Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Board Review > Rapid Fire Facts > Flashcards

Rapid Fire Facts Flashcards

1
Q

most common cause of neural tube defects

A

folate deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

most common preventable cause of congenital malformations in US

A

alcohol during pregnancy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

drugs act on microtubules

A

vincristine, vinblastine, paclitaxel, docetaxel, benzimidazoles, greseofulvin, colchicine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

adds phosphate group using ATP

A

kinase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

removes phosphate group

A

phosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

adds inorganic phosphate (w/o using ATP)

A

phosphorylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

adds carboxyl group (COOH); requires biotin as cofactor

A

carboxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

removes carboxyl group

A

decarboxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

adds hydroxyl group (OH)

A

hydroxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

removes hyodroxyl group

A

dehydroxylase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

oxidizes substrate using electron acceptor (NAD+ or NADP+)

A

dehydrogenase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

hyperflexible joints, arachnodactyly, aortic dissection, lens dislocation

A

Marfan syndrome (defective fibrillin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

hereditary nephritis, cataracts, sensorineural hearing loss

A 
Alport syndrome (defective collagen IV)
"Can't see, can't pee, can't hear high C"
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

lesion to brain that causes poor repitition

A

arcuate fasciculus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

lesion to brain that causes hemispatial neglect syndrome

A

non-dominant angular gyrus (parietal cortex)–> right lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

lesion to brain that causes poor comprehension

A

Wernicke’s area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

lesion to brain that causes poor verbal expression

A

Broca’s area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

lesion to brain that causes personality changes and disinhibition

A

frontal cortex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

lesion to brain that causes dysarthria

A

cerebellar vermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

lesion to brain that causes agraphia and acalculia

A

dominant angular gyrus (parietal cortex)–> left lobe

Gerstmann syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

“worst headache of my life”

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage (rupture of aneurysm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

lucid interval following head truama

A

epidermal hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

bloody CSF on LP

A

subarachnoid hemorrhage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

most common cause of subdural hematoma

A

rupture of bridging veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

most common cause of epidural hematoma

A

rupture of middle meningeal artery (fracture of temporal bone)
more common in young adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

damage to right vagus nerve or nucleus causes uvula to deviate to

A

the left

uvula deviates away from lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

damage to right hypoglossal nerve or nucleus causes tongue to deviate to

A

the right

“licks the lesion”–> deviates toward lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Primary brain tumor: psuedopalisading necrosis

A

glioblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Primary brain tumor: polycythemia

A

hemangioblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Primary brain tumor: neurofibromatosis type 2

A

Schwannoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Primary brain tumor: associated with von Hippel-Lindau syndrome

A

hemangioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Primary brain tumor: foamy cells, high vascularity

A

hemangioblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Primary brain tumor: hyperprolactinemia–> galactorrhea, amenorrhea, anovulation

A

prolactinoma (pituitary adenoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Primary brain tumor: psammoma bodies

A

meningioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Primary brain tumor: fried egg appearance

A

oligodendroglioma “o-leggo-my-eggo”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Primary brain tumor: perivascular pseudorosettes

A

ependymoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Primary brain tumor: bitemporal hemianopia

A

pituitary adenoma, craniopharyngioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Primary brain tumor: worst prognosis of any primary brain tumor

A

glioblastoma (

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Primary brain tumor: child w/ hydrocephalus

A

medulloblastoma, ependymoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Primary brain tumor: Homer-Wright pseudorosettes

A

medulloblastoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

most common cause of dementia

A

Alzheimer disase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

2nd most common cause of dementia

A

vascular dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

extracellular amyloid deposits in gray matter

A

Alzheimer disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

intracellular deposits of hyperphosphorylated tau protein

A

Alzheimer disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

intracellular spherical aggregates of tau protein seen on silver stain

A

frontotemporal dementia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

treatment for absence seizures

A

ethosuximide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

conjugate lateral gaze palsy, w/ nystagmus and diplopia during lateral gaze

A

internuclear ophthalmoplegia (multiple sclerosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

degeneration of dorsal columns

A

tabes dorsalis (tertiary syphilis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

demyelinating disease in young women

A

multiple sclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

mixed upper and lower motor neuron disease

A

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

depigmentation of substantia nigra

A

Parkinson disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

chorea, dementia and atrophy of caudate and putamen

A

Huntington disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

eosinophilic inclusions in cytoplasm of neurons

A

Lewy bodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

toe extension upon stimulating sole of foot w/ blunt instrument

A

Babinski reflex (or + Babinski sign in adults)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

newborn w/ arm paralysis following difficult labor

A

Erb-Duchenne palsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

sensory receptor: pricking pain (fast, myelinated)

