Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Nephrology Fellowship Reviewer > Random Recall Part 3 > Flashcards

Random Recall Part 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Treatment of APAS in pregnant patient

A

heparin + aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Low C3 only

A

PSGN and MPGN type 2 (DDD)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Low C3 and C4

A

Shunt nephritis, Lupus, Cyrgoglobulinemia, MPGN Type 1, Bacterial endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

IgG and positive bandlike subendothelial immune deposits + subendothelial mesangial deposits

A

MPGN Type 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

mimic MCD and FSGS

A

C1q nephropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

renal changes in pre-eclampsia

A

glomerular endotheliosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

UTI suppressive treatment in pregnant

A

nitrofurantoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

crystalluria

A

cusira: calcium oxalate, urates, sulfonamides, indinavir, radio iodinated contrast, acyclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

aceinhibitor with no renal dose adjustment in HD patients

A

imidapril

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

If captopril decrease GFR by 35%

A

suspect RAS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

renal cell carcinoma which produce mucin

A

collecting duct carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

differentiate cell mediated vs humoral rejection

A

negative C4D stain - cell mediated; positive C4D: humoral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

most common cause of delayed graft function

A

ischemic ATN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

KT drug that can cause gout

A

cyclosporine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

can increase CNI level

A

verapamil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

decrease CNI level

A

anti TB and anti seizure drugs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

PTH in phosphorus reabsorption

A

decrease kidney; increase gut absorption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

erectile dysfunction in CKD

A

blunt increase in LH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

risk factor with paradoxical protective effect in HD

A

obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

first line drugs for restless leg syndrome

A

levodopa and pramiprexole (2) gabapentin and carbamezipine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

first line for skin xerosis with pruritus

A

capsaicin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

platelet effect on CKD

A

impaired interaction of platelets with vascular endothelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

DM more common in what post KT drug

A

Tacrolimus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

glucose intolerance as an effect of which post KT drug

A

prednisone, cyclospporine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

how many weeks before conception should MMF be shifted to another post KT drug

A

6 weeks before concenption

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

absolute contraindication to KT

A

positive T cell crossmatch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

acute cellular rejection treatment

A

pulse steroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

obesity

A

reduced adiponectin; increased leptin, resistin, IL6, TNFa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

high BP in the office and normal BP values in the out of office enviroment

A

white coat hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

normal BP in the office but high BP in ambulatory setting

A

masked hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

sleep BP that falls less than 10% compared with awake levels

A

nondipper (normal 15-20% dip)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

useful to monitor orthostatic hypotension

A

home bp monitoring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

evaluate Na and K intake

A

24h urine collection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

treatment for low renin hypertension

A

alpha blocker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

treatment for acute aortic dissection

A

lower BP within 20 mins to a sbp < 120

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

most common immunulogic cause of AIN

A

acute allograft rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

target K in AKI

A

less than 5.5

38
Q

when to treat met acid in AKI

A

hco3 < 15, pH < 7.15-7.2

39
Q

average annual decline in egfr in DM

A

2.1-2.7

40
Q

target pth in CKD

A

150-300

41
Q

most important regulator of intestinal absorption

A

dietary phosphate

42
Q

recommeded daily allowance for Pi

A

800 mg/day

43
Q

Schistosoma species often involved in GN

A

S. mansoni

44
Q

First line therapy for treatment naïve patients with metastatic CA

A

Bevacizumab + IFN alpha

45
Q

Treatment Non-pseudomonal gram negative enterobacteria

A

3rd Gen cephalosporins or aminoglycosides

46
Q

More important CD class early after transplant

A

CD8

47
Q

critical for indirect allorecognition later in the transplant course

A

CD4

48
Q

compression of the left renal vein between the aorta and superior mesenteric artery

A

renal nutrcacker

49
Q

Cells responsible for EPO production

A

peritubular fibroblast

50
Q

RCC well differentiated neoplastic cells with intensely eosinophilic granular cytoplasm

A

oncocytoma

51
Q

RCC with hepatic dysfunction in the absence of metastases

A

Stauffer syndrome

52
Q

RCC with excellent prognosis

A

Chromophobe / Sarcomatoid

53
Q

Most common malignant cause of UTO

A

Cervical Cancer

54
Q

collecting sample for BUN

A

Slow pump to 100 ml/min for 10 seconds then stopping pump before sampling

55
Q

Accepted parameter for dialyzer reuse

A

→ fiber bundle volume must be greater than 80% of the initial value, and the dialyzer should hold greater than 80% of the maximal operating pressure

56
Q

Buffer of free radicals in Wisconsin solution

A

Hydroxyethyl starch

57
Q

Buffer in HTK solution

A

Histidine

58
Q

More sensitive assay for detecting donor anti-HLA antibody

A

Flow cytometric cross-match assay

59
Q

kidney disease presenting with membrane blebs on RBC

A

glomerular

60
Q

urine sediment seen in patients with nephrotic range proteinuria

A

oval fat bodies

61
Q

hyponat of pregnancy appears to be mediated by

A

relaxin

62
Q

medication when combined with antimicrobials that provide palliation for patients who cannot undergo surgery

A

acetohydroxamic acid

63
Q

Type of classic decoy cells

A

Type 1

64
Q

GBM in thin basement memberane disease

A

150-250 nm

65
Q

initial management in thrombotic microangiopathy post transplant

A

discontinue CNI

66
Q

diuretic of choice in patients with GFR below 30

A

Torsemide

67
Q

ace inhibitor less likely to cause cough

A

imidapril

68
Q

initial lab test to investigate presence of comorbid condition, seoncdary causes or target organ damage in a newly diagnosed htn

A

ECG

69
Q

key renal regulatory response to mild increase in blood pressure

A

pressure natriuresis

70
Q

pathophysiology of ankle edema secondary to calcium channel blocker

A

precapillary vasodilation

71
Q

hypertensive emergency medication that provides acute improvement in renal function, lacks toxic metabolites and has specific renal vasodilating effects

A

fenoldopam

72
Q

water exiting the reverse osmosis unit

A

permeate

73
Q

changes in GFR are offset by changes in the tubular reabsorption of fluid and NaCl; independent of direct neuronal and systemic hormonal control

A

glomerulotubular balance

74
Q

low angiotensin levels

A

NaCl reabsorption

75
Q

fine tuning of K excretion

A

distal nephron

76
Q

principal effector molecule of RAS

A

angiotensin II

77
Q

arterial pressure that can trigger renin secertion

A

< 90 mmHg

78
Q

angiotensin peptide with a predominant role in vasopressin release

A

AT III

79
Q

strongest expression of SGLT1

A

S3 of PCT

80
Q

plasma glucose threshold where glucose should begin to be excreted int he urine

A

280 mg/dL

81
Q

SGLT2 inhibitor decrease glomerular hyperfiltration via TGF by what mechanism

A

constriction of afferent arteriole

82
Q

major transporter of cationic drugs and metabolites

A

SLC22A2

83
Q

main apical transporter for anionic amino acids in the proximal tubule

A

EAAT3

84
Q

Increase in tubular flow causes increase in NaCl delivery and Ca influx leading to decrease in renin

A

Tubuloglomerular feedback

85
Q

Uosm 280 in spg

A

1.008 or 1.009

inc in UOsm 35-40, rises to 0.001

86
Q

Proteinuria in fanconi and dent disease

A

Tubular

87
Q

Proteinuria in myeloma and rhabdo

A

overflow

88
Q

Proteinuria in infection stones

A

post renal

89
Q

glomerular hematuria

A

10-80% dysmorphic rbc

> 2-5% acathocytes

90
Q

casts in chronic renal failure

A

broad casts

91
Q

atn cast

A

tubular epithelial cell

92
Q

most common n benign neoplasm less than 2-3 cm

A

renal adenoma

Nephrology Fellowship Reviewer (29 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions