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USMLE Step Two > Random Subject Review Part II > Flashcards

Random Subject Review Part II Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

schizotypal

A

magical thinking, odd thoughts and appearances

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2
Q

schizophrenia

A

delusions, hallucinations > 6 months

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3
Q

schizoaffective

A

schizophrenia + mood disorder

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4
Q

schizoid

A

voluntary social isolation

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5
Q

schizophreniform

A

schizophrenia symptoms < 6 months

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6
Q

brief psychotic disorder

A

schizophrenia symptoms < 1 month

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7
Q

differential diagnosis for dislocation of the lens of the eye

A

marfan’s syndrome, homocystinuria, and alport syndrome

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8
Q

treatment for macular degeneration

A

anti-oxidants

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9
Q

treatment for retinal detachment

A

laser photocoagulation

second line: cryotherapy

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10
Q

females only, loss of previously acquired language and motor skills

A

ret disorder

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11
Q

impairements in social interactions, communications, play, repetitive behaviors

A

autism

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12
Q

impairment in social interaction but not avoidance, no language delay

A

aspergers

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13
Q

young girl with stereotyped midline hand movements

A

ret disorder

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14
Q

ignoring the basic rights of others

A

conduct disorder

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15
Q

characterized by hostility, annoyance, vindictiveness, disobedience, and resentfulness

A

oppositional defiant disorder

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16
Q

multiple motor and vocal tics

A

tourette’s

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17
Q

impulsive and inattentive

A

ADHD

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18
Q

7 year old who avoids going to school to stay home with parent

A

separation anxiety disorder

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19
Q

fever in postop period

A

atelectasis, pneumonia, DVT, UTI, wound infections, thrombophlebitis, wonder drugs, sinusitits

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20
Q

next step: pelvic fracture, DPL shows blood in the pelvis

A

emergency laparotomy

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21
Q

next step: pelvic fracture, DPL shows urine in the pelvis

A

urgent laparotomy (able to wait a few hours)

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22
Q

next step: pelvic fracture, DPL shows nothing, hemodynamic instability

A

retroperitoneal hematoma

angiography for diagnosis and embolization

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23
Q

next step: blunt abdominal trauma, unstable vital signs, FAST shows fluid in the pelvis

A

assume that is blood, urgent laparotomy

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24
Q

next step: blunt abdominal trauma, unstable vital signs, FAST shows no fluid in the pelvis

A

retroperitoneal hematoma

angiography for diagnosis and embolization

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25
Q

next step: blunt abdominal trauma, unstable vital signs, FAST inconclusive

A

perform DPL

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26
Q

next step: blunt abdominal trauma, stable vital signs

A

CT scan

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27
Q

next step: abdominal stab wound, hypotensive or with signs of peritonitis

A

laparotomy

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28
Q

diagnostic criteria for rheumatic fever

A 
J - joint pain
O - pancarditis
N - subcutaneous nodules
E - erythema marginatum
S - sydenham's chorea
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29
Q

treatment for ventricular fibrillation

A

immediate electrocardioversion 360

if refractory, epinephrine + vasopressin following by epinephrine alone

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30
Q

skin blistering disease that has a positive nikolsky’s sign

A

pemphigus vulgaris

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31
Q

most common inherited cause of hypercoagulability

A

factor V leiden

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32
Q

genetic disorder associated with multiple fractures commonly mistaken for cihld abuse

A

osteogenesis imperfecta

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33
Q

most common cause of bloody nipple discharge

A

intraductal papilloma

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34
Q

antibiotics that should be avoided during pregnancy due to potential teratogenic effects

A

sulfonamdies, tetracyclines, aminoglycosides, fluoroquinolones,

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35
Q

antihistone antibodies

A

drug-induced lupus

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36
Q

infectious cause of aplastic crisis in sickle cell disease

A

parvo virus

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37
Q

tachycardia, wild fluctuations in blood pressure, headache, diaphoresis, and panic attacks

A

pheochromocytoma

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38
Q

what should always be done prior to LP

A

check for increased ICP, papilledema

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39
Q

next step in diagnosis of cholecystitis when U/S is equivocal

A

HIDA scan

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40
Q

clinical definition of hypertension

A

three separate sittings of blood pressure > 140/90 at least two weeks apart

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41
Q

most common causes of fever of unknown origin

A

cancer and autoimmune diseases

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42
Q

most feared complication of a scaphoid fracture

A

avascular necrosis of the scaphoid

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43
Q

albuminocytologic dissociation in CSF

A

guillain-barre syndrome

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44
Q

pathogenesis of neonate with meconium ileus

A

cystic fibrosis and hirschsprung’s disease

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45
Q

pediatric patient with red “currant-jelly” stools

A

intussusception

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46
Q

young female with amenorrhea, bradycardia, and abnormal body image

A

anorexia nervosa

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47
Q

treatment for superior vena cava syndrome

A

radiation +/- steroids

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48
Q

immunodeficiency with a positive nitroblue tetrazolium test

A

chronic granulomatous disease

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49
Q

what portion of bladder must be injured in order to develop chemical peritonitis

A

dome of the bladder (only portion covered by peritoneum)