A

A-delta fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

sensory receptor: burning or dull pain and itch (slow, unmyelinated)

A

C-polymodal fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

sensory receptor: vibration and pressure

A

pacinian corpuscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

sensory receptor: dynamic/changing light, discriminatory touch

A

Meissner corpuscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

sensory receptor: static/unchanging light touch

A

Merkel discs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

sensory receptor: proprioception information, muscle length monitoring

A

muscle spindles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

sensory receptor: proprioception information, muscle tension monitoring

A

Golgi tendon organ

“Golgi tension”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

amyloid deposits in gray matter of brain

A

Alzheimer disease (senile plaques)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

drooling farmer

A

ogranophosphate poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

medical treatment for pheochromocytoma

A

phenoxybenzamine (alpha-antagonist)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

selective alpha1-antagonist used to treat BPH

A

tamsulosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

continuous, machine-like heart murmur

A

patent ductus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

“boot-shaped heart”

A

tetralogy of Fallot, RVH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

rib notching

A

coarctation of aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

most common congenital cardiac anomaly

A

VSD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

most common congenital cause of early cyanosis

A

tetralogy of Fallot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

bounding pulses, head bobbing, diastolic murmur

A

aortic regurgitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

continuous, machine-like murmur

A

PDA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

chest pain, pericardial friction rub, and persistent fever occurring several weeks after an MI

A

Dressler syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

splinter hemorrhages under fingernails

A

infective endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

rentinal hemorrhages w/ pale centers

A

Roth spots (endocarditis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

heart valve most commonly involved in infective endocarditis

A

mitral valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

heart valve most commonly involved in IV drug users w/ infective endocarditis

A

tricuspid valve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

JVD during inspiration

A

Kussmaul’s sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

granulomatous nodules in heart

A

Aschoff bodies (rheumatic heart disease)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

most common primary cardiac tumor in adults

A

left atrial myxoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

most common primary cardiac tumor in children

A

rhabdomyoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

most common cause of constrictive pericarditis

A

US: lupus

developing countries: TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

c-ANCA

A

Granulomatis w/ polyangiitis (Wegener)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

p-ANCA

A

Churg-Strauss, microscopic polyangiitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

treatment for thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger)

A

smoking cessation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

treatment for giant cell arteritis

A

high dose corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

benign, raised, red lesion abut the size of mole in older patients

A

cherry hemangioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

raised, red area present at birth, increases in size initially then regresses over months to years

A

strawberry hemangioma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

lesion caused by lymphoangiogenic growth factors in HIV pt

A

Kaposi sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

polypoid red lesion found in pregnancy or after trauma

A

pyogenic granuloma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

benign, painful, red-blue tumor under fingernails

A

glomus tumor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

cavernous lymphangioma associated w/ Turner syndrome

A

cystic hygroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

skin papule in AIDS pt caused by Bartonella spp.

A

bacillary angiomatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

most common malignant primary bone tumor in children

A

osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

most common benign bone tumor

A

osteochonroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

11;22 translocation

A

Ewing sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Rb mutation in primary bone tumor

A

osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

“sunburst” pattern on x-ray

A

osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

“soap bubble” appearance on x-ray

A

Giant cell tumor (osteoclastoma)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

“onion skin” appearance of bone

A

Ewing sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

may actually be hamartoma

A

osteochondroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Codman’s triangle on x-ray

