TLR provides the crew all takeoff performance information for the PERF TAKEOFF page if ACARS is inoperative.

Question 51

Q

When entering the passenger and bag/cargo information into the AOC load, sheet and cabin detail pages, must both crewmembers in true accuracy of those entries?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.13

Answer

A

Yes. The CA will convey the passenger/bag/cargo information to the FO for entry into the AOC load sheet and cabin detail page both crewmembers shall ensure accuracy.

Question 52

Q

Just prior to pushback, if the NW STRG DISC is not displayed on the ECAM, but the ground crew confirms that the steering selector bypass pin is in the towing position, what must the flight crew do?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.13

Answer

A

A logbook entry must be made, and the flight crew will contact MCC through the responsible dispatcher.

Question 53

Q

Will the engine start if the thrust levers are not in the idle position?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.13

Answer

A

Yes, thrust will rapidly increase to the corresponding, thrust lever position, causing a hazardous situation

Question 54

Q

During agent start with the parking brake on, if the aircraft starts to move due to a parking brake failure, what should the flight crew do and why?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.13

Answer

A

Immediately release the parking BRK handle to restore, breaking by pedals. Do not use brakes during pushback unless required due to an emergency, e.g. towbar disconnect.

The yellow hydraulic system provides pressure to the parking brake. Releasing the parking brake restores, hydraulic pressure to the green system, which intern pressurized the brake pedals. You are transferring, breaking from the Yellow system back to the Green system.

Question 55

Q

Single engine taxi is prohibited when?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.13

Answer

A

Contaminated and slippery taxiways

Question 56

Q

Can either engine be used for single engine taxi?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.13

Answer

A

Only engine 1 shall be used for single engine taxi.

Question 57

Q

Is the APU required for single engine taxi? If the APU is not used, what may be lost in the case of generator failure?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.13

Answer

A

The APU is not required for single engine taxi. If not used, no wheel steering is lost in case of a generator failure without the APU electrical source.

Question 58

Q

How long must the engine to be running and stabilized before takeoff?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.13

Answer

A

AC 216–299, 701–799; 2 minutes
AC 301–399; 3 minutes
AC 601–699; 5 minutes

if the engines have been shut down for more than two hours allow ample time to complete all required checklist items, so as to not be rushed after the minimum engine stabilization time.

Question 59

Q

Why must the engines be stabilized before takeoff?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.13

Answer

A

To avoid thermal shock and extend engine life, and ensure both engines are fed from separate wing tanks

Question 60

Q

Should we wait for the amber crosses and messages to disappear on the engine parameters before moving in ENG MASTER switch to on?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.15

Answer

A

Yes, do not turn the ENG MASTER switch ON before all amber crosses and messages have disappeared on the engine parameters on the upper and lower ECAM displays.

Question 61

Q

What should the flight crew to if the ground crew reports a fuel leak from the engine drain mask during engine start?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.15

Answer

A

AC 216–299, 301–3 99701–799:
Run the engine at idle for 5 minutes. If leak disappears during these 5 minutes, the aircraft can be dispatched without maintenance action, if leak persist shut down the engine, contact MCC.

AC 601– 699:
Support the engine start sequence, contact MCC.

Question 62

Q

When is the indication COOLING displayed on the E/WD for one or both engines along with the expected engine cooling time (601–699)?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.15

Answer

A

COOLING is displayed on the E/WD for one or both engines with the expected engine cooling time indicated for dry cranking engine cooling, depending on the engine thermal state.

Question 63

Q

For engine start, when is the Dual Cooling function available (AC 601/699)?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.15

Answer

A

The dual cooling function becomes available when the required cooling times of both engines is displayed.

Question 64

Q

For engine start, when should you set the DUAL COOLING PB switch to ON?

FOM VOL II, Sec 3.15

Answer

A

Wait until the indication COOLING is displayed for both engines before setting the DUAL COOLING PB SW to ON.

Answer 63

A

Abort to start by setting ENG MASTER levers to OFF. Then perform a 30 second dry crank.
Referred to section 5.10 engine ventilation (dry cranking).

Answer 64

A

Before dry crank:
ENG MASTER (affected engine)……… CHECK OFF
ENG MODE sel……..CHECK NORM
ENG MAN START PB SW (affected engine)………CHECK OFF

Dry crank:
ENG MODE SEL……… CRANK
ENG MAN START PW SW (affected)………..ON

When the dry crank is completed:
ENG MAN START PW SW (affected engine)………OFF
ENG MODE sel …………NORM

Answer 65

A

When the gray background on the N2 indication disappears after the second engine start.

Answer 66

A

A PTU, fault is triggered. Referred to the aircraft specific you are age, abnormal and emergency procedures section – HYD PTU FAULT for more information.

Answer 67

A

AC 216–299 and 701–799:
Adjust the thrust of supply engine to obtain a bleed pressure of 30 psi before start initiation, a minimum of 25 psi during the start sequence is required.