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50
Q

next step in management of a woman with uncomplicated cystitis

A

3 day course of fluoroquinolones

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51
Q

diagnosis: newborn male with distended palpable bladder and oliguria

A

posterior urethral valves

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52
Q

treatment for epididymitis

A

< 35: treat for gonorrhea/chlamidya x 10 days

> 35 or history of anal intercourse: treat for enterobacter, fluoroquinolone x 10-14 days

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53
Q

lab work included in work-up for erectile dysfunction

A

nocturnal erection test, total testerone, PSA, LH, prolactin

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54
Q

recommended therapies for nocturnal enuresis

A

behavioral therapy, enuresis alarm

if refractory, consider imipramine or indomethacin suppositories

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55
Q

medications used in treatment of BPH

A

immediate relief: alpha-1 blocker

long-term relief: 5 alpha-reductase inhibitor

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56
Q

risk factors for bladder cancer

A

smoking, aniline dyes, schistosoma, petroleum byproducts, cyclophosphamide, recurrent UTIs

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57
Q

treatment for urethritis in men

A

ceftriaxone with doxycycline x 10 days

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58
Q

how do signs and symptoms of testicular torsion differ from epididymitis

A

E: subacute, relief with scrotal support
TT: acute, with some trauma/activity, absent cremasteric reflex

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59
Q

classic presentation of varicocele

A

most common on left, associated with infertility, transilluminates on U/S, shows retrograde flow

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60
Q

three year-old with abdominal mass, hematuria, and hypertension

A

wilm’s tumor

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61
Q

defining characteristic of hydrocele

A

transillumination

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62
Q

next step in management of testicular torsion confirmed with U/S

A

manually detorse, follow by bilateral orchiopexy

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63
Q

treatment for prostatitis

A

4-6 week course of antibiotics, TMP-SMX if no known association with STDs, standard STD medication if so

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64
Q

most common cause or aortic stenosis in 50 year old patient

A

congenital bicuspid aortic valves

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65
Q

most common cause of aortic regurgitation in 70 year old patient

A

senile or degenerative calcification

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66
Q

classic but rare EKG finding in pulmonary embolism

A

S1Q3invertedT3

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67
Q

most likely cause of secondary hypertension in arms but low pressure in legs

A

coarctation of the aorta

68
Q

most likely cause of secondary hypertension with proteinuria

A

renal disease

69
Q

most likely cause of secondary hypertension with hypokalemia

A

hyperaldosteronism

70
Q

most likely cause of secondary hypertension with tachycardia, diarrhea, and heat intolerance

A

graves disease

71
Q

most likely cause of secondary hypertension with hyperkalemia

A

renal artery stenosis or renal failure

72
Q

most likely cause of secondary hypertension with episodic sweating and tachycardia

A

pheochromocytoma

73
Q

elderly female with h/o cholelithiasis presents with 5 days of vague, recurrent abdominal pain and vomiting

A

gallstone ileus

74
Q

management of ER patient with painful irreducible inguinal mass

A

surgery for incarcerated inguinal hernia

75
Q

4 month-old child presents with nonbilious vomiting despite changing from milk-based formula to soy-based formula

A

pyloric stenosis

76
Q

patient presents to second clinic visit with repeat reading of pressure > 140/90, what is the next step

A

confirm at third visit in 2-4 weeks before starting medication

77
Q

glomerular disease suspected in patient with most common nephrotic syndrome in children

A

minimal change disease

78
Q

glomerular disease suspected in patient with IF: granular pattern of immune complex deposition, LM: hypercellular glomeruli

A

post-streptococcal glomerlonephritis

79
Q

glomerular disease suspected in patient with linear pattern of immune complex deposition

A

goodpasture’s syndrome

80
Q

glomerular disease suspected in patient with kimmelstiel-wilson lesions

A

diabetic nephropathy

81
Q

glomerular disease suspected in patient with most common nephrotic syndrome in adults

A

membranous glomerulonephritis

82
Q

glomerular disease suspected in patient with EM: loss of epithelial foot processes

A

mimimal change disease

83
Q

glomerular disease suspected in patient with nephrotic syndrome a/w hepatitis B

A

membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

84
Q

glomerular disease suspected in patient with nephrotic syndrome a/w HIV

A

focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

85
Q

glomerular disease suspected in patient with anti-GBM antibodies, hematuria, and hemoptysis

