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nephrology fellowship reviewer > Random Recall Part 1 > Flashcards

Random Recall Part 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Egfr range that vascular access should be considered

A

20-25

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2
Q

level of GFR (ml/min/1.73m2) does insulin resistance become deranged in uremic carbohydrate metabolism

A

50

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3
Q

Biopsy of skin tissue showed fibroblast- like cell that stained with procollagen I and CD34

A

Nephrogenic Systemic Fibrosis

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4
Q

bone biopsy: Histologic results show increased rate of bone formation, increased bone resorption, extensive osteoclastic and osteoblastic activity and progressive increase in endosteal peritrabecular fibrosis

A

Osteitis Fibrosa Cystica

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5
Q

hormonal dysfunction leads to sexual dysfunction in both males and female patients with CKD

A

increase prolactin

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6
Q

average latency period (in days) before the onset of nephritis in postpharygitic cases of post streptococcal glomerulonephritis

A

7-21 days

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7
Q

type of membranoproliferative GN is a retinal examination indicated

A

Dense Deposit Disease

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8
Q

minimum adequate amount of specimen needed for transplant biopsies

A

10 glomeruli 2 arteries

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9
Q

parasitic disease cause glomerular involvement owing to reduced expression of complement receptor 1

A

Malaria

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10
Q

antihypertensive medications used in pregnancy has been associated with fetal growth restriction

A

Atenolol

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11
Q

physiologic mechanisms during pregnancy exacerbates renal damage in patients with preexisting renal disease

A

Increase RBF and GFR

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12
Q

primary mechanism of water, sodium, and chloride transport in the descending thin limb of the Loop of Henle

A

passive diffusion

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13
Q

renal tumor can cause excess aldosterone leading to hypertension and hypokalemia

A

renal juxtaglomerular tumor

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14
Q

type of renal angiomyolipoma that is known to be locally aggressive, have the ability to metastasize, and tend to recur

A

epithelioid

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15
Q

asymptomatic microscopic hematuria

A

more than 3 RBC/HPF in at least two of three samples

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16
Q

pathophysiologic mechanism of Cisplatin-induced AKI

A

tubular toxicity

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17
Q

renal autoregulation works until a mean systemic arterial blood pressure of

A

80 mmhg

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18
Q

most important substance produced by the endothelium for BP regulation

A

nitric oxide

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19
Q

30# of NaCl reabsorption occur

A

loop of henle

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20
Q

transcellular NaCl via a Cl-OH exchanger in the proximal tubule is mediated by which protein

A

SLC26A6

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21
Q

vasopressin in NaCl transport in the TAL

A

apical Na K 2Cl cotransport

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22
Q

major mechanism of potassium transport in proximal tubule

A

paracellular pathway

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23
Q

estrogen in Calcium transport

A

decrease urine ca excretion

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24
Q

primary collagen producing cells during kidney injury

A

myofibroblasts

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25
Q

hematuria secondary to pigment nephropathy

A

positive for blood and urine RBC is 0-2/hpf

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26
Q

layer of the peritoneum is duplicated after long-term peritoneal dialysis (PD) treatment or ex- posure to a high glucose concentration

A

Submesothelial basement membrane

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27
Q

minimum ultrafiltration volume (ml) needed to determine ultrafiltration failure in a PD patient who undergoes peritoneal equilibration test (PET)

A

400

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28
Q

benefits of icodextrin use

A

Better lipid profile, lower mortality, regression of LVH

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29
Q

level of GFR (ml/min/1.73m2) does insulin resistance become deranged in uremic carbohydrate metabolism

A

50

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30
Q

laboratory test can be used as an index for monitoring the evolution of renal osteodystrophy and serves as a surrogate measure of bone turnover

A

Parathyroid hormone

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31
Q

disorder shows progressive hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the parathyroid hormone and is one of the hallmarks of disordered mineral metabolism in CKD

A

tertiary hyperparathyroidism

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32
Q

primary mechanism of water, sodium, and chloride transport in the descending thin limb of the Loop of Henle

A

passive diffusion

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33
Q

marked renal physiologic change induced by hypokalemia

A

NaCl retention

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34
Q

Na cotransporter affected in pseydohypoaldosterinusm type II (Gordon syndrome)

A

NCC

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35
Q

transport channel affords the ability to increase reabsorption of sodium within the CCD without affecting potassium secretion

