Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

USMLE Step Two > Random Subject Review Part I > Flashcards

Random Subject Review Part I Flashcards

1
Q

complication of LP in patient with elevated intracranial presure

A

uncal herniation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

diagnosis: child presents to ER with altered mental status, hypoglycemia, and lesions suggestive of chickenpox

A

rye’s syndrome (hepatoencephalopathy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

symptoms of basilar artery stroke

A

cranial nerve deficits, altered mental status/coma, contralateral full body weakness and decreased sensation, vertigo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

TCA overdose signs and management

A

anticholingeric symptoms, cardiac and CNS toxicity

treat cardiac with sodium bicarb, and CNS with benzos

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

treatment for lithium induced nephrogenic diabetes insipidus

A

HCTZ and amiloride (binds lithium stimulated sodium channels)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

treatment of acute dystonia

A

anticholinergics (benadryl, benztropine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

treatment of tardive dyskinesia

A

discontinue typical antipsychotic, switch to atypical antipsychotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

EEG pattern seen in absence seizures

A

3 cycle/second spike and wave pattern

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

typical complaint of patient with retinal detachment

A

sudden painless onset of flashing lights, floaters, and shade coming down over vision unilaterally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

treatment for benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

A

epply maneuver to reposition otoliths

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

todd’s paralysis

A

post-ictal hemiparesis < 24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

drugs combined with SSRIs known for causing serotonin syndrome

A

SSRIs, SNRIs, MAOIs, levadopa, mepiridine, lithium, amphetamines, cocaine, ecstasy, LSD, st. john’s wort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

most common cause of sensorineural hearing loss

A

prebycusis (progressive symmetric high-frequency loss of the elderly)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

most common cause of conductive hearing loss

A

otosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

most common complication of recurrent otitis media

A

hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

medications used in ADHD

A

stimulants, TCAs, buproprion, alpha-2 agonists (clonidine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

medications used in tourette’s

A

fluphenazine, pimizide, tetrabenazine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

most worrisome side effect of ADHD drug atomoxetine

A

increased suicidal ideation, hepatotoxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

diagnosis: patient presents with hearing loss and vertigo, grayish-white “pearly” TM lesion apparent on PE

A

cholesteatoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

symptoms of basilar skull fracture

A

raccoon eyes (orbital fracture)
battle sign (bruising over mastoid process)
blood behind tympanic membrane
CSF coming out of nose or ears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

diagnosis and next step: chest trauma, hypotension, JVD, and distant heart sounds

A

cardiac tamponade

pericardiocentesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

diagnosis and next step: chest trauma, JVD, hypotension, and respiratory distress

A

tension pneumothorax

needle decompression and chest tube placement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

how to evaluate neck trauma

A

neck zone 1: CT angiogram
neck zone 2: surgical exploration
neck zone 3: CT angiogram and triple endoscopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how to manage elevated ICP

A 
elevated head of bed
lidocaine prior to intubation
mannitol
hyperventilation
decompressive surgery
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

next step: pelvic fracture, DPL shows blood in pelvis

A

emergent laparotomy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

next step: pelvic fracture, DPL shows urine in pelvis

A

urgent laparotomy (bladder injury)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

next step: pelvic fracture, DPL shows nothing but there is hemodynamic instability

A

suspect retroperitoneal hematoma, angiography with possible embolization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

next step: blunt abdominal trauma, unstable vital signs, FAST shows fluid in pelvis

A

emergent laparotomy (assume it is blood)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

next step: blunt abdominal trauma, unstable vital signs, FAST shows no fluid in pelvis

A

retroperitoneal hematoma, angiogram with possible embolization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

next step: blunt abdominal trauma, unstable vital signs, FAST inconclusive

A

perform DPL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

empiric treatment for brain abscess

A

antibiotics, needle aspiration, corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

treatment for cluster headaches

A

100% oxygen

triptans and ergotamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

when are triptans contraindicated for headaches

A

pregnancy, CAD, prinzmetal’s angina

cause vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

side effects of theophylline overdose

A

seizures, excessive muscle contraction, hyperthermia, hypotension, cardiac tachyarrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