A

goodpasture’s syndrome

86
Q

glomerular disease suspected in patient with EM: subendothelial humps and tram-track appearance

A

membranoproliferative glomeruonephritis

87
Q

glomerular disease suspected in patient with nephritis, deafness, cataracts

A

alport’s syndrome

88
Q

glomerular disease suspected in patient with LM: crescent formation in glomeruli

A

idiopathic crescentic glomerulonephritis

89
Q

glomerular disease suspected in patient with LM: segmental sclerosis and hyalinosis

A

focal segmental glomerulosclerosis

90
Q

glomerular disease suspected in patient with purpura on back of arms and legs, abdominal pain, IgA nephropathy

A

henoch-schloein purpura

91
Q

glomerular disease suspected in patient with positive ANCA

A

idiopathic crescentic glomerulonephritis or wegner’s glomerulonephritis

92
Q

glomerular disease suspected in patient with anti-dsDNA antibodies

A

lupus nephritis

93
Q

what statistical calculation looks at true positives and divides them by the number of patients with disease

A

sensitivity

94
Q

15 year-old pregnant girl requires hospitalization for preeclampsia, should her parents be informed

A

no, pregnancy is empancipation

95
Q

patient unable to inspire completely due to pain during palpation of the RUQ, what is the sign and diagnosis

A

positive murphy’s sign, cholecystitis

96
Q

reversal agent for heparin

A

protamine sulfate

97
Q

substances known to cause hemolysis in patients with G6PD deficiency

A

sulfa drugs, fava beans, primaquine, high dose aspirin, dapsone, nitrofurantoin, INH

98
Q

medications given to a pregnant woman with cystitis

A

amoxicillin, ampicillin, nitrofurantoin, cephalosporins (ceflex)

99
Q

patient presents with limb pain on passive movement, pallor, poikilothermia, paresthesias, paralysis, and pulselessness, what is the treatment

A

fasciotomy for compartment syndrome

100
Q

complication that may arise for overly rapid correction of hyponatremia

A

central pontine myelinolosis

101
Q

60 year-old patient presents with acute onset of broken speech, what type of aphasia is this and what lobe and vascular distribution has been affected? what is the first step in workup?

A

broca’s aphasia, middle cerebral artery, frontal lobe, CT scan w/o contrast

102
Q

most common primary sources of metastasis to the brain

A

lung cancer, breast cancer, melanoma, renal cancer, GI tract cancer

103
Q

treatment for mastitis in a patient that is breast-feeding

A

oral antibiotics and continue breast feeding

104
Q

characteristics favoring carcinoma in an isolated pulmonary nodule

A

> 2 cm, smoker, age > 45, irregular margins, absence of calcification or irregular calcification

105
Q

in what disease would you find atrophy of the mammillary bodies

A

wernicke’s encephalopathy

106
Q

what term describes heavy bleeding during and between menstrual periods

A

menometormenorrhagia

107
Q

most common type of tracheoesophageal fistula

A

blind upper esophageal pouch, trachea connects to lower esophagus and stomach

108
Q

treatment for kawasaki disease in the acute-phase

A

high-dose aspirin, IVIG

no steroids for kawasaki

109
Q

first-line pharmacotherapy for depression

A

SSRI

110
Q

antidepressants associated with hypertensive crisis

A

MAO inhibitors

exacerbated by wine and soft cheeses

111
Q

40 year-old black female is found to have noncaseating granulomas of the lung and hypercalcemia

A

sarcoidosis

112
Q

what disease might you find curschmann’s spirals (whorled mucous plugs)

A

bronchial asthma

113
Q

what is the platelet count, bleeding time, PT, and PTT for HUS or TTP

A

platelet count: decreased
bleeding time: increased
PT: normal
PTT: normal

114
Q

what is the platelet count, bleeding time, PT, and PTT for hemophilia

A

platelet count: normal
bleeding time: normal
PT: normal
PTT: increased

115
Q

what is the platelet count, bleeding time, PT, and PTT for von Willebrand disease

A

platelet count: normal
bleeding time: increased
PT: normal
PTT: increased (because of factor VIII)

116
Q

what is the platelet count, bleeding time, PT, and PTT for DIC

A

platelet count: decreased
bleeding time: increased
PT: increased
PTT: increased

117
Q

what is the platelet count, bleeding time, PT, and PTT for warfarin

A

platelet count: normal
bleeding time: normal
PT: increased
PTT: increased

118
Q

what is the platelet count, bleeding time, PT, and PTT for end stage liver disease

A

platelet count: decreased or normal
bleeding time: increased or normal
PT: increased
PTT: increased

