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USMLE Step Two > Genitourinary Disorders > Flashcards

Genitourinary Disorders Flashcards

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USMLE® Step 1 flashcards
1
Q

triamterene

A

potassium-sparing diuretic

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2
Q

ethacrynic acid

A

non-sulfa loop diuretic

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3
Q

metolazone

A

thiazide diuretic indicated for cirrhosis

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4
Q

torsemide

A

loop diuretic

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5
Q

bumetanide

A

loop diuretic

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6
Q

amiloride

A

potassium sparing diuretic

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7
Q

diuretic indicated for acute pulmonary edema

A

furosemide

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8
Q

diuretic indicated for idiopathic hypercalciuria

A

HCTZ

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9
Q

diuretic indicated for glaucoma

A

acetazolamide or mannitol

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10
Q

diuretic indicated for mild to moderate CHF with expanded ECV

A

loop diuretic

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11
Q

diuretic indicated in conjunction with loop or thiazide diuretics to retain potassium

A

spironolactone

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12
Q

diuretic indicated for edema associated with nephrotic syndrome

A

loop diuretic or thalazone

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13
Q

diuretic indicated for increased intracranial pressure

A

mannitol

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14
Q

diuretic indicated for hypercalcemia

A

furosemide

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15
Q

diuretic indicated for altitude sickness

A

acetazolamide

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16
Q

diuretic indicated for hyperaldosteronism

A

spironolactone

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17
Q

most common nephrotic syndrome in children

A

minimal change disease

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18
Q

IF: granular pattern of immune complex deposition
LM: hypercellular glomeruli

A

post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis

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19
Q

IF: linear pattern of immune complex deposition

A

goodpasture’s syndrome

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20
Q

kimmelstiel-wilson lesions

A

diabetic glomerulonephorpathy

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21
Q

most common nephrotic syndrome in adults

A

membranous glomerulonephritis

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22
Q

EM: loss of epithelial foot processes

A

minimal change disease

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23
Q

nephrotic syndrome associated with hepatitis B

A

type I membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

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24
Q

nephrotic syndrome associated with HIV

A

FSGS

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25
Q

anti-GBM antibodies, hematuria, and hemoptysis

A

goodpasture’s syndrome

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26
Q

EM: subendothelial humps and tram-track appearance

A

type I membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

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27
Q

nephritis, deafness, cataracts

A

alport’s syndrome

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28
Q

LM: crescent formation in the glomeruli

A

idiopathic crescentic glomerulonephritis

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29
Q

LM: segmental sclerosis and hyalinosis

A

FSGS

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30
Q

purpura on back fo arms and legs, abdominal pain, IgA nephropathy

A

henoch-schonlein purpura

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31
Q

apple-green birefringence with congo-red stain under polarized light

A

renal amyloidosis

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32
Q

anti-dsDNA antibodies

A

lupus nephritis

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33
Q

EM: spike and dome pattern of the basement membrane

A

membranous glomerulonephritis

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34
Q

60 year old smoker has varicocele that does not empty when recumbent, what should you be suspicious of

A

renal cell carcinoma

next step: CT abdomen

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35
Q

glomerulonephritis with bilateral sensorineural deafness

A

alport’s syndrome

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36
Q

dietary recommendations to treatment of nephrolithiasis

A

fluid intake, adequate dietary calcium, decrease sodium intake, decrease dietary protein and oxalate

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37
Q

young black male presents with painless hematuria

A

sickle cell trait

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38
Q

treatment for uric acid renal stones

A

alkalization of urine

39
Q

most common cause of nephrotic syndrome in african american males

A

FSGS

40
Q

medications used in treatment of wegner’s granulomatosis

A

corticosteroids and cyclophosphamide

41
Q

classic presentation of poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

brown urine and hypertension 1-3 weeks post throat infection

42
Q

most common cause of morbidity and mortality in patients with SLE

A

renal disease

43
Q

defining characteristics of nephrotic syndrome

A

proteinuria > 3g/day, hyperlipidemia, hypoalbuminemia, edema, hypertension

44
Q

fever, rash, elevated creatinine, and eosinophilia

A

acute interstitial nephritis

45
Q

biggest risk factor for renal cell carcinoma

A

cigarette smoke

46
Q

5 etiologies of temporary hematuria

A

endometriosis, trauma, exercise, UTI, nephrolithiasis, idiopathic

47
Q

most common location of renal stone impaction

A

uretero-vesicular junction

48
Q

class of diuretic most commonly used in patietns with renal stones due to hypercalciuria and normal serum calcium level

A

thiazide diuretics

49
Q

name 4 potassium sparing diuretics

A

spironolactone, epleranone, triamterene, amiloride

50
Q

what size calcium renal stone has 50% likelihood of passing without surgical intervention