ST elevation in multiple arteries

A

acute pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

diagnosis: cardiac cath shows equal pressure in all chambers

A

constrictive pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

antidote for methanol

A

fomepazole

2nd line: alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

antiode for ethylene glycol

A

fomepazole

2nd line: alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

antiode for arsenic

A

dimercaperol, succimer, or penicillamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

burn patient fluid replacement

A

lactate ringers
4 mL/kg x % burn area + maintenance fluids
1/2 first 8 hours
1/2 next 16 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

treatment for neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

discontinue offending medication
IV fluids and dantrolene (stops muscle contraction)
2nd line: bromocriptine or amantidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

paget’s disease lab abnormalities

A

elevated alkaline phosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

osteomalacia/rickets lab abnormalities

A

vitamin D deficiency
decreased calcium
increased PTH
increased or normal alkaline phosphatase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

osteoperosis lab abnormalities

A

all values normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

osteopetrosis lab abnormalities

A

all values normal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

pseudohypoparathyroidism lab abnormalities

A

decreased calcium
increased phosphate
increased PTH
(defective receptors)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

diagnosis: hypertension, depression, kidney stones

A

hyperparathyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

complications arising from using vasopressors in shock

A

ischemia and necrosis of distal extremities

mesenteric ischemia and renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

most effective intervention for reducing blood pressure

A

weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

preferred initial antihypertensive in a patient with no comorbidities

A

HCTZ or chlorthalidone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

first-line hypertensive for diabetics

A

ACE-inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

first-line hypertensive for CHF patients

A

ACE-inhibitor

beta-blocker and spironolactone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

first-line hypertensive for BPH

A

alpha-blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

first-line hypertensive for LVH

A

ACE-inhibitor

considered pre-CHF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

first-line hypertensive for hyperthyroidism

A

non-selective beta-blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

first-line hypertensive for osteoporosis

A

HCTZ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

first-line hypertensive for benign essential tremor

A

beta-blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

first-line hypertensive for post-menopausal female

A

HCTZ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

first-line hypertensive for migraines

A

beta-blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

most likely cause of secondary HTN with proteinuria

A

renal disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

most likely cause of secondary HTN with hypokalemia

A

hyperaldosteronism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

most likely cause of secondary HTN with tachycardia, diarrhea, and heat intolerance

A

hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

most likely cause of secondary HTN with hyperkalemia

A

renal artery stenosis and renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

most likely cause of secondary HTN with episodic sweating, tachycardia

A

pheochromocytoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

antihypertensive side effect profile: first dose orthostatic hypotension

A

alpha-blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

antihypertensive side effect profile: hypertrichosis

A

minoxidil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

antihypertensive side effect profile: dry mouth, sedation, rebound HTN

A

clonidine

must be dosed every three hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

antihypertensive side effect profile: bradycardia, impotence, asthma exacerbation

A

non-selective beta-blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

antihypertensive side effect profile: reflex tachycardia

A

vasodilators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

antihypertensive side effect profile: cough

A

ACE-inhibitor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

antihypertensive side effect profile: sulfa allergy

A

HCTZ, loop diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

antihypertensive side effect profile: angioedema

A

ACE-inhibitor or less likely ARB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

antihypertensive side effect profile: drug-induced lupus

A

hydralazine

anti-histone antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

antihypertensive side effect profile: cyanide toxicity

A

nitroprusside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

vasodilating effects of nitroglycerin and dihyropyridine calcium channel blockers

A

venodilators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

vasodilating effects of nitroprusside

A

arteriodilators and venodilators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