119
Q

what is the platelet count, bleeding time, PT, and PTT for aspirin use

A

platelet count: normal
bleeding time: increased
PT: normal
PTT: normal

120
Q

medications necessary in patient with end stage renal disease

A

diuretics, dialysis, kayexelate, vitamin D, epo (Hgb < 12), statins, phosphate binders

121
Q

treatment for hyperkalemia

A

calcium gluconate, D50 with insulin, sodium bicarbonate, albuterol nebulizer, kayexalate, furosemide

122
Q

4 potassium sparing diuretics

A

spironolactone (causes gynecomastia)
eplenaranone
amiloride
triamterene

123
Q

deep palpation of RUQ –> arrest of inspiration due to pain

A

murphy’s sign with cholecystitis

124
Q

charcot’s triad (fever, jaundice, RUQ pain) + hypotension and altered mental status

A

reynold’s pentad a/w cholangitis

125
Q

RLQ pain on passive extension of the hip

A

psoas sign, appendicitis

126
Q

RLQ pain on passive internal rotation of the hip

A

obturator sign, appendicitis

127
Q

LUQ pain and referred left shoulder pain

A

kerr’s sign seen with splenic rupture

128
Q

ecchymosis of the skin overlying the flank

A

grey turner’s sign a/w pancreatitis

129
Q

ecchymosis of the skin overlying the periumbilical area

A

cullen’s sign a/w pancreatitis

130
Q

CXR finding indicative of croup

A

steeple sign

131
Q

CXR finding indicative of epiglotitis

A

tongue sign

132
Q

treatment for RSV bronchiolitis

A

albuterol or racemic epinephrine
oxygen for hypoxia
no steroids, ribavirin only as a last resort

133
Q

beck’s triad

A

hypotension, distended neck veins, distant heart sounds a/w cardiac tamponade

134
Q

typical initial post-op fever work-up

A

CBC, U/A, CXR, blood culture, urine culture

135
Q

claw hand

A

ulnar nerve injury

136
Q

ape hand

A

median nerve injury

137
Q

wrist drop

A

radial nerve injury

138
Q

scapular winging

A

long thoracic nerve injury

139
Q

unable to wipe bottom

A

thoracodorsal nerve injury

140
Q

loss of forearm pronation

A

median nerve

141
Q

cannot abduct or adduct fingers

A

ulnar nerve

142
Q

loss of arm abduction

A

axillary nerve

143
Q

weak lateral rotation of arm

A

suprascapular nerve or axillary nerve

144
Q

loss of arm and forearm flexion

A

musculocutaneous nerve

145
Q

loss of forearm extension

A

radial nerve

146
Q

trouble initially arm abduction

A

suprascapular nerve

147
Q

unable to abduct arm beyond 10 degrees

A

axillary nerve

148
Q

unable to raise arm above horizontal

A

long thoracic nerve and spinal accessory nerve

149
Q

what type of renal tubular acidosis is associated with abnormal H+ secretion and nephrolithiasis

A

RTA I

150
Q

causes of hypervolemic hyponatremia

A

CHF, nephrotic syndrome, liver failure

151
Q

burn patient presents with cherry-red flushed skin and coma, oxygen saturation is normal but carboxyhemoglobin is elevated, what is the treatment

A

100% hyperbaric oxygen

152
Q

treatment for delerium tremends

A

benzos, chlordiazepoxide

153
Q

most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage

A

uterine atony

give IV oxytocin after delivery

154
Q

drugs that block transmission through the AV node

A

beta-blockers, digoxin, CCBs

155
Q

skin lesion causes a pearly-colored papule with a translucent surface and telangectasias

A

basal cell carcinoma

156
Q

infection causes honey-crusted lesions usually around nose or mouth

A

impetigo

157
Q

what causes hypocalcemia, high phosphorus, and low PTH

A

hypoparathyroidism

158
Q

what causes stones, bones, groans, and psychiatric overtones

A

hyperparathyroidism

159
Q

first-line treatment for acute otitis media

A

amoxicillin x10 days

160
Q

does a cohort study identify incidence or prevalence

A

incidence AND prevalence

161
Q

a violent patient with vertical and/or horizontal nystagmus has been exposed to hat substance

A

PCP

162
Q

what diarrheal illness is associated with church picnics/mayonnaise

A

staph aureus

163
Q

cause of congenital pure RBC aplasia

A

diamond-blackfan anemia

164
Q

pentad of TTP

A

hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal failure, fever, neurological symptoms

165
Q

patient who visited the southwest US presents with fever, malaise, cough, and night sweats, what is the diagnosis and treatment

A

coccidiomycoses

166
Q

ring-enhancing brain lesion on CT with seizures

A

toxoplasmosis

167
Q

classical physician finds in case of endocarditis

A

fever, osler’s nodes, janeway lesions, heart murmur, splinter hemorrhages, roth spots in the eye

USMLE Step Two (17 decks)

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