A

Thiazide sensitive NCC

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36
Q

hypoK, low renin, high aldo

A

primary hyperaldosteronism

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37
Q

treatment of PA

A

sprinoloctone

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38
Q

Treatment for PHA I

A

NaCl

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39
Q

hyperK, high renin, high aldo

A

Pseudohypoaldosteronism

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40
Q

hyperK low renin low aldo

A

hypreninimec hypoaldo

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41
Q

treatment of hyporenin hypoaldo

A

loop diuretics

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42
Q

stimulates sodium reabsorption in the thick ascending limb

A

Vasopressin, PTH, glucaogon, calcitonin, B adrenergic agonist

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43
Q

1, alpha, 25(OH)D decrease/increase expression of calbindin D

A

increase

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44
Q

The parathyroid hormone decrease/increase the activity of TRPV5 channels

A

increase

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45
Q

Furosemide activates/inhibits NaK2Cl cotransport type 2

A

inhibits

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46
Q

Ca sensing receptor activation inhibits/activates NKCC2 activity

A

inhibits

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47
Q

DIalysis water contaminant causing cardiac arrhythmia and death

A

fluoride

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48
Q

dialysis water contaminant causing osteomalacia, microcytic anemia, dialysis associated encephalopathy – dementia and movement disorder

A

Aluminum

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49
Q

most frequent cause of early recurrence of primary disease in post-transplant patients

A

FSGS

50
Q

increased production of cytokines by renal cell carcinoma causing abnormal liver function test

A

Stauffer’s syndrome

51
Q

most common cell origin of renal cell carcinoma

A

proximal tubule - clear cell

52
Q

primary phenotypic structural lesion in PKD lies in this cellular organism

A

cilium

53
Q

radiologic feature that best predicts the rate of decline of kidney function

A

baseline kidney volume

54
Q

treatment of salicylate poisoning

A

hemodialysis

55
Q

granular cells that contain renin and its precursor are found in

A

afferent arteriole

56
Q

segment of the renal circulation which has the highest hydraulic pressure

A

arcuate artery

57
Q

Decrease in Colloid Osmotic pressure leads to inc/dec in SNGFR

A

Increase in SNGFR

58
Q

30% of the filtered NaCl is reabsorbed in this segment via the Na-K-2Cl co-transporter.

A

Loop of Henle

59
Q

the site of the glomerulotubular balance wherein the fractional reabsorption of Na increases as the GFR increases

A

proximal tubule

60
Q

Reabsorption of filtered Na occurs in this segment via the Na-H exchange transporter.

A

proximal tubule

61
Q

About 10% of the filtered NaCl is reabsorbed in this segment via the NaCl co-transporter (NCC).

A

DCT

62
Q

Reabsorption of Na without Cl occurs in this segment via the highly selective epithelial Na channel (ENaC).

A

CCD

63
Q

Regulated K secretion occurs in the principal cells of this segment

A

CCD

64
Q

major site of tubular Mg reabsorption.

A

Loop of henle

65
Q

major site of tubular phosphate reabsorption

A

proximal tubule

66
Q

HCTZ will increase/decrease Ca reabsorption in the proximal tubule

A

increase Ca reabsorption

67
Q

major regulator of renal phosphate handling

A

PTH

68
Q

Most of the bicarbonate reabsorption in the proximal tubule involves this transporter.

A

NHE

69
Q

Bicarbonate secretion into the tubular lumen via the bicarbonate-Cl exchanger (pendrin) occurs in the

A

Type B intercalated Cells

70
Q

metabolism of this amino acid leads to the formation and secretion of two ammonium (NH4) ions and the formation and reabsorption of two bicarbonate ions.

A

Glutamine

71
Q

Pregnancy has inc/dec AQP2

A

increase

72
Q

chief site of dilution of the urine regardless of vasopressin (ADH) activity

A

loop of henle

73
Q

the major solute that accounts for the medullary hypertonicity

A

urea

74
Q

“Hyperdynamic Circulation Theory” postulates that sodium and water retention in cirrhosis is brought about by increased production of this substance

A

Nitric Oxide

75
Q

Acute Kidney Injury (AKI) caused by hypercalcemia

A

intrarenal vasoconstriction

76
Q

electrolyte abnormality is commonly associated with aminoglycoside and cisplatin induced Acute Tubular Necrosis (ATN)

A

hypomagnesemia

77
Q

mechanism involved in Uric Acid -induced ATN

A

direct tubular toxicity

78
Q

biomarker may be used to differentiate pre-renal AKI from ATN

A

NGAL

79
Q

most sensitive index in differentiating pre-renal AKI from ischemic ATN

A

FeNa

80
Q

Drug that may increase GFR in AKI

A

natriuretic peptide

81
Q

the KDOQI guidelines, what is the maximum duration for using an internal jugular (IJ) vein catheter to minimize the risk of infection