A

osteosarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

bone enlargement, bone pain, arthritis

A

Paget disease of bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

vertebral compression fractures

A

osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

positive anterior drawer sign

A

ACL tear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

tenderness in anatomical snuffbox

A

scaphoid fracture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

swollen, hard, painful finger joints

A

osteoarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

swollen, boggy, painful finger joints

A

rheumatoid arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

cartilage erosion w/ polished bone beneath

A

osteoarthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

swollen, red, acutely painful great toe joint

A

gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

positively birefringment rhomboid-shaped crystals

A

pseudogout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

negatively birefringment needle-shaped crystals

A

gout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

bamboo spine on x-ray

A

ankylosing spondylitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

HLA-B27

A

seronegative spondyloarthropathies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

pencil-in-cup deformity on x-ray of finger

A

psoratic arthritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

anti-Smith and anti-dsDNA antibodies

A

systemic lupus erythematous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

anti-histone antibodies

A

drug induced lupus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

anti-centromere antibodies

A

limited scleroderma (CREST syndrome)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

anti-topoisomerase antibodies (anti-Scl-70)

A

diffuse scleroderma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

anti-Jo-1 antibodies

A

polymyositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

anti-Ro antibodies (SS-A)

A

Sjogren syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

arthritis, dry mouth, and dry eyes

A

Sjogren syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

keratin pearls on skin biopsy

A

squamous cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

most common malignant skin tumor

A

basal cell carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

main artery of pelvis

A

internal iliac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

main nerve of pelvis

A

pudundal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

“bag of worms” scrotum

A

varicocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

most common cancer in men

A

prostate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

most common cause of urinary obstruction in men

A

BPH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

most common treatment of erectile dysfunction

A

phosphodiesterase 5 inhibitors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

hepatic adenoma

A

combined estrogen-progestin (OCP use)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

“grape-like” vaginal tumor

A

rhabdomyosarcoma (sarcoma botryoides)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

koilocytes

A

cervical dysplasia (HPV infection)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

most common benign tumor in women

A

leiomyoma

136
Q

“chocolate cyst” of ovary

A

endometriosis

137
Q

“powder burn” lesion

A

endometriosis

138
Q

most common cause of infertility in women

A

PCOS

139
Q

midcycle pelvic pain associated w/ ovulation

A

Mittelschmerz

140
Q

ovarian tumor + ascites + hydrothorax

A

Meig’s syndrome (fibromas)

141
Q

teratoma–> hyperthyroidism

A

struma ovarri

142
Q

estrogen-producing–>precocious puberty or postmenopausal bleeding

A

granulosa cell tumor

143
Q

androgen-producing–> virilization

A

Sertoli-Leydig tumor

144
Q

contains fallopian tube-like epithelium

A

serous tumor

145
Q

contains urinary tract-like epithelium

A

Brenner tumor

146
Q

historically associated w/ pseudomyxoma peritonei

A

mucinous cystadenocarcinoma

looks like appendiceal tumor

147
Q

Schiller-Duval body

A

yolk sac tumor

148
Q

Call-Exner body

A

granulosa cell tumor

149
Q

Psammoma body

A

serous cystadenocarcinoma

150
Q

“fried egg” cells

A

dysgeminoma tumor

151
Q

“snowstorm” appearance on ultrasound

A

hydratidiform mole

152
Q

most common genetic cause of intellectual disability

A

trisomy 21 (Down syndrome)

153
Q

second most common genetic cause of intellectual disability

A

fragile X syndrome

154
Q

horseshoe kidney, congenital heart defects, streak ovaries, and cystic hygroma

A

Turner syndrome

155
Q

rocker-bottom feet, clenched hands, microcephaly w/ prominent occiput and small jaw

A

trisomy 18 (Edward syndrome)

156
Q

most common breast cancer in women in US

A

breast cancer

157
Q

most common benign breast tumor

A

fibroadenoma

158
Q

most common malignant breast tumor

A

invasive ductal carcinoma

159
Q

blue dome cyst in breast

A

fibrocystic change

160
Q

treatment for ER (+) breast cancer

A

SERM (tamoxifen)