AC 301–399, 601–699:
Maintain thrust lever at idle. Thrust will automatically increase on the operating engine to approximately 35% N1.

Answer 68

A

This pressurizes, the yellow hydraulic system, providing nose wheel, steering without using the PTU.

Answer 69

A

PM “heads down“ activities are only permitted during street taxi, i.e., no turns

Answer 70

A

40% N1, Exceeding this setting may result in exhaust blast damage or foreign object damage. Thrust should be normally used symmetrically.

Answer 71

A

When 30 knots is exceeded with idle thrust, apply brake smoothly and accelerate to 10 knots, release the brakes and allow the aircraft to accelerate again. As the ground speed is difficult to assess, monitor ground speed on ND. Avoid “riding“ the brakes.

Answer 72

A

PF will display RADAR on his/her ND while the p.m. will display TERR on his/her display

Answer 73

A

The takeoff brief must include, and be conducted in the following:
1. Takeoff runway (PER TAKE OFF page)
2. Flap setting (PERF TAKE OFF page is in agreement with E/WD indication).
3. Thrust setting/FLEX, TOGA, or BUMP (indicated on the E/WD).
4. PACKs setting – ON or OFF (as required by AWP solution).
5. Initial Altitude (FCU and PFD).
6. NAV or HDG (FCU and PFD).
7. V speeds – V1, VR, V2 (indicated on PERF TAKE OFF page and cross check on PFD)
8. Review Engine Out Procedure for the departure runway.

Additional takeoff briefings are required if takeoff data over the departure, runway changes and following entry of performance information into the MCDU. Refer to section 3.21 Last Minute Changes Before Takeoff for more information.

Answer 74

A

No. This check is to be accomplished after the second engine is running.

Answer 75

A

SELECT IGN If the runway has standing water, heavy rain is falling, or heavy rain, or moderate turbulence is expected after takeoff.

Answer 76

A

Reference the “last minute changes before takeoff“ Card on the back of the normal checklist.

Answer 77

A

While not required, this card may be referenced to assist the FO in completing the updates, as well as assist in the CA and verifying the updates to the FMGS and performance data. It is on the back of the normal checklist card.

Answer 78

A

BRK FANS must be OFF for takeoff

Answer 79

A

Runaway
400’
1000 ‘

Answer 80

A

Normal T/O: 15°, then follow SRS orders.
Single engine: 12.5°, then follow SRS orders.
Windshear 17.5°, then follow SRS orders

Answer 81

A

3° per second towards a pitch attitude of 15° (12.5° if one engine is failed).

Answer 82

A

Avoid flying at an altitude, requiring a pressurized cabin, and returning to the originating airport for damage assessment. Reference the aircraft specific QRH for applicable procedures.

Answer 83

A

The Flight Directors must be reset in order to re-arm the Auto thrust system.

Answer 84

A

Complete the after landing flow and checklist.
Set FCU as necessary.
Restart standard operating procedures from the after start checklist.

If a runway changes is required, following a rejected takeoff, and the FMGS has already entered the takeoff phase (indicated by the takeoff RWY disappearing from L1 of the flight plan and the V – speed displayed in green, the flat crew will need to:

Entered the secondary flight plan.
Insert the new runway into the secondary flight plan.
Activate the secondary flight plan.
4.Takeoff performance will now need to be re-entered and the flight plan. Verified to ensure accuracy.

Answer 85

A

– The target speed is “Green Dot” speed.
– To exit EXPED, push (if NAV) or pull (if HDG) the ALT knob.

Use EXP only for short term situations. For the best overall economy, fly at ECON IAS.

Answer 86

A

At first level of in RVSN airspace, and every hour thereafter.
Per Section 5.25 RVSM Operations and Section 5.50 Flight Instrument Tolerances

Answer 87

A

Navigation accuracy check is not required, as long as GPS primary is available. RNP 2.0 is required on Q/T routes. Reference to section 5.25 NAV accuracy check for more information.

Answer 88

A

At and below the following weights, Frontier aircraft are capable of maintaining a gross altitude above all MORAs and MEAs across the system. At or below the following weights, cruise are authorized to accept/request, routing changes, without performing and enroute terrain analysis.

AC 213–299; 157,000 LBS.
AC 301–399; 167,000 LBS.
AC 601–699; 193,000 LBS.
AC 701–799; 167,000 LBS

Figure 3.31.1 terrain analysis aircraft weights

Answer 89

A

On the back of the A320 series normal checklist.

Answer 90

A

Determine the single engine, gross ceiling, utilizing the FlySmart + Inflight – DES OEI application.
Compare this ceiling to the applicable altitude published on the en route IFR chart across the proposed route:
If Direct routing: the Grid MORA
If on an airway: the MEA on the applicable LOW/HIGH Airway

This will ensure the aircraft will maintain obstruction clearance across the route. If the level off altitude (QRH) is lower than the Grid MORA/MEA across the route, the flight crew will not accept the shortcut.
Reference section 8.01 in route engine out planning and terrain analysis for more information.