JONES criteria for rheumatic heart disease

A 
J - joint polyarthritis
O - pancarditis
N - nodules
E - erythema nodosum
S - syndenham's chorea
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

major DUKE criteria for endocarditis

A

serial positive blood cultures
presence of vegetations or cardiac abscess on ECHO
new onset valvular regurgitation
blood culture positive for Coxiella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

minor DUKE criteria for endocarditis

A

predisposing heat condition or IV drug use
fever > 38C
vascular phenomenon (septic emboli, infarc, mycotic aneruysm, intracranial hemorrhage, janeway lesions)
immunologic phenomenon (glomerulonephritis, osler’s nodes, roth spots, positive rheumatoid factor)
positive cultures not meeting requirements for major criteria or serologic evidence of infection without positive culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

most common nephritic syndrome

A

membranous glomerulonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

endocarditis prophylaxis for oral surgery

A

amoxicillin before and after the procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

endocarditis prophylaxis for GI/GU surgery

A

amipicillin + gentamicin before and amoxicillin after the procedure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

treatment for mild unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia

A

UV therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

when is the greatest risk for post-op MIs

A

first 48 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

pressor causes vasoconstriction with bradycardia

A

phenylephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

high dose pressor that maximizes alpha-1 constriction

A

epinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

when to stop warfarin prior to surgery

A

3-4 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

when to stop aspirin prior to surgery

A

5-7 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

treatment for DIC

A

FFP and possibly platelets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

preferred placement of swan-ganz catheter

A

right IJ or left subclavian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

protective measures for kidney with IV contract

A

n-acetylcysteine
IV fluids
sodium bicarbonate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

treatment for cluster headaches

A

100% oxygen

triptans, ergotamines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

antihypertensive contraindicated in bilateral renal artery stenosis

A

ACE-inhibitors

unilateral okay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

antihypertensive contraindicated in advanced renal failure

A

ACE-inhibitors if they have hyperkalemia, otherwise okay

no potassium-sparing diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

antihypertensive contraindicated in gout

96
Q

heart defect seen in chromosome 22q11 deletions

A

truncus arteriosus, tetralogy of fallot

97
Q

heart defect seen in down syndrome

A

endocardial cushion defects

98
Q

heart defect seen in congenital rubella

A

PDA, pulmonary artery stenosis

99
Q

heart defect seen in turner’s syndrome

A

coarctation of the aorta

100
Q

heart defect seen in marfan’s syndrome

A

aortic regurgitation

101
Q

medication combination used in treatment of TB meningitis

A

RIPE drugs

102
Q

features of a patient presenting with pericarditis

A

pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, fever, cough

pain worse in supine position, pulsus paradoxus

103
Q

classic ECG appearance in atrial flutter

A

saw-tooth pattern 2:1 or 3:1 P wave to QRS complex

104
Q

60 year old obese patient with dirty, velvety patches on back of neck

A

acanthosis nigricans

fingerstick glucose and assess for visceral malignancies

105
Q

most common cause of hypothyroidism

A

hashimoto’s thyroiditis

106
Q

type of bias introduced when screening detects a dsiease earlier and thus lengthens the time from diagnosis to death

A

lead-time bias

107
Q

exceptions to the requirement of informed consent

A

unable to give consent (mentally disabled)
emergency decisions
patients who waive the right for informed consent

108
Q

palpable flank mass, hematuria, and U/S showing bilateral enlarged kidneys with cysts, what brain anomaly is associated

A

berry aneurysm

109
Q

four main causes of microcytic anemia

A

iron deficiency anemia
thalassemia
anemia of chronic disease
lead poisoning

110
Q

US region where lyme disease is endemic

A

northeast US

111
Q

hand joints affected in rheumatoid arthritis

A

MCP and PIP

112
Q

xerostomia + parotid enlargement + xerophthalmia + anti-La antibodies

A

sjogren’s syndrome

113
Q

most common cause of seizures in young adults

A

trauma, alcohol withdrawal, brain tumors

114
Q

most common cause of non-obstetric postpartum death

A

thromboembolic disease

115
Q

immunodeficiency presenting with eczema, thrombocytopenia, and high levels of IgA

A

wiskott-aldrich syndrome

116
Q

defense mechanism displayed when a woman calmly describes a gory murder in great detail