A

8-9 mm

51
Q

volume status expected in a hyponatremic patient with thiazide diuretics

A

dehydration

52
Q

volume status expected in a hyponatremic patient with SIADH

A

euvolemic

53
Q

volume status expected in a hyponatremic patient with hepatic cirrhosis

A

volume overload

54
Q

volume status expected in a hyponatremic patient with addison’s disease

A

hypovolemic

55
Q

volume status expected in a hyponatremic patient with hypothyroidism

A

euvolemic

56
Q

volume status expected in a hyponatremic patient with renal failure

A

volume overload or euvolemic

57
Q

volume status expected in a hyponatremic patient with psychogenic polydipsia

A

euvolemic

58
Q

urine sodium and serum osmolality in SIADH

A

FeNa > 1

serum osmolality < 280

59
Q

urine sodium and serum osmolality in psychogenic polydipsia

A

FeNa < 1

serum osmolality < 280

60
Q

urine sodium and serum osmolality in thiazide use

A

FeNa > 1

serum osmolality < 280

61
Q

urine sodium and serum osmolality in alcoholism

A

FeNa < 1

serum osmolality < 280

62
Q

urine sodium and serum osmolality in hypothyroidism

A

FeNa > 1

serum osmolality < 280

63
Q

differential diagnosis for hypovolemic hyponatremia if FeNa < 1

A

GI losses, excessive sweating, burn victims, fluid sequestration from pancreatitis

64
Q

differential diagnosis for hypovolemic hyponatremia if FeNa > 1

A

diuretic use, adrenal insufficiency, salt-losing renal disease, urinary tract obstruction

65
Q

differential diagnosis for hypervolemic hyponatremia

A

FeNa < 1: CHF, nephrotic syndrome, liver failure

FeNa > 1: renal failure

66
Q

rapid correction with hypertonic saline can cause

A

central pontine myelinolysis

67
Q

rapid correction with hypotonic saline can cause

A

cerebral edema

68
Q

causes of SIADH

A

CNS pathology, sarcoidosis, paraneoplastic syndromes, psychiatric drugs, major surgery, pneumonia, or HIV

69
Q

treatment of SIADH

A

first line: fluid restriction

second line: loop diuretics, hypertonic saline if symptomatic, demeclocycline may help

70
Q

causes potassium to shift out of cells (hyperkalemia)

A

low insulin, beta-blockers, acidosis, digoxin, and cell lysis (leukemia)

71
Q

causes potassium to shift into cells (hypokalemia)

A

insulin, beta-agonists, alkalosis, cell creation/proliferation

72
Q

diagnosis: hyponatremia, low serum osmolality, high urine osmolality

A

SIADH

73
Q

next step in management of patient with peaked T waves on EKG due to hyperkalemia

A

calcium gluconate

74
Q

what is the most common cause of death in dialysis patients

A

cardiovascular disease

75
Q

electrolyte abnormality associated with peaked T waves

A

hyperkalemia

76
Q

electrolyte abnormality associated with flattened T waves

A

hypokalemia

77
Q

electrolyte abnormality associated with U waves

A

hypokalemia

78
Q

electrolyte abnormality associated with QT prolongation

A

hypocalcemia

79
Q

electrolyte abnormality associated with QT shortening

A

hypercalcemia

80
Q

characteristics of type I renal tubular acidosis

A

urine pH > 5.3
hypokalemia
serum bicarb can be low or elevated

81
Q

characteristics of type II renal tubular acidosis

A

urine pH > 5.3
hypokalemia
serum bicarbonate is low

82
Q

characteristics of type IV renal tubular acidosis

A

aldosterone deficiency
urine pH < 5.3
hyperkalemia
serum bicarbonate is normal

83
Q

how rapidly can hypernatremia be safely corrected

A

no more than 12 mEq/day

84
Q

how rapidly can hyponatremia be safely corrected

A

no more than 12 mEq/day

85
Q

causes of euvolemic hyponatremia

A

SIADH, hypothyroidism, polydipsia, sometimes renal failure

86
Q

treatment for nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

A

thiazide diuretics +/- indomethacin

for lithium induced: amiloride

87
Q

how are sodium levels corrected for high glucose

A

add 1.6 mEq/L sodium for every 100 mg/dL glucose > 100 mg/dL

88
Q

how are total calcium levels corrected for albumin

A

(4 - serum albumin) x 0.8 + serum calcium

89
Q

causes of normal anion gap metabolic acidosis

A

diarrhea, sniffing glue, TPN, renal tubular acidosis, and primary adrenal failure

90
Q

what medications are necessary in patients with end stage renal disease

A

anti-hypertensives, hyperlipidemia medications, glucose control, vitamin D, phosphate binders, kayexalate, erythropoietin

91
Q

most common renal failure in multiple myeloma

A

toxic effect of light chain casts on renal tubules

92
Q

most common renal failure in multiple myeloma

A

toxic effect of light chain casts on renal tubules

93
Q

nephrolithiasis associated with crohn’s disease

A

oxalate kidney stones

94
Q

hydrocele management

A

observe until 12 months, most resolve

remove surgically after 12 months to reduce risk of inguinal hernia

USMLE Step Two (17 decks)

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