It is recommended that if a terrain analysis is required, flight crews should perform this analysis at first level off to determine if route modifications may be accepted. If the crew determines the altitude capability is sufficient throughout the flight (geographic area covered), the crew may accept all modifications. If the altitude is not sufficient, additional terrain analysis must be completed during the flight to ensure gross altitude capability meets the requirements of any new proposed routing.

Answer 91

A

“ABBAA“

ATIS.
Build.
Brief.
Approach Checklist.
Activate the Approach.

Answer 92

A

During approach, the Ground Speed MINI function (Managed Speed Mode) takes into account the instantaneous gust.

Answer 93

A

The use of auto break is recommended because it provides one break application with a constant deceleration rate, and temperature optimization to improve brake life.

Use of MAX mode for landing is prohibited.
On a short or contaminated runways, use MED mode.
Autobrakes are recommended when landing in a high crosswind.
On the very long runways were brake use is not anticipated, use of autobrakes is unnecessary

Answer 94

A

The FCU, altitude Shelby set to the published mist approach altitude.

If briefing a “Visual Approach” with no procedure back up as reference: the FCU altitude shall be set to 1500’ AFE, round up to the nearest 100’.

Answer 95

A

All RNAV: enter 0.3 on PROG page, for all RNAV (RNP), de-select RADIONAV.

– RNAV GPS – only enter 0.3 on PROG page.
– RNAV visual (VFP) – only enter 0.3 on PROG page.
– For RNAV RNP – enter both 0.3 on PROG page and the de-select, the Navaids

Answer 96

A

Manually entering, RNP 0.3 on the PROG page insures that the S stays in .3 for the missed approach rather than defaulting back to RNP 1.0. Manually entering 0.3 does not make the navigation system more accurate, but rather, it alerts the crew if the system exceeds 0.3, and then in position accuracy (NAV ACCURACY DOWN GRADE appear on the MCDU).

De-selecting navaids de-selects DME/DME for position updating in the event of loss of GPS. In the event of loss of GPS, Airbus wants us in IRS only NAV for position updating during missed approach. This is intentional. DME updating would potentially increased total system error vs IRS only NAV for a short period of time.

Answer 97

A

No runaway or approach changes will be accepted by the flight crew inside the Final Approach Fix (FAF).

If time does not allow for a brief and verification of proper FMGS/cockpit set up, the flight crew should ask for extended vectors, or holding until briefing/set up can be accomplished.

Answer 98

A

On the back of the normal checklist card.

Answer 99

A

With V/S mode selected, the altitude constraints will NOT be honored. In this case, the pilot will set each altitude to ensure the constraints will not be violated. In any case, when a pilot engages, a selected descent mode, the FCU will be set to each applicable altitude constraint to ensure they are honored.

Answer 100

A

The lesser of .80 MACH or 340 KTS. Use this mode with caution if turbulence is expected.

Answer 101

A

The rate of retraction is low, total time from full extension is approximately 25 seconds. The ECAM memo page displays speed brakes in Amber until retraction is complete.

Answer 102

A

If a hole is to be flown, provided in AV mode is engaged, and the speed is managed, and automatic speed reduction will occur to achieve the whole speed when entering the holding pattern. The default, hold speed is the lowest of the following:
– Maximum endurance speed (green dot).
– ICAO limit holding speed.
– Speed constraint (if any).

When no specific speed limit applies, default speed is the maximum endurance speed, which is approximately equal to green dot and provides the lowest hourly fuel consumption. Fuel consumption will be increased, when holding in anything other than clean configuration and maximum endurance speed.

Answer 103

A

When in the holding pattern, LASTEXITUTC/FUEL information is displayed on the MCDUHOLD page. These predictions are based upon the fuel policy requirements specified on the MCDUFUELPRED, page with no extra fuel, assuming the aircraft will divert. The crew should be aware that this information is computed with defined assumptions

– Aircraft weight being equal to landing weight at primary destination.
– Flight at FL220 if distance to ALT is less than 200 MM, otherwise FL310 performed at maximum range speed.
– Constant wind (as entered in alternate field of the DES WIND page).
– Constant, Delta ISA (equal to delta, ISA at primary destination).
– Airway distance for accompany route, otherwise direct distance.

Answer 104

A

To exit the holding pattern, the crew should select either:

– IMM exit (the aircraft will return immediately to the hold fix, exit the holding pattern and resume its navigation).
– HDG if radar vectors.
– DIR TO if radar vectors

Answer 105

A

Use of APU bleed is not authorized if wing anti-ice is to be used.

Answer 106

A

Frontier defines a stabilized approach as steady state, un-accelerated flight in the approach phase. All straight in or sidestep approaches are to be flown in compliance with the following criteria. If any of the listed criteria is exceeded at or below the altitude limit (1000’ AFE/500’ AFE), the PM will direct go around by announcing “Go Around.”

Circle to land maneuvers may not comply with the following stabilized approach criteria. In this case, stabilized approach criteria must be attained upon commencing the final approach to landing.
Section 6.15 Circle–To–Land Maneuvers for more information.

Answer 107

A

No, Frontier employs a “No-Fault” Missed Approach/Go Around policy intended to discourage continue an approach, deemed impudent, for any reason, do not attempt to land from an unstabilized approach. The decision to go around is not an indication of poor performance, but rather good judgment.

Answer 108

A

The seatbelt sign two-tone chime may be used to signal the flight attendants that the “Cabin Ready“ indication has not been received. (Replies to aircraft with the cabin, ready button on the FAP).

Answer 109

A

“Pitch”

A320: 10° pitch attitude.
A321: 7.5° pitch attitude.

The “Pitch, Pitch” synthetic voice audio indicator is installed, and will activate when reaching an excessive pitch attitude during the flare and landing.

The Tailstrike pitch limit indicator (i.e., Yellow, Chevron displayed on the PFD) is installed, indicating the pitch value corresponding to the max pitch angle to avoid a tail strike with main landing gear compressed. This indication appears when the altitude is less than 400’.

Answer 110

A

Main gear position A320 A321
Fully extended 13.5° 11°
Fully compressed 11° 9.7°

Answer 111

A

In case of a light bounce at touchdown, maintain pitch attitude and complete, the landing at idle thrust. Do not increase pitch attitude, particularly following a firm touchdown with a high pitch rate.

In case of a high bounce, maintain pitch attitude and initiate a go-round, do not try to avoid a second touchdown during the go-round. As long as pitch attitude is maintained, the second touchdown should be soft enough to prevent damage to the aircraft. Only when safely established in the go around, retract the flaps one step. After go around flaps are set and a positive rate of climb is established, retract the landing gear. Landing should not be attempted immediately after a high balance, as thrust may be required to soften the second touchdown, and remaining runway length may be insufficient.

Answer 112

A

Yes. Select reverse thrust appropriate to the conditions immediately after the main landing gear touchdown. A minimum of idle reverse must be selected and is normally sufficient for most conditions.

Answer 113

A

An emergency.
The deceleration is not as expected.
A failure affects the landing performance.
Along flare or a long touchdown.
An unexpected tail wind.

Answer 114

A

“Reverse Green“ (for both reversers indicated deploy)
“One Green“ (if only one reversed deploy)
“No Green“ (if no reversers deploy)

Answer 115

A

Once reaching 70 KTS and thrust levers placed at REV IDLE, the crew must perform a positive transfer of controls.

Answer 116

A

The engine cool down period of 3 minutes starts after reverse idol has been selected.

Answer 117

A

The distortion of airflow caused by gases re-entering the compressor can cause engine stalls that may result in excessive EGT.

Answer 118

A

Only in an emergency

Answer 119

A

On snow-covered ground. Reversers should be stowed when the aircraft speed reaches 25KTS. When de-selecting REV, be careful not to apply forward thrust by moving the thrust levers beyond the FWD IDLE position.

Answer 120

A

Before 20 KTS.
Apply manual brakes as necessary to control, deceleration and deactivate auto brakes. Do not use the AUTO/BRK PB switch to disengage the autobrakes.

Answer 121

A

After clearing the runway, and the aircraft is safely, established on a taxiway, but not before taxi/runaway crossing restrictions are clearly understood by both crewmembers.

Answer 122

A

If the Approach was made in icing conditions, or if the runway was contaminated with slush or snow, do not retract the flaps and slats, until after engine shut down, and after confirmation that the flaps and slats are clear of obstructing ice.

Answer 123

A

30°C
On the ground, hot weather conditions may cause overheating to be detected around the bleed ducks in the wings, resulting in “AIR L(R) WING LEAK” Warnings. Such warnings may be avoided during transit by keeping the slats in configuration one when the OAT is above 30°C.

Answer 124

A

Delay the start until at least 2 minutes after stowing the thrust reversers. This technique will avoid potential nuisance ENG 1/2 OVTHR PROT FAULT ECAMs.

Answer 125

A

Yes. Idle N1 is automatically increased to give better protection against flameout. If engine anti-ice is used, take care to control TAXI speed, especially on wet or slippery surfaces (N1 ground idol is increased). If in idle decent, the decent path angle is reduced because of higher idle speeds.
The N1 limit (amber tick) is automatically reduced because air from the engines is taken from anti-icing.

Answer 126

A

Switch the affected master lever ON then OFF. If the engine still fails to shut down, press the affected ENG FIRE PB. The successful shut down via the LP Fuel Valve can take up to 2 minutes and 30 seconds.

Answer 127

A

“Unsure how to interpret chart seek help”

Answer 128

A

Yes, all maintenance status message (class two messages) must be recorded in the logbook. This requirement applies, even if such a message appears only temporarily. The crew will contact MCC through the responsible dispatcher after any logbook entry.

Answer 129

A

When a flight is terminating, or whenever an aircraft is to be left unattended for more than 45 minutes.

Answer 130

A

After having switched off the A.D. IRS, wait 10 seconds before switching off the electrical supply to ensure the ABD IRS memorize the last data.
Wait at least 5 minutes after block in to accomplish the securing procedure to allow the FMGC/AOC to complete the DONE PHASE and enter the PRE-FLIGHT PHASE.

Page 145 of study guide

Answer 131

A

Switching the batteries off before the APU flap is closed may cause smoke in the cabin during the next flight.

Answer 132

A

No. If the batteries are off while the APU is running, there is no APU fire extinguisher.

Answer 133

A

Below FL180, all FMA changes will be announced.
At or above FL180 vertical and lateral mode changes will be announced by PF.

Answer 134

A

Climbing through FL180:
PM: “Pull Standard,” and state altitude passing.
PF: “Standard Pulled,” “ altitude, checked.”

Descending through FL180:
PM: “PUSH QNH,” and state altitude passing.
PF: “QNH Pushed” altitude checked.

Answer 135

A

VOL II, Chapter 4 Abnormals – Emergencies.

Answer 136

A

No. Troubleshooting inoperative systems or reset system faults beyond procedures listed in this manual is prohibited in flight.

Answer 137

A

The pilot flying is responsible for:

Thrust levers.
Control of the flight path and airspeed.
Aircraft organization, (request configuration change)
Communication

Answer 138

A

Engine Master Lever
IR selector.
All guarded controls.
Thrust levers.
Computer Reset; e.g., those listed in the eQRH

Answer 139

A

The Captain

Answer 140

A

Memory items
OEBs
ECAM
EQRH
EQRH abnormal/emergency procedures (time permitting).

Answer 141

A

In most cases, the Flight Warning Computer (FWC) will detect all engine failure conditions and displays the ENG ALL ENGINES FAILURE ECAM alert. In this case you would perform the ECAM first, which will guide you through the eQRH procedures.

In some cases, the FWC may not detect do engine failure, because of a partial loss of thrust, and not a flame out. in this case, the flight crew must perform the ALL ENGINES FAILURE eQRH procedure. If time permits afterwards, clear, ECAM warnings and check the ECAM status page.

Answer 142

A

The flight crew may use emergency authority if it is determined to be the safest course of action.
A320 series are certified and capable of completing an auto land with one engine inoperative in CONFIG FULL.

Answer 143

A

Red LAND ASAP: “Land As Soon As Possible” at the nearest suitable airport for which a safe landing can be made (critical situation).
Amber LAND ASAP: Land At The Nearest Suitable Airport.

Determining suitability consider; actual and forecast weather, location of airport, and reference to terrain, available, NAV, and approaches, approach minimums, length of runway(s), and NOTAMs, emergency equipment, and passenger handling facilities.

Answer 144

A

First do the After Takeoff Checklist, then ECAM/ANORMAL procedure or checklist. Unless, but not below 400’AGL. Perform ECAM first for engine fire, oil low press, Engine over limit, engine failure, engine stall.

Answer 145

A

The ECAM/ABNORMAL procedure or checklist, Then the NORMAL Checklist.

for certain abnormal situations occurring on short final, it may be better for the pilot to continue the landing before dealing with the failure. Before 400’ AGL, the pilot should take no action except to cancel audio warnings.

Answer 146

A

400’ AGL

Answer 147

A

No, keep the procedure displayed on the EACM then apply the requested eQRH procedure.

*This is not the case when an ECAM procedure requested crew to “consider “ an eQRH procedure.

Answer 148

A

APU FIRE
ENG 1/2 FIRE
DUAL INPUT.
L+R ELEV FAULT
FWC 1+2 FAULT
ENG DUAL FAILURE

Answer 149

A

STATUS page.

The flight crew will stop ECAM actions before reading the STATUS page in order to perform After Takeoff Checklist and any Normal Checklist if applicable. Consider any system reset. Consider application of the ENG RELIGHT procedure after an engine failure with no damage.

Answer 150

A

Procedure no longer applicable, continue flying

Answer 151

A

The ADVISORY enables crew to monitor drifting parameters. The flashing advisory informed crew that a parameter is approaching a limitation.

Answer 152

A

The eQRH procedure section.

Answer 153

A

The advisory should be reviewed after ECAM actions are complete.

Answer 154

A

They help flight crews perform actions in case of ELEC EMER CONFIG or a dual hydraulic failure.

The ECM will be applied first, both the procedure and the status page review.

Answer 155

A

FLIGHT CREW INCAPACITATION; FOM VOL II, Sec 4.30

Answer 156

A

Captain:
Is the last person to leave the cockpit, proceeds to the cabin and assist passenger evacuation as situations dictate
Checks the aircraft to ensure all persons have been evacuated.
On the ground, takes command of operations until the arrival of the rescue units.

FO:
Proceeds to the cabin.
Evacuate the aircraft through any suitable exit.
Assist passengers on the ground and direct them away from the aircraft.

Answer 157

A

Apply Smoke/Fumes/Avionic Smoke procedure when Avionic Smoke ECAM appears. There is smoke coming from the abiotic, air conditioning, system, and or cabin equipment. There are fumes with the smell similar to that of orange peels or pine needles. You may want to consider.“Elimination of odors in the Cockpit/Cabin,“ VOL II, section 4.30.

Answer 158

A

80KTS to 1500’ or 2 minutes after lift off.

Answer 159

A

800 FT to 80KTS

Answer 160

A

Below 100 KTS: Captains discussion, depending on circumstance
The captain should seriously consider discontinuing takeoff if any ECM warning/caution is activated.

Above 100 KTS below V1:
Fire warning or severe damage.
Sudden loss of thrust.
Malfunctions or conditions giving ambiguous indications the aircraft will not fly safely.
Loss of control
Any RED EACM warning
Any AMBER ECAM caution F/CTL Sidestick Fault, ENG FAIL, ENG REVERSER FAULT, ENG REVERSE UNLOCKED, ENG 1/2 THR LEVER FAULT.

Above V1: takeoff must be continued. It may not be possible to stop the aircraft on remaining runway.

Answer 161

A

72KTS, auto-break activation is based on ground spoiler deployment and will not activate below the speed.

Answer 162

A

On the ground:
DO NOT re-engage fuel pump CB of any fuel tank. Crew may reengage any other dripped. CB provided coordination with maintenance and the cause of the trip circuit breaker has been identified.

In flight:
DO NOT re-engage any CB that has tripped by itself unless the Captain judges it necessary for the safe continuation of the flight. Only one reset should be attempted.

Circuit breakers are extremely reliable, any trip circuit breaker should be an indication of a significant system malfunction.

Answer 163

A

Fuel pump CBs of any fuel tank

Answer 164

A

The eQRH > QRH procedures > System reset

Answer 165

A

Reference eQRH > [RESET] System Reset to determine what systems may be reset on the ground or in the air.

Answer 166

A

The MCDU features of backup navigation function, which provides simplified point-to-point GPIRS and IRS base navigation in case of a dual FM failure.

Answer 167

A

FOM VOL II– Supplementals: section 5.10 Engines

Answer 168

A

After aborting a start because of
Engine Stall,
Engine EGT Over Limit,
Low Start Air Pressure,
Hung Start (AC601–699).

When expecting a start ab board because of degraded bleed performance due to hot conditions or at high altitude airfield. An engine with a reduced EGT margin in hot conditions or at high altitude, airfield marginal performance of the external pneumatic power group. Intermittent ECAM ENG 1/2 IGNA FAULT alert, during the first start of the day (AC216–299, and 701–799).

Answer 169

A

First Officer

Answer 170

A

Abort start procedure

Answer 171

A

Reference engine start following ENG 1/2 IGN A/B FAULT due to delayed light off procedure.

Answer 172

A

When aircraft performance requirements do not allow the PACKs to be supplied by the engines for takeoff or approach, and operating in heavy rain or high.

Answer 173

A

After Thrust Reduction Altitude, and the thrust has been reduced from TOGA/FLEX to CLB thrust.

Answer 174

A

No. APU bleed not uthorized when an ice is to be used

Answer 175

A

FOM VOL II– Supplementals: Sec 5.15 special operations pg 1-8

Answer 176

A

One engine master switch off
N2 below idle
One thrust lever angle is below 5° with the other above 22°.
The FADEC shows an engine fault

Answer 177

A

It is the last point if any, that is common to both the SID and engine out EOSID. If no common leg between the SID and the EOSID in the database, by default it is the runway threshold.

Answer 178

A

235KTS/M0.60 – landing gear down after gear retraction failure
280KTS/M0.67 – landing gear down with no gear failure.

Caution; in the case of continuation of the flight, after a gear retraction failure, the flight crew cannot access, the VMO/MMO switch. Therefore, the Airspeed/Mach number must be carefully monitored in order not to exceed 235kts/M 0.60 as there is no alert if the aircraft is limitation.

Answer 179

A

Direct Law

AC 301–399, 601–699: failure cases, which would normally lead to ALT Law, will degrade F/CTL, Laws down to Direct Law, if landing gear is extended (except for the Yaw Damper loss, where the controls remain in Alternate Law).

AC 220, 227–238, and 701–799: failure cases, which would normally lead to alternate law, will degrade F/CTL Laws down to Direct Law, if landing gear is extended (except for Yaw Damper loss where the controls remain in Alternate Law).

AC 206–219, 221, 223: failure cases, which would normally lead to ALTN Law, will degrade F/CTL, laws down to Direct Law, if the landing gear is extended

Answer 180

A

FOM VOL II– Supplementals: Sec 5.20 ACARS

Answer 181

A

Green: data received from the FMGS.
Blue: data that may be entered, or changed by the crew.
Amber: Required entry.

Answer 182

A

EXTR WT: 90 lbs

*A wheelchair stowed in the cabin is not considered cabin cargo.

Answer 183

A

When fuel load was increased above the original planned amount.

Reference, FOMVOLI, chapter 20.38 for additional information

Answer 184

A

Yes, for both a TOGA or Thrust Bump takeoff.

Answer 185

A

To transmit crewmember takeoff and landing credit information to crew Quals and provide maintenance and engineering with an indication that an auto has been completed.

Answer 186

A

Select Yes when icing conditions are encountered during the flight and OAT at the airfield is 10°C or below and there is evidence of significant ice accretion. This is to take into account formation on the non-heated surfaces.

Answer 187

A

They do not include the 15% safety margin additives. LOW and MEDIUM values will only be displayed if a landing can be safely accomplished considering the safety margin. Even though the margins are not included in the display values. Dashes will replace distance values for LOW and MEDIUM if runway length is insufficient for the respective auto break selection. in this case, the crew will not utilize that auto break selection for landing.

Answer 188

A

The Checklist and Briefing Cards section of DocNet or the Library of Aviobooks.

These codes are for in-flight failures that the aircraft was not originally dispatched with. AeroData already incorporates any performance penalties associated with applicable MELs or CDLs.

Answer 189

A

FWC.
FCU.
Auto pilot.
Transponder.

PFDs – 2.
ADRs – 2 (ADR 1 is always required).
DMCs –c2.

Answer 190

A

The aircraft must be stationary while alignment is in progress, avoid alignment during ENG starts. This will prevent the alignment from restarting due to power interruptions during transfer or aircraft movement.

Answer 191

A

Approximately 10 minutes

Answer 192

A

IR selectors must be turned OFF for more than 5 seconds, then switched to NAV mode.

Answer 193

A

Approximately 30 seconds

Answer 194

A

By moving the IR mode selector to OFF, then back to NAV within 5 seconds.

During a fast alignment, IRSs reset the ground speed and some internal filters to 0, but IRSs do not estimate the aircraft position.

Answer 195

A

They are not required as long as GPS PRIMARY is displayed on the PROG page

IRS only navigation.
The PROG page displays LOWACCY.
NAV ACCUR DOWNGRAD appears on the MCDU.
As required per Oceanic and Remote Continental Navigation Procedures.

Answer 196

A

Error < or = 3nm, FM position is reliable.
Use ND (ARC or NAV) and managed lateral guidance

-Error > 3nm FM position is not reliable.
-Use raw data for navigation or monitor it.
-With the significant mismatch between the display and the real position, disengage MANAGED NAV mode and use raw data navigation. (possibly switching to ROSE VOR so as not to be misled by FM data).
-Class II navigation prohibited.

Answer 197

A

All headings should be within 5° of each other. If not verify, the most accurate system is steering the aircraft.

Answer 198

A

Strategic lateral offset procedures (SLOP) should be used in oceanic airspace outside of the range of VHF coverage. Cruise must only utilize SLOP up to 2nm right of course in NAV mode. SLOP left of course is prohibited.
(New York Oceanic airspace within the WAT)

Refer to FOMVOLI, chapter 35 – international procedures for more guidance on SLOP.

Answer 199

A

RADIONAV the selection only the selects radio NAV for positional computation. You still get ILS or VOR data on the PFD/ND.

Answer 200

A

Upon transitioning to the DONE phase within the FMS.

Answer 201

A

When both MCUs or both FMGSs are in operative.
The emphasis of this procedure is to determine present location, verify, safe, altitude, increase situational awareness, and find a location to land.

Answer 202

A

When at least one FMGC is operative, use of NAV key on RMP while the LOC update is active may freeze the FM position during approach, and must be avoided.

Answer 203

A

Not always, when a station has either been autotune or tuned manually by a crewmembers entering the associated ident on the MCDURADNAV page, and the decoded ident appearing on the ND is the wrong one. A crewmember has tuned the station manually on an RMP, or by entering the frequency on the MCDU RAD NAV page.

Answer 204

A

FOM VOL II– Supplementals, Sec 5.25 Navigation, page 12

Answer 205

A

D – DME fix
049 – radio
T – DME 20 T is the 20th letter of the alphabet.

This labeling will often be used when flying approaches into Cancun for example.

Answer 206

A

The crew must always follow the TCASRA orders in the correct direction, even: if the TCASR orders are in a contradiction with the ATC instructions, if the result is crossing the altitude of the intruder

Answer 207

A

During climb, decent, approach, and go around phases, when GPS PRIMARY is not available and the navigation accuracy check prevents the crew from using the NAV mode in a phase of flight, the TERR push button must be switched to off. The ECAM message “NAV GPWS TERR DET FAULT” is displayed.

Answer 208

A

Minimum runway with: 100 feet
Maxwell groundspeed: 10 knots

Answer 209

A

Taxi on the right of the runway and turn left, maintaining 25° of divergence from the runway axis.

Physically over the edge of the runway.
Turn the nose fully right?
ENG 1, set in one between 30% and 35%
ENG 2 to idle.

Answer 210

A

Wing tanks outter cell, then overflows into the inner wing cells, if selected fuel load exceeds wing tank capacity. Center tanks will be fuel simultaneously.

Answer 211

A

Refueling time at normal pressure is approximately 17 minutes for the wings and 20 minutes for all tanks.

Answer 212

A

Electrical transient may cause refueling to stop.

Answer 213

A

Yes. Reference the refueling with one engine running procedure VOL II Sec 5.40 Ground Operations. The procedure requires flight crew to reset circuit breakers after refueling in order to re-initialize the fuel used values on the SD/EWD.

Answer 214

A

Inspect for icing, contamination, anytime icing may occur due to ambient conditions, no icing may occur, even if frozen precipitation is not presently falling.

Answer 215

A

Make a logbook entry and contact MCC through the responsible dispatcher.

Answer 216

A

Thin hoarfrost on the upper surface of the fuselage.
A frost layer 1/8 and an inch in or less on the underside of the wing, in the area of the fuel tanks.
Snow/slush on the landing gear acquired during taxi operations. Do not allow landing gear to be deiced with the ice fluid.

Answer 217

A

Thrust reversers………Perform 5 Cycles

Perform one cycle, put throttle levers to REV IDLE and maintain until REV indication on the Engine/Warning display becomes green. Then put levers back to idle and wait for the REV indication to disappear before the next cycle.

Takeoff has to be initiated within 1 can I get dude minute after the last thrust reverse cycle.
If takeoff is not performed within 1 minute or less cycle, perform 5 more thrust reverse cycles.

Answer 218

A

The engines and APU may be running or shut off during the process. However, engines and APU should not be started while fluid is being sprayed.
Reference DI/anti-reference card for proper configuration.

Answer 219

A

No, do not move any flight control services if they are not free of advice.

Answer 220

A

If repeated anthesis necessary, grout groom, must deice the services with a hot fluid mixture before applying a new layer of anti-ice fluid.

Answer 221

A

*Takeoff in moderate or heavy, freezing rain is prohibited

*Procedures below can be found on the bottom of page 1 of the A320 De-ice/Anti-ice referenced.

CEO AC216-299, 701-799
If ground surface conditions permit accelerate engines to approximately 70% N1 for 30 seconds at intervals, not greater than 30 minutes. This should also be performed just before takeoff, with particular attention to engineers to ensure normal engine operation.
If ground surface and environment do not permit acceleration of agents to 70% N1, then power setting and dwell time should be as high as practical. When operating in conditions of freezing rain, freezing, drizzle, freezing fog, or heavy snow, ice shedding, may be enhanced by additional run ups at intervals not to exceed 10 minutes. Advancing thrust lovers to 70 N1 momentarily, (no hold overtime). If airport surface conditions and conditions do not permit acceleration of the engines to 70% N1, then power settings and duration should be as high as practical up to maximum of 30 seconds.

NEO AC301-399
Ground conditions permitting. Accelerate engines to approximately 50% N1 for 5 seconds no greater than 60 minutes.
Engine engine acceleration should also be performed prior to takeoff monitoring engine parameters for normal operation. If ground surfaces do not permit acceleration to 50%, N1, power and dwell times should be as high as practical.
Operating in fog icing conditions, engine inspection should be performed in accordance with GMM if takeoff is not performed within 120 minutes.

NEO AC601-699
Ground conditions, permit, parking brake, and accelerate engines to 60% and one at intervals no greater than
30 min if OT is below 3°C but above -9°C.
120 min OT is below -9°C.
There is no requirement to maintain the high thrust settings. This engine acceleration should also be performed just before takeoff with the attention to engine parameters to ensure normal operation.

Answer 222

A

Icing conditions exist when the OAT (on ground) or TAT (in Flight) is at or below 10°C and visible moisture in any form is present.

Answer 223

A

Engine anti-ice must be on during all ground and flight operations, when icing conditions exist or anticipated, except during climb and cruise when the SAT is below -40°C. Engine anti-ice must be on during a descent in icing conditions, even if the SAT is below -40° C.

Answer 224

A

Wing and ice may either be used to prevent ice formation, or to remove ice accumulation from the wings leading edges. Wing anti-should be selected on, whenever there is an indication that airframe icing exist. This can be evidenced by ice accumulation on the visual ice indicator, or on the windshield wipers.

Answer 225

A

Takeoff in moderate and heavy freezing rain is prohibited

Answer 226

A

True
FOM VOL II, Sec 5.45 flap/slat retraction with engine shut down procedure.

Answer 227

A

Disregard the callout

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