A

2 weeks

82
Q

action of Fenoldopam in the management of AKI

A

renal vasodilation’; selective dopamine agonist

83
Q

Decreased GFR in patients with DM nephropathy is due to

A

decrease in filtration sruface from mesangial expansion

84
Q

optimal renoprotective dose of Losartan in DM nephropathy

A

100 mg/day

85
Q

most appropriate treatment modality for asymptomatic bacteriuria in elderly patients without renal or urologic abnormalities

A

no treatment needed

86
Q

The rate of decrease in creatinine clearance in elderly patients is

A

0.8 ml/min/1.73 m2

87
Q

Hyponatremia in the elderly is due to

A

enhanced osmotic AVP release.

88
Q

Restriction of potassium intake should start when the estimated GFR is below

A

30 ml/min

89
Q

vitamin is contraindicated in Chronic Kidney Disease (CKD)

A

Vitamin E

90
Q

confirmatory test for the diagnosis of Acute Interstitial Nephritis

A

Hansel staining for eosinophils in the urine

91
Q

complication of chronic analgesic abuse

A

renal papillary necrosis

92
Q

Down-regulation of the Aquaporin 2 channels in the collecting tubules due to Lithium Toxicity leads to

A

Nephrogenic DI

93
Q

nephritogenic type of Group A Streptococci lead to nephritis after either a pharyngitis or pyoderma

A

M type 49

94
Q

the presence of adventitial and periadventitial fibrosis would be consistent with

A

radiation nephritis

95
Q

Renal medullary carcinoma associated with

A

sickle cell disease

96
Q

the most common cause of renal failure in patients with sickle cell disease

A

FSGS

97
Q

drug would directly damage the endothelium causing renal artery thrombosis

A

cocaine

98
Q

most common type of renal artery aneurysm, arising at bifurcation of renal artery

A

saccular renal artery aneurysm

99
Q

most common virus causing hemorrhagic cystitis in schoolchildren

A

adenovirus

100
Q

seen in malakoplakia and not in xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis

A

Michaelis Gutmann bodies

101
Q

Michaelis Guttman bodies are found in

A

Macrophages

102
Q

uremic toxin that inhibits nitric oxide

A

methylated arginines

103
Q

Vitamin D2 and D3 bind to vitamin D-binding protein and circulate to the liver where it is hydroxylated to:

A

25(OH)2D

104
Q

inhibits extraskeletal calcification

A

MGP

105
Q

induces vascular calcification

A

BMP2

106
Q

most frequent cause of inadequate response to recombinant human erythropoietin administration is

A

iron deficiency

107
Q

Erythropoietin exerts its greatest influence on which of the erythrocyte progenitor.

A

CFU-E

108
Q

Maximal fluid removal occurs during the first 8 to10 minutes of a PD dwell. This is due mostly to:

A

ultrapores

109
Q

major site of resistance to peritoneal transport is provided by the:

A

peritoneal endothelium and basement membrane

110
Q

contribution of a capillary to peritoneal transport depends on its proximity to the mesothelium.

A

distributive model for peritoneal transport

111
Q

Hypervascular peritoneal

membrane

A

Type 1 UF

112
Q

. Excess lymphatic absorption

A

Type 3 UF

113
Q

Reduced peritoneal surface area

A

Type 2 UF

114
Q

The most common type of bone disease found in PD patients is:

A

Adynamic bone disease

115
Q

Clearance of small molecular weight substances in HD

A

blood flow

116
Q

Clearance of small molecular weight substances in HD

A

membrane permeability

117
Q

dialyzer property determines the permeability of the membrane to high-molecular-weight substances and the degree of biocompatibility.

A

hydrophobic/hydrophilic properties of the membrane

118
Q

agent associated with hemolysis and Heinz-body hemolytic anemia.

A

choramines

119
Q

The anti-CD52 monoclonal antibody alemtuzumab may be associated with acute rejection at a time corresponding to the repopulation of his T cell repertoire at what time period

A

6 months

120
Q

anti-IL2R monoclonal antibody is targeted therapy against

A

activated cells

121
Q

immunosuppression is recommended because it reduces the risk for reactivation of HCV

A

cyclosporine

nephrology fellowship reviewer (29 decks)

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