117
Q

treatment for mild, persistent asthma

A

low-dose inhaled corticosteroid

118
Q

EKG with peaked T waves and widened QRS

A

hyperkalemia

119
Q

treatment for iron overdose

A

deferroxamine

120
Q

imaging study used to diagnose DVT

A

compressive venous U/S

121
Q

radiographic study used to diagnose injury to the urethra

A

retrograde cystourethrogram

122
Q

drug of choice for trigeminal neuralgia

A

carbamazepine

123
Q

treatment for normal pressure hydrocephalus

124
Q

treatment for normal pseudotumor cerebri

A

weight loss. acetazolamide

if refractory, consider serial LPs

125
Q

treatment for guillain-barre syndrome

A

endotracheal intubation

plasmapheresis or IVIG (not both)

126
Q

somogyi effect v. dawn phenomenon

A

somogyi: 3am glucose low
dawn: insufficient NPH insulin, 3am glucose high

127
Q

when does chronic COPD qualify for home O2

A

pulse ox < 88%

pulmonary HTN, peripheral edema, or polycythemia

128
Q

method used to calculate fluid repletion in burn victims

A

4 mL/kg x %burn
first half in 8 hours
second half in next 16 hours

129
Q

salicylate ingestion results in what type of acid-base disorder

A

respiratory alkalosis

metabolic acidosis

130
Q

medication commonly used to induce ovulation

A

clomiphene citrate

second life: pulsatile leuprolide

131
Q

psychiatric condition when personal travels a long distance and takes a new name and has no memory of prior life

A

dissociative fugue

132
Q

congenital infection may present with a “blueberry-muffin” rash

133
Q

breast cancer that increases future risk of invasive carcinoma in both breasts

134
Q

classic symptoms of placenta previa

A

painless bleeding

135
Q

anterior knee pain in active 14-year-old boy

A

oshgood-schlotter disease

136
Q

rhomboid-shaped, positively birefringent crystals in joint space

A

pseudogout

137
Q

oral infection with branching rods

A

actinomyces

138
Q

next step in evaluation of patient with two consecutive pap smears with ASCUS

A

colposcopy with ECC

139
Q

45-year-old obese female with pruritis, clay-colored stools, dark urine, elevated alkaline phosphate and elevated bilirubin

A

biliary tract obstruction

140
Q

infection causing diarrhea and pseudoappendicitis

141
Q

most likely cause of acute lower GI bleed in patients older than 40

A

diverticulosis

142
Q

most common underlying cause of pathologic fractures in elderly thin women

A

osteoporosis

143
Q

causative agent in pityriasis versicolor

A

malassia furur

144
Q

chest pain in young patient with angina at rest, T-segment elevation, normal cardiac enzymes

A

prinzmetals angina

145
Q

hypercholesterolemia medication causing flushing and pruritis

146
Q

target lesions with red center, pale zone, and dark outer ring appearing on palms and soles with a prodrome of malaise and myalgias

A

erythema multiforme

147
Q

what percentage of the population falls within 1SD, 2SD, and 3SD

A

1 standard deviation: 68%
2 standard deviations: 95%
3 standard deviations: 99.7%

148
Q

equation for odds ratio

149
Q

equation for relative risk

A

A/(A+B) / C/(C+D)

150
Q

when is odds ratio a good approximation of relative risk

A

when disease is very rare

151
Q

what does it mean when relative risk is equal to one

A

no association

152
Q

what to do when parents refuse life-saving treatment for a child in an emergent situation

A

perform therapy and go to ethics board after

153
Q

patient is emergently intubated after MVA, after family brings a signed DNR stating what she did not wish to be intubated, what do you do

154
Q

patient tells you she does not want to know the results of her lung biopsy but her family is begging you to tell them, what do you do

A

withhold information

155
Q

study shows that taking 325 mg of aspirin has no effect on ischemic cardiac events, what type of error is this

A

type II error

156
Q

treatment for acute mesenteric ischemia

A

broad spectrum antibiotics, NG tube decompression, diagnose with angiogram, heparin to anticoagulate, reduce arterial vasospasm with papaverine, embolectomy, resection of necrotic bowel

157
Q

when is rifampin prophylaxis indicated for bacterial meningitis

A

close contacts of neisseria or haeomphilus

158
Q

treatment for acromegaly

A

transsphenoidal surgical resection, external beam therapy, or ocreotide
last choice: cabergoline dopamine agonist

159
Q

COPD patient comes to ER with tachycardia and hypotension, begins to have seizures, what is the most likely etiology

A

theophylline intoxication

160
Q

ACLS treatment for asystole

A

transcutaneous pacing
CPR, alternative epinephrine and atropine
cannot give more than 1mg IV atropine x 3 doses
do not shock these patients

161
Q

treatment for febrile seizures

A

evaporative cooling

162
Q

empiric treatment for pneumonia in a 2-month old

A

macrolide +/- cefotaxime

163
Q

empiric treatment for pneumonia in a 2-year old

A

amoxicillin or ampicillin

164
Q

autoimmune complication occurs 2-4 weeks after an MI

A

dressler’s syndrome (autoimmune pericarditis)

165
Q

name given to stress-related hair loss and what is the treatment

A

tilogen effluveum, just reassure, should go away with stress

166
Q

most common cause of cushing’s syndrome

A

exogenous steroid use

second most common is pituitary tumor

167
Q

most likely cause of galactorrhea, impotence, and decreased libido in a patient with a history of schizophrenia

A

medication (dopamine antagonist)

168
Q

ethical problem if doctor refers patient for MRI at a facility he owns

A

conflict of interest

169
Q

two most common foodborne bacterial GI tract infections in the US

A

salmonella and campylobacter

170
Q

diagnostic test for hereditary spherocytosis

A

osmotic fragility test

171
Q

bullous skin disease with negative nikolsky sign

A

bullous pemphigoid

172
Q

white plaques on tongue and back of throat that can be scraped off with a tongue depressor

A

candida albicans, screen for HIV

173
Q

young male with hip and back pain along with stiffness that improves with activity and worsens with rest

A

ankylosing spondilitis

174
Q

cold water is flushed into a patients ear and fast phase of nystagmus is towards the opposite side

175
Q

findings expected in post-term pregnancy > 42 weeks

A

oligohydramnios, passage of meconium in utero, dry peeling skin, mature placenta with calcifications

176
Q

annual screening recommended for women with strong family history of ovarian cancer

A

CA-125 and transvaginal U/S

177
Q

defense mechanism used by pedophile who enters a monastery

A

reaction formation

178
Q

causes of exudative pleural effusion

A

pneumonia, malignancy, tuberculosis, pulmonary emboli, pancreatitis

179
Q

eosinophilic casts found in urine

A

acute interstitial nephritis (drug-induced)

180
Q

side effects of corticosteroids

A

hyperglycemia, hypertension, emotional lability, insomnia, cataracts, osteoporosis, thin skin, cushingoid features

181
Q

classic findings of henoch-schonlein purpura

A

abdominal pain, vomiting, blood in stool, intususception, hematuria/proteinuria, joint symptoms, palpable purpura on legs

182
Q

ranson’s criteria for pancreatitis

A

hyperglycemia, AST, LDH, age >45, WBC count, calcium, hematocrit, BUN, base defecit, fluid sequestration > 6 L

183
Q

entamoeba histolytica diarrhea treatment

A

metronidazole

184
Q

giardia lamblia treatment

A

metronidazole

185
Q

salmonella treatment

A

fluoroquinolone/TMP-SMX only in severe case (increases carrier state)

186
Q

shigella treatment

A

fluoroquinolone/TMP-SMX only in severe case

187
Q

campylobacter treatment

A

erythromycin

188
Q

vasculitis with weak pulses in upper extremities

A

takayasu’s arteritis (pulseless disease)

189
Q

vasculitis with necrotizing granulomas of lung and necrotizing glomerulonephritis

A

wegener’s granulomatosis

190
Q

vasculitis with necrotizing immune complex inflammation of visceral and renal vessels

A

polyarteritis nodosa

191
Q

vasculitis of young male smokers

A

buerger’s disease

192
Q

vasculitis of young asian women

A

takayasu’s arteritis

193
Q

vasculitis of young asthmatics

A

cherg-strauss

194
Q

vasculitis of infants and young children involving coronary arteries

A

kawasaki disease

195
Q

most common vasculitis

A

giant cell arteritis (temporal arteritis)

196
Q

vasculitis associated with hepatitis B infection

A

polyarteritis nodosa

197
Q

vasculitis where occlusion of ophthalmic artery can lead to blindness

A

giant cell arteritis

198
Q

vasculitis with perforation of nasal septum

A

wegener’s granulomatosis

199
Q

vasculitis with unilateral headache and jaw claudication

A

giant cell arteritis

200
Q

lipid lowering agent that causes facial flushing

201
Q

lipid lowering agent that causes elevated LFTs and myositis

A

statins and fibrates

202
Q

lipid lowering agent that causes GI discomfort and bad taste

A

cholestyramine

203
Q

lipid lowering agent that causes best effect on HDL

204
Q

lipid lowering agent that causes best effect on triglycerides and VLDL

205
Q

lipid lowering agent that causes best effect on LDL and cholesterol

206
Q

lipid lowering agent that binds c. diff toxin

A

cholestyramine

207
Q

drug known for causing elevated prolactin levels

A

dopamine antagonists, verapamil, methyl-dopa

208
Q

classic findings of henoch-schonlein purpura

A

abdominal pain, vomiting, blood in stool, intususception, hematuria/proteinuria, joint symptoms, palpable purpura on legs

209
Q

ranson’s criteria for pancreatitis

A

hyperglycemia, AST, LDH, age >45, WBC count, calcium, hematocrit, BUN, base defecit, fluid sequestration > 6 L

210
Q

entamoeba histolytica diarrhea treatment

A

metronidazole

211
Q

giardia lamblia treatment

A

metronidazole

212
Q

salmonella treatment

A

fluoroquinolone/TMP-SMX only in severe case (increases carrier state)

213
Q

shigella treatment

A

fluoroquinolone/TMP-SMX only in severe case

214
Q

campylobacter treatment

A

erythromycin

215
Q

vasculitis with weak pulses in upper extremities

A

takayasu’s arteritis (pulseless disease)

216
Q

vasculitis with necrotizing granulomas of lung and necrotizing glomerulonephritis

A

wegener’s granulomatosis

217
Q

vasculitis with necrotizing immune complex inflammation of visceral and renal vessels

A

polyarteritis nodosa

218
Q

vasculitis of young male smokers

A

buerger’s disease

219
Q

vasculitis of young asian women

A

takayasu’s arteritis

220
Q

vasculitis of young asthmatics

A

cherg-strauss

221
Q

vasculitis of infants and young children involving coronary arteries

A

kawasaki disease

222
Q

most common vasculitis

A

giant cell arteritis (temporal arteritis)

223
Q

vasculitis associated with hepatitis B infection

A

polyarteritis nodosa

224
Q

vasculitis where occlusion of ophthalmic artery can lead to blindness

A

giant cell arteritis

225
Q

vasculitis with perforation of nasal septum

A

wegener’s granulomatosis

226
Q

vasculitis with unilateral headache and jaw claudication

A

giant cell arteritis

227
Q

lipid lowering agent that causes facial flushing

228
Q

lipid lowering agent that causes elevated LFTs and myositis

A

statins and fibrates

229
Q

lipid lowering agent that causes GI discomfort and bad taste

A

cholestyramine

230
Q

lipid lowering agent that causes best effect on HDL

231
Q

lipid lowering agent that causes best effect on triglycerides and VLDL

232
Q

lipid lowering agent that causes best effect on LDL and cholesterol

233
Q

lipid lowering agent that binds c. diff toxin

A

cholestyramine

234
Q

drug known for causing elevated prolactin levels

A

dopamine antagonists, verapamil, methyl-dopa

235
Q

how to differentiate between microcytic anemia of iron deficiency and thalassemia

A

iron deficiency: high RDW > 20% and low reticulocyte count

thalassemia: normal RDW and high reticulocyte count

USMLE Step Two (17 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions