RCP midterm Flashcards

1
Q

The development of the ____ _______ significantly advanced the field of respiratory care.

A

mechanical ventilator

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2
Q

Who are the organizations involved in respiratory care and their roles?

A

NBRC & CoARC

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3
Q

Year when the first mechanical ventilator developed?

A

1928 by Julias Drinker & Louis Agassiz Shaw

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4
Q

What condition was treated with the iron lung?

A

Polio

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5
Q

Include the landmarks in Respiratory Care.

A

1940 - techs hauled o2 cylinders
1950 - positive pressure breathing devices applied
1960 - formal education programs for inhalation therapists
1974 - designation of “Respiratory Therapist” becomes standard

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6
Q

What is the primary purpose of American Association for Respiratory Care (AARC)?

A

To advance the professional practice of respiratory care

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7
Q

Precursor to Modern Ventilators is the _______ ________.

A

iron lung

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8
Q

What is the primary role of a Respiratory Therapist?

A

To assess, treat, and care for patients with breathing disorders

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9
Q

What are components for professional behavior in respiratory care?

A

clinical competence, ethical practice, effective communication, and commitment to lifelong learning

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10
Q

Who provides guidelines and standards in respiratory practice?

A

rcb

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11
Q

The minimum educational requirement for respiratory therapist is?

A

Associate’s degree

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12
Q

What is the required Certification to work in California?

A

RRT certification

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13
Q

Define the purpose of Continuing Education for respiratory therapist.

A

To maintain competence and stay updated with advancements

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14
Q

Define ethical principles: Include autonomy, beneficence, and nonmaleficence, justice, veracity

A

Autonomy: respect for patient choices;
Beneficence: act in the patient’s best interest; Nonmaleficence: do no harm
Justice : to ensure fairness
Veracity : binds the healthcare provider and patient to be accurate & truthful

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15
Q

Which responsibilities do respiratory therapists hold with regards to education?

A

To educate patients and families about respiratory care

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16
Q

How do clinical practice guidelines help the respiratory department staff?

A

They provide evidence-based recommendations for patient care

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17
Q

Define TJC.

A

The Joint Commission - nonprofit that accredits & certifies healthcare

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18
Q

Define ambulation and its benefits.

A

The act of walking; benefits include improved circulation and respiratory function

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19
Q

All electrical equipment should be connected to ________ outlets with three wire cords.

A

grounded/red

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20
Q

Know the fire hazards acronym plans RACE and PASS.

A

RACE: Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish; PASS: Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep

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21
Q

For a fire to start three conditions must exist: ____________, ___________, ___________.

A

Heat, Fuel, Oxygen

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22
Q

Oxygen is ______ __________ but support ______________.

A

not flammable; combustion

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23
Q

Know hazards with MRI and RT equipment.

A

Metal objects, pacemakers, and certain implants

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24
Q

What is an RT department’s function?

A

combination of diagnostic, therapeutic, emergency and preventive care

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25
Q

What is the responsibility of a department manager?

A

To oversee departmental operations and staff

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26
Q

Respiratory Care Protocols ensure _________________________________.

A

consistent and safe patient care practices

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27
Q

What are common responsibilities for respiratory therapist in the clinical setting?

A

Administering therapies, conducting assessments, and monitoring patient status

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28
Q

What discipline is usually in charge of managing sleep disorders?

A

RT

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29
Q

What is the responsibility of a medical director?

A

To provide clinical oversight and ensure quality of care

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30
Q

Define CoARC.

A

Commission on Accreditation for Respiratory Care
-credentialing in respiratory

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31
Q

What do policies and procedures provide?

A

Guidelines for consistent practice and compliance

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32
Q

What are the usual tools and equipment used in respiratory care?

A

Ventilators, nebulizers, and oxygen delivery devices

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33
Q

What is the goal in all treatments provided for patients?

A

To improve respiratory function and patient outcomes

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34
Q

Normal Respiratory Rate:

A

12-20 breaths per minute

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35
Q

Take note of normal breath sounds.

A

Vesicular, bronchial, and bronchovesicular

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36
Q

Define platypnea, trepopnea.

A

Platypnea: shortness of breath when upright; Trepopnea: shortness of breath when lying down on one side

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37
Q

Barrel Chest:

A

abnormal increase in anteroposterior diameter; often seen in emphysema

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38
Q

What is capillary refill, time, and significance of slow response?

A

Time taken for color to return after pressure; >2 seconds indicates poor perfusion

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39
Q

What are common signs of respiratory distress in infants?

A

Nasal flaring, grunting, retractions

40
Q

Define values for normal, mild, moderate and severe in pulse oximetry reading.

A

Normal : 95-100%
Mild: 91-94%
Moderate: 86-90%
Severe: <85%

41
Q

Define jaundice, erythema, pallor, cyanosis.

A

Jaundice: yellowing of skin due to excess bilirubin in the blood
Erythema: redness caused by increased blood flow
Pallor: paleness due to decreased blood flow or oxygen in the blood
Cyanosis: bluish discoloration of the lips or skin caused by poor circulation or inadequante oxygen

42
Q

How does palpating the trachea help during assessment?

A

To assess for deviation or abnormal positioning

43
Q

Define pleuritic chest pain vs nonpleuritic chest pain.

A

Pleuritic: sharp pain with breathing caused by pneumonia and pulmonary embolism
Nonpleuritic: dull, constant pain in center of chest. By angina, gastreosophagul reflex, esophageal spasm, chest wall pain & gallbladder

44
Q

Define vocal/tactile fremitus conditions that cause an increase or decrease.

A

Increased: pneumonia; Decreased: pleural effusion

45
Q

Define percussion note for emphysema and pneumonia.

A

Emphysema: hyperresonant; Pneumonia: dull

46
Q

Abnormal Lung Sounds: Rhonchi, crackles, wheeze and stridor.

A

Rhonchi: low-pitched; Crackles: high-pitched; Wheeze: musical; Stridor: high-pitched

47
Q

Define the following terms Hyperpnea, hypopnea, apnea, eupnea.

A

Hyperpnea: increased depth; Hypopnea: decreased depth; Apnea: cessation; Eupnea: normal breathing

48
Q

Define the following terms: bradypnea, tachypnea, tachycardia, bradycardia, hypotension, hypertension.

A

Bradypnea: slow breathing; Tachypnea: fast breathing; Tachycardia: fast heart rate; Bradycardia: slow heart rate; Hypotension: low blood pressure; Hypertension: high blood pressure

49
Q

Define orthopnea:

A

Difficulty breathing when lying flat

50
Q

What is whispered pectoriloquy and the indication if positive?

A

Increased clarity of whispered sounds; indicates lung consolidation

51
Q

Normal Breath Sound over the Trachea:

A

Bronchial breath sounds

52
Q

Define clubbing of fingers and cause.

A

Enlargement of the fingertips; caused by chronic hypoxia

53
Q

Normal Oral Body Temperature:

A

98.6°F (37°C)

54
Q

Normal Adult Heart Rate:

A

60-100 beats per minute

55
Q

Normal Oxygen Saturation:

56
Q

Know color and characteristics of sputum, indications and conditions (all).

A

Clear: normal; Yellow/green: infection; Rusty: pneumonia; Pink frothy: pulmonary edema

57
Q

What is the preferred site for ABG Sampling?

A

Radial artery

58
Q

Name noninvasive methods used for monitoring gas exchange.

A

Pulse oximetry, capnography

59
Q

What are the names of oxygen analyzers?

A

Galvanic fuel cell, paramagnetic, electrochemical

60
Q

Know the procedure for a Modified Allens Test and its purpose.

A

Assess collateral circulation in the hand

61
Q

What is capillary blood gas used for?

A

To assess acid-base status and oxygenation

62
Q

Common oxygen analyzer malfunctions. (3)

A
  • Calibration errors
  • Sensor failure
  • Environmental interference
63
Q

Know contraindications for arterial puncture.

A

Infection at the site, coagulopathy, severe peripheral vascular disease

64
Q

Effect of Air in ABG Sample.

A

Causes inaccurate results due to dilution of blood gases

65
Q

What are transcutaneous monitoring sites for infants and children?

A

Chest, abdomen, and thigh

66
Q

What is measured with pulse oximetry and how?

A

Oxygen saturation using light absorption in hemoglobin

67
Q

Term used for graphical display of CO2 levels.

68
Q

Define the advantages of point-of-care testing.

A

Immediate results and faster clinical decision-making

69
Q

Know hemoglobin types in oximetry.

A

Oxyhemoglobin, deoxyhemoglobin, carboxyhemoglobin, methemoglobin

70
Q

Know complication and risk with indwelling catheters.

A

Infection, thrombosis, and catheter occlusion

71
Q

Know supplies and procedure for arterial blood gas.

A

Syringe, needles, antiseptic, and ice

72
Q

Include common sites for arterial puncture.

A
  • Radial artery
  • Femoral artery
  • Brachial artery
73
Q

Name the PaCO2 Measurement Electrode.

A

Severinghaus electrode

74
Q

A false positive can be caused by what condition during pulse oximetry?

A

Nail polish or artificial nails

75
Q

Know normal mixed venous O2 saturation (SvO2).

76
Q

Purpose of Quality Control in ABG Analysis.

A

To ensure accuracy and reliability of test results

77
Q

Know the two methods used for capnometry during mechanical ventilation.

A
  • Mainstream
  • Sidestream
78
Q

Indications for Blood Gas Sampling.

A

Respiratory failure, metabolic disorders, and monitoring therapy

79
Q

What are common pre-analytic errors in ABG measurements?

A

Air contamination, improper sample handling, temperature variations

80
Q

What is a random error in quality control:

A

An error that occurs without a predictable pattern

81
Q

How does transcutaneous monitoring work?

A

Measures CO2 and O2 levels through the skin

82
Q

What are terms used for chest wall deformities?

A

Pectus excavatum, pectus carinatum

83
Q

Term describing difficulty breathing and scale used.

A

Dyspnea; often assessed with the Borg scale

84
Q

A low blood oxygen levels is referred to as?

85
Q

Define the term oriented x 4.

A

Awareness of person, place, time, and situation

86
Q

High-pitched sound is caused by upper airway abnormalities.

87
Q

What is peripheral cyanosis and its causes?

A

Bluish discoloration of extremities; caused by poor circulation

88
Q

Know the following terms hemoptysis and hematemesis.

A

Hemoptysis: coughing up blood; Hematemesis: vomiting blood

89
Q

A term described as discontinuous lung sounds caused by secretions or fluid.

90
Q

Lung sound in chronic bronchitis due to inflammation.

91
Q

Define tripoding:

A

Sitting posture leaning forward to ease breathing

92
Q

Noninvasive CO2 Monitoring terms, capnography, capnometry and capnogram.

A

Capnography: monitoring CO2 levels; Capnometry: measurement of CO2; Capnogram: graphical representation

93
Q

Breath sound over trachea, major bronchi and peripheral areas of the lungs.

A
  • Trachea: bronchial
  • Major bronchi: bronchovesicular
  • Peripheral areas: vesicular
94
Q

Know terms used to describe deformation of the spine.

A

Kyphosis, lordosis, scoliosis

95
Q

Define DNR, DNI and AND.

A
  • DNR: Do Not Resuscitate
  • DNI: Do Not Intubate
  • AND: Allow Natural Death
96
Q

Define JVD, retractions, nasal flaring, pursed lip breathing and what population of patient this is seen in.

A
  • JVD: Jugular Venous Distension
  • Retractions: inward movement of chest wall
  • Nasal flaring: widening of nostrils during breathing
  • Pursed lip breathing: technique to improve airflow; often seen in COPD patients
97
Q

Know formula for Pack-years and how to calculate.

A

Full pack x 20 years, half pack x 20 years, and a pack and a half x 20 years