161
Q

red, itchy, swollen rash on areola and nipple

A

Paget disease

162
Q

branching, filamentous, gram-positive rods w/ sulfur granules

A

Actinomyces israelii

163
Q

standard treatment for T. pallidum

A

penicillin G

164
Q

cellulitis from dog or cat bite

A

Pasteurella multocida

165
Q

non-painful, indurated, ulcerated genital lesion

A

syphilis (primary)-chancre

166
Q

moist, smooth, flat, white genital lesion

A

condylomata lata (secondary syphilis)

167
Q

large bull’s eye rash

A

Lyme disease- erythema migrans

168
Q

associated w/ Ghon focus or Ghon complex + hilar lymphadenopathy

A

primary tuberculosis

169
Q

associated w/ lung infiltrate in apical-posterior segments of upper lobes

A

reactivation of tuberculosis

170
Q

standard initial treatment regimen for TB

A

rifampin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide, ehtambutol (“RIPE”)

171
Q

“strawberry” cervix

A

trichomonas vaginalis

172
Q

clue cells

A

Gardnerella vaginalis

173
Q

bacteria w/ “school of fish” appearance

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

174
Q

dark purple lesions on skin of HIV pt

A

Kaposi sarcoma (HHV-8)

175
Q

temporal lobe encephalitis

A

HSV-1

176
Q

“owl’s eye” inclusions in organ tissue

A

CMV

177
Q

intranuclear eosinophilc droplets

A

type A Cowdry bodies (HSV, VZV, CMV)

178
Q

aplastic anemia in sickle cell pt

A

parvovirus (B19-virus)

179
Q

child w/ fever and “slapped cheek” rash on face tha spreads to his body

A

parvovirus (erythema infectiosum-5th disease)

180
Q

fever, runny nose, cough, conjunctivitis, and diffuse rash

A

Measles (Rubeola)

3 C’s

181
Q

small, irregular, blue-gray spots on buccal mucosa, surrounded by base of red

A

Koplik spots (measles)

182
Q

dark purple nodules on skin in HIV pts

A

Kaposi sarcoma

183
Q

large cells w/ owl’s eye inclusions

A

CMV

184
Q

treatment for CMV

A

gangcyclovir

185
Q

most common opportunistic infection in HIV pts

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia (PCP)

186
Q

drug used to prevent Pneumocystis pneumonia

A

TMP-SMX

187
Q

treatment for oral candidiasis

A

nystatin (swish and swallow), fluconazole (oral)

188
Q

most common opportunistic infection in HIV pts

A

Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia

189
Q

prophylaxis for pneumocystis pneumonia in AIDS pts

A

TMP-SMX

190
Q

treatment for systemic candidiasis

A

fluconazole, amphotericin B, echinocandin

191
Q

treatment for Sporothrix schenckii

A

itraconazole or potassium iodide

192
Q

ring-enhancing brain lesion in HIV pt

A

Toxoplasma gondii

193
Q

treatment for Trichomonas vaginalis

A

metronidazole

194
Q

most common protozoal diarrhea

A

Giardia lamblia

195
Q

eczema, recurrent cold abscesses, high serum IgE

A

Hyper-IgE syndrome (Job syndrome)

196
Q

large phagosomal vesicles in neutrophils

A

Chediak-Higashi syndrome

197
Q

dysphagia, glossitis, and iron deficiency anemia

A

Plummer-Vinson

198
Q

hematemesis w/ retching

A

Mallory-Weiss tear

severe: Boerhaave syndrome

199
Q

mucin-filled cell w/ peripheral nucleus

A

signet ring cell (gastric cancer or lober carcinoma in situ)

200
Q

most common type of stomach cancer

A

adenocarcinoma

201
Q

ovarian metastasis from gastric cancer

A

Krukenberg tumor (see signet rings)

202
Q

gastric ulcerations and high gastrin levels

A

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

203
Q

acute gastric ulcer associated w/ elevated ICP or head trauma

A

Cushing ulcer

204
Q

acute gastric ulcer associated w/ severe burn

A

Curling ulcer

think of a “curling iron burn”

205
Q

weight loss, diarrhea, arthritis, fever, adenopathy, hyperpigmentation

A

Whipple disease

206
Q

anti-transglutaminase/anti-gliadin antibodies

A

Celiac disease

207
Q

vitamin given to pregnant women to prevent neural tube defect

A

folate

208
Q

most common surgical emergency

A

appendicitis

209
Q

severe RLQ pain w/ rebound tenderness

A

McBurney’s sign (appendicitis)

210
Q

GI hamartomas, hyperpigmentation of mouth and hands

A

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

211
Q

multiple colon polyps, osteomas, soft tissue tumors

A

Gardners syndrome

212
Q

“apple core” lesion on barium swallow

A

colorectal cancer

213
Q

most common site of colonic diverticula

A

sigmoid colon

214
Q

“string sign” on contrast x-ray

A

Crohn’s disease

215
Q

“lead pipe” appearance of colon on contrast x-ray

A

ulcerative colitis (due to loss of haustra)

216
Q

painless jaundice

A

pancreatic cancer

217
Q

most common cause of acute pancreatitis

A

gallstones, alcohol

218
Q

most common cause of chronic pancreatitis

A

alcohol abuse

219
Q

severe hyperbilirubinemia in neonate

A

Crigler-Najjar syndrome (type I)

220
Q

Mild, benign hyperbilirubinemia

A

Gilbert syndrome

221
Q

triglyceride accumulation in hepatocytes

A

hepatic steatosis (fatty liver disease)

222
Q

eosinophilic inclusions in cytoplasm of hepatocytes

A

Mallory bodies

223
Q

cancer closely linked to cirrhosis

A

hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC)

224
Q

hepatomegaly, abdominal pain, ascites

A

Budd-Chiari syndrome

225
Q

green/yellow corneal deposits

A

Kayser-Fleisher rings (Wilson disease)

226
Q

low serum ceruloplasmin

A

Wilson disease

227
Q

cirrhosis, diabetes and hyperpigmentation

A

hemochromatosis

228
Q

chronic sinusitis, infertility, and situs inversus

A

Kartagener syndrome

229
Q

elevated D-dimer

A

PE, DVT

230
Q

hypercoagulability, endothelial damage, stasis of blood

A

Virchow’s triad

231
Q

blue bloater

A

chronic bronchitis

232
Q

pink puffer

A

emphysema

233
Q

Curschmann spirals

A

asthma (shed epithelium–>form plugs)

234
Q

bilateral hilar adenopathy, uveitis

A

sarcoidosis

235
Q

anti-glomerular basement membrane antibodies

A

Good pasture

236
Q

honeycomb lung on x-ray

A

pulmonary fibrosis

237
Q

“tennis racket”-shaped cytoplasmic organelles

A

Birbeck granules (Langerhan cell histocytosis)

238
Q

iron-containing nodules in alveolar septum

A

Ferruginous bodies (asbestosis)

239
Q

lung cancer associated with SIADH

A

small cell lung carcinoma

240
Q

tumor associated with Horner syndrome

A

pancoast tumor

241
Q

lung cancer associated w/ hypercalcemia

A

squamous cell carcinoma

242
Q

lung cancer associated w/ Cushing syndrome

A

small cell carcinoma

243
Q

lung cancer associated w/ weakness

A

small cell carcinoma (Lambert Eaton syndrome)

244
Q

substances associated w/ lung cancer

A

smoke, radon, silica, asbestos

245
Q

a boy w/ self-mutilating behavior, intellectual disability and gout

A

Lesch-Nyman syndrome

246
Q

orotic acid in urine + elevated serum ammonia

A

ornithine transcarboamoylase deficiency (urea cycle)

247
Q

ortoic acid in urine + normal serum ammonia

A

ortoic aciduria (pyrimidine synthesis)

248
Q

megaloblastic anemia that does not improve w/ folate and B12

A

orotic aciduria

249
Q

bluish-colored lines on gingivae

A

Burton’s lines (lead poisoning)

250
Q

treatment of choice for rickets or osteomalacia

A

vitamin D

251
Q

swollen gums, poor wound healing, bleeding mucous membranes, and spots on skin

A

Scurvy (vitamin C deficiency)

252
Q

most common vitamin deficiency in US

A

folate deficiency (vit B9)

253
Q

hypersegmented neutrophils

A

megaloblastic anemia

254
Q

dilated cardiomyopathy, edema, polyneuropathy

A

Wet beriberi (thiamine-vit B1 deficiency)

255
Q

most common class of medication for bulimia nervosa

A

SSRIs (fluoxetine)

256
Q

most common medication for ADHD

A

methylphenidate (Ritalin)

257
Q

medical treatment for alcohol w/drawal

A

benzodiazepines

258
Q

most effective treatment for alcohol abuse

A

alcoholics anonymous

259
Q

atrophy of mammillary bodies

A

Wernicke encephalopathy

260
Q

diuretic used if sulfa allergy

A

ethacrynic acid (loop diuretic)

261
Q

treatment of central DI

A

desmopressin (ADH analog)

262
Q

treatment for nephrogenic DI

A

hydrochlorothiazide, indomethacin, amiloride

263
Q

treatment for lithium-induced nephrogenic DI

A

amiloride (blocks Li+ absorption in kidney)

264
Q

linear pattern of IgG depostion on IF

A

Good pasture

looks like “fence enclosing a pasture”

265
Q

lumpy-bumpy deposits of IgG, IgM, and C3 in mesangium

A

acute post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

266
Q

deposits of IgA in mesangium

A

IgA nephropathy (Berger disease)

267
Q

anti-GBM antibodies, hematuria, hemoptysis

A

Good pasture syndrome

268
Q

crescent formation in glomeruli

A

rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

269
Q

wire loop appearance on LM

A

diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis (lupus)

270
Q

most common nephrotic syndrome in children

A

minimal change disease

271
Q

most common nephrotic syndrome in adults

A

focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

272
Q

EM: effacement of epithelial foot processes

A

minimal change disease

273
Q

nephrotic syndrome associated w/ hepatitis B

A

membrano-proliferative glomerulonephritis (type 1)

274
Q

nephrotic syndrome associated w/ HIV

A

focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

275
Q

EM: subendothelial hump and tram-track appearance

A

membrano-proliferative

276
Q

LM: segmental sclerosis and hyalinosis

A

focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

277
Q

pupura on backs of arms and legs, abdominal pain, IgA nephropathy

A

Henoch-Scholein purpura

278
Q

apple-green birefringence w/ Congo red stain under polarized light

A

amyloidosis

279
Q

EM: spiking of GBM due to electron-dense subepithelial depostis

A

membranous nephropathy

280
Q

Kimmelstiel-Wilson nodules

A

diabetic glomerulonephropathy

281
Q

inability to breastfeed, amenorrhea, cold intolerance

A

Sheehan syndrome (pituitary infarction)

282
Q

infertility, galactorrhea, bitemporal hemianopia

A

prolactinoma

283
Q

most common causes of Cushing syndrome

A

exogenous steroid use
ectopic ACTH secretion
ACTH-secreting pituitary adenoma (Cushing disease)
adrenal tumor that secrets cortisol

284
Q

most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism

A

adrenal adenoma (Conn syndrome)

285
Q

medical treatment for hyperaldosteronism

A

spironolactone or eplerenone

286
Q

adrenal disease associated w/ skin hyperpigmentation

A

Addison disease

287
Q

HTN, hypokalemia, metabolic alkalosis

A

Conn syndrome (hyperaldosteronism)

288
Q

most common tumor of adrenal

A

benign, non-functioning adrenal adenoma

289
Q

most common tumor of adrenal medulla (in adults)

A

pheochromocytoma

290
Q

most common tumor of adrenal medulla (in children)

A

neuroblastoma

291
Q

medical treatment for pheochromocytoma

A

nonselective alpha-blocker (phenoxybenzamine)

292
Q

pheochromocytoma, medullary thyroid cancer, and hyperparathyroidism

A

MEN 2A

293
Q

pheochromocytoma, medullary thyroid cancer, mucosal neuromas

A

MEN 2B

294
Q

cold intolerance

A

hypothyroidism

295
Q

most common thyroid cancer

A

papillary carcinoma

296
Q

enlarged thyroid cells w/ ground-glass nuclei

A

papillary carcinoma (“orphan Annie nuclei”)

297
Q

most common cause of hypercalcemia

A

primary hyperparathyroidism

298
Q

most common cause of primary hyperparathyroidism

A

parathyroid adenoma

299
Q

most common cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism

A

chronic renal failure

300
Q

most common cause of hypoparathyroidism

A

accidental parathyroidectomy

301
Q

facial muscle spasm when tapping on cheek

A

Chvostek sign

302
Q

parathyroid, pancreatic, and pituitary tumors

A

MEN 1

303
Q

preferred anticoagulant for immediate anticoagulation

A

heparin or LMWH

304
Q

preferred anticoagulant for long-term anticoagulation

A

warfarin

305
Q

preferred anticoagulant during pregnancy

A

heparin or LMWH

doesn’t cross the placenta

306
Q

causes of hypochromic, microcytic anemia

A

iron deficiency anemia, thalassemia, lead poisoning, anemia of chronic disease

307
Q

skull x-ray shows a “hair-on-end” appearance

A

beta-thalassemia major, sickle cell disease

308
Q

basophilic stippling of RBCs

A

lead poisoning

309
Q

painful cyanosis of fingers and toes w/ hemolytic anemia

A

cold autoimmune hemolytic anemia

310
Q

red urine in morning and fragile RBCs

A

paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

Ham’s test

311
Q

basophilic nuclear remnants in RBCs

A

Howell-Jolly bodies (asplenia)

312
Q

autosplenectomy

A

Sickle cell anemia

313
Q

drug used to treat sickle cell disease

A

hydroxyurea (increase HbF)

314
Q

antiplatelet antibodies

A

immune thrombocytopenia (ITP)

315
Q

bleeding disorder w/ gpIb deficiency

A

Bernard-Soulier disease

316
Q

most common inherited bleeding disorder

A

von Willebrand disease

317
Q

cancer most commonly associated w/ noninfectious fever

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

318
Q

sheets of lymphoid cells, “starry sky” appearnce

A

Burkitt lymphoma

319
Q

large B cells w/ bilobed nuclei and prominent “owl’s eye inclusions”

A

Reed-Sternberg cells (Hodgkin lymphoma)

320
Q

smudge cells

A

CLL

321
Q

reddish-pink rods in cytoplasm of leukemic blasts

A

Auer rods (AML)

322
Q

alkylates DNA, toxicity–> pulmonary fibrosis

A

busulfan

323
Q

fragments DNA, toxicity–> pulmonary fibrosis

A

bleomycin

324
Q

blocks purine synthesis, metabolized by xanthine oxidase

A

6-MP

325
Q

nitrogen mustard, alkylates DNA (electrophile that binds DNA)

A

nitroureas (carmustine, lomustine, ect.)

326
Q

folic acid analog that binds dihydrofolate reductase

A

methotrexate

327
Q

intercalates DNA, produces oxygen free radicals, cardiotoxic

A

doxorubicin, daunorubicin

328
Q

DNA alkylating agents used in brain cancer

A

nitroureas

329
Q

applied topically for actinic keratoses and basal cell cancers

A

5-FU

330
Q

treatment for childhood tumors (Ewing sarcoma, Wilms tumor, rhabdomyosarcoma)

A

dactinomycin

331
Q

side effect of hemorrhagic cystitis

A

cyclophosphamide, ifosfamide

332
Q

cross-links DNA, nephrotoxic, ototoxic

A

cisplatin, carboplatin, oxaliplatin

333
Q

prevents tubulin disassembly

A

paclitaxel

“taxes stabilize society”

334
Q

inhibits ribonucleotide reductase

A

hyydroxyurea

335
Q

inhibitor of mutated tyrosine kinase produced by Philadelphia chromosome

A

imatinib

336
Q

monoclonal antibody against HER2

A

trastuzumab

337
Q

SERM that does not increase risk of endometrial cancer

A

raloxifene

Board Review (11 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions