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Misc. Notes Year 1 > Random Notes > Flashcards

Random Notes Flashcards

1
Q

2 main classes of gram positive cocci

A

Staphyloccocus and streptococcus

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2
Q

How are streptococci differentiated

A

Haemolysis

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3
Q

How are staphylococcus differentiated

A

Coagulase test

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4
Q

Commonest cause of pneumonia

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

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5
Q

Treatment for strep pneumoniae

A

Penicillin

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6
Q

2 main groups of alpha haemolytic streptococcus

A

Strep pneumoniae and Strep viridans

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7
Q

Common cause of endocarditis

A

Strep viridans

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8
Q

2 main groups of beta haemolytic streptococcus

A

Group A Strep and Group B strep

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9
Q

Most pathogenic strep

A

Group A strep (strep pyogenes)

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10
Q

Treatment for beta-haemolytic strep

A

Penicillin/amoxicillin

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11
Q

Examples of non-haemolytic strep

A

Enterococcus (faecalis and faecium)

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12
Q

Common cause of UTI’s

A

Enterococcus faecalis

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13
Q

Catalase positive cocci

A

Staphylococcus

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14
Q

Catalase negative cocci

A

Streptococcus

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15
Q

Coagulase positive organisms

A

Staph aureus

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16
Q

Coagulase negative organisms

A

All staph apart from staph aureus

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17
Q

Common cause of infected prosthetic heart valves and joints

A

Staph epidermidis (coagulase negative staph)

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18
Q

Treatment for coagulase negative staph

A

Vancomycin

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19
Q

Common cause of skin infections, abscesses, resp infections and food poisoning

A

Staph aureus

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20
Q

The most common cause of bacteraemia

A

Staph aureus

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21
Q

Treatment for staph aureus

A

Flucloxacillin

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22
Q

Treatment for MRSA

A

Co-trimoxazole and clindamycin

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23
Q

Gram negative cocci that causes bacterial meningitis

A

Neisseria meningitis

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24
Q

Gram negative cocci that causes gonorrhoea

A

Neisseria gonorrhoea

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25
Q

Gram negative cocci that look like E.coli when cultured

A

Coliforms

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26
Q

Common gut commensals

A

E.coli, klebsiella and enterococcus

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27
Q

Common gut pathogens

A

Verotoxin producing E.coli (E.coli 1057), shigella and salmonella

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28
Q

Treatment for coliform infection

A

Gentamycin

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29
Q

Examples of gram negative bacilli that are strict aerobes

A

Legionella (gram- bacilli)

pseudomonas (gram- bacilli)

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30
Q

Spiral/curved aerobic gram negative bacilli

A

Vibro cholera, campylobacter and H. pylori

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31
Q

Gram negative organism that commonly causes chest infections (esp in COPD)

A

Haemophilus influenza

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32
Q

Examples of strict anaerobes

A

Clostridium (gram+ bacilli)

Bacteroides (Gram- bacilli)

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33
Q

Gram positive organism that commonly causes C. diff

A

Clostridium

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34
Q

Treatment for strict aerobes

A

Metronidazole

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35
Q

Treatment for TB

A

Rifampicin, isonazide, pyrazinamide and ethambutol

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36
Q

Causative organism of TB

A

Mycobacteria

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37
Q

Causative organism of syphilis

A

Treponema pallidum

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38
Q

Cause of Lyme disease

A

Borrelia burgdorferi

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39
Q

Class of organisms that do not stain

A

Spirochaetes

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40
Q

Enzyme that is resistant to the early penicillins (like amoxicillin)

A

Beta-lactamase

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41
Q

Enzyme that is resistant to all penicillin and cephalosporins

A

Extended spectrum beta-lactamase

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42
Q

Enzyme that is resistant to all penicillin, cephalosporins and carbapenems

A

Carbapenemase

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43
Q

Staph aureus that is resistant to flucloxacillin

A

MRSA

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44
Q

Antibiotics that work on the cell wall

A

Penicillin, cephalosporins and glycopeptides

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45
Q

Penicillin that is used for gram positive organisms

A

Flucloxacillin

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46
Q

Penicillin that is used for gram positive and gram negative organisms

A

Amoxicillin, co-amoxiclav, tazocin

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47
Q

Penicillin that is used for gram negative organisms

A

Temocillin

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48
Q

Used first line for staph aureus

A

Flucloxacillin

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49
Q

Basically treats everything apart from pseudomonas and MRSA

A

Co-amoxiclav

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50
Q

Reserved for intensive care but can basically treat everything apart from MRSA

A

Tazocin

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51
Q

Only active against coliforms (gram negative organisms)

A

Temocillin

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52
Q

Broad spectrum antibiotics that are avoided in hospitals as they can cause C. diff

A

Cephalosporins

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53
Q

Examples of glycopeptides

A

Vancomycin and teicoplanin

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54
Q

What type of bacteria are glycopeptides active against

A

Gram positive bacteria (e.g. staph, strep, clostridium and MRSA)

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55
Q

Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis

A

Macrolides, tetracyclines and aminoglycosides

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56
Q

The only group of protein synthesis inhibiting antibiotics which are bacteriocidal

A

Aminoglycosides

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57
Q

Examples of macrolides

A

Erythromycin, clarithromycin and azithromycin

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58
Q

How are macrolides excreted

A

By the liver NOT the urine

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59
Q

Example of an aminoglycoside

A

Gentamicin

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60
Q

How must gentamicin be given

A

IV

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61
Q

Side effects of gentamycin

A

Kidney/renal damage, damage to CN VII causing deafness and dizziness

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62
Q

Antibiotics that work on bacterial DNA

A

Metronidazole, trimethoprim and fluoroquinolones

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63
Q

Used to treat true anaerobic infections

A

Metronidazole

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64
Q

Used for pneumocystis jirovecii

A

Co-trimoxazole

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65
Q

Examples of fluoroquinolones. Note these are severely restricted in Tayside due to risk of C. diff

A

Ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin

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66
Q

Can cause tendonitis

A

Ciprofloxacin

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67
Q

Interacts with alcohol

A

Metronidazole

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68
Q

Antibiotics to avoid (the 4 C’s)

A

Ciprofloxacin, co-amoxiclav, cephalosporins and clindamycin

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69
Q

Treatment for mild/moderate CAP

A

IV/PO Amoxicillin (PO doxycycline if allergic)

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70
Q

Treatment for severe CAP

A

IV Co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin OR doxycycline PO

IV levofloxacin if allergic

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71
Q

Treatment for non-severe HAP

A

PO Amoxycillin and metronidazole

If penicillin allergic PO Co-trimoxazole + Metronidazole

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72
Q

Treatment for severe HAP

A

IV Amoxicillin + Metronidazole + Gentamicin

If penicillin allergic: IV Co-trimoxazole + Metronidazole +/- Gentamicin

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73
Q

Specific treatment for Pneumococcal Pneumonia

A

Amoxicillin, Benzylpenicllin or cephalosporin

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74
Q

Specific treatment for Staphylococcal Pneumonia

A

Flucloxicillin

If MRSA suspected add vancomycin

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75
Q

Specific treatment for Klebsiella Pneumonia

A

Cefotaxime or Imipenem

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76
Q

Specific treatment for Pseudomonas Pneumonia

A

Anti-pseudomonal penicillin, cerftazidime, meropenum, or ciprofloxacin + aminoglycoside

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77
Q

Specific treatment for Mycoplasma Pneumonia

A

Clarithromycin or Tetracycline or Fluroquinolone (e.g. ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin)

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78
Q

Specific treatment for Legionella Pneumonia

A

Clarithromycin + rifampicin OR

Fluoroquinolone (e.g. cirporfloxin) for 2-3 weeks

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79
Q

Specific treatment for Chlamydophilia Pneumonia

A

Tetracycline or Clarithromycin

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80
Q

Specific treatment for Chlamydophilia Psittaci Pneumonia

A

Tetracycline or Clarithromycin

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81
Q

Specific treatment for Viral Pneumonia

A

Ciprofloxacin and Co-Amoxiclav.

Prophylactically oseltamivir is given

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82
Q

Specific treatment for Pneumocystis Pneumonia (PCP)

A

High dose co-trimoxazole or pentamidine.

Steroids are beneficial if severe hypoxaemia. Prophylaxis often used.

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83
Q

Treatment for Native valve (Subacute) Endocarditis (enterococcus)

A

IV Amoxicillin + Gentamicin, b.d.

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84
Q

Treatment for Native valve severe sepsis (Acute) Endocarditis (staph aureus)

A

IV Flucloxacillin

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85
Q

Treatment for Prosthetic valve or Suspected MRSA Endocarditis (staph epidermidis)

A

Vancomycin IV + Rifampicin PO b.d. + Gentamicin IV

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86
Q

Native valve severe sepsis + risk factors for resistant pathogens Endocarditis

A

Vancomycin IV + Meropenem IV

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87
Q

Explain CURB 65 Score

A 
Confusion
Urea >7 mmol/L
Resp. Rate ≥ 30/min
Bp <90mmHg (systolic) or ≤60mmHg (diastolic) 
65 Age ≥65
1 point for each criteria
0-2 = Mild/Moderate CAP
3-5 = Severe CAP
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88
Q

Mechanism of Penicillins, Glycopeptides and Cephalosporins

A

Inhibit cell wall formation

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89
Q

Mechanism of Macrolides (e.g. erythromycin), Aminoglycosides and Tetracyclines

A

Inhibit protein synthesis

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90
Q

Mechanism of Quinolones (e.g. ciprofloxacin), Trimethoprim and Metronidazole

A

Inhibit DNA synthesis

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91
Q

Mechanism of Rifampicin

A

Inhibit RNA synthesis

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92
Q

Gram+ organisms stain…

A

Purple

Stain well due to thick peptidoglycan layer

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93
Q

Gram- organisms stain…

A

Pink

Thinner peptidoglycan layer doesn’t retain stain well

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94
Q

Endotoxin is produced by…

A

Gram-

Part of cell wall

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95
Q

Exotoxin is produced by…

A

Gram+

Exported from cell

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96
Q

Gram+ cocci in chains are?

A

Strep

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97
Q

Gram+ cocci in clusters are?

A

Staph

98
Q

The 5 methods of spread of infection are…

A

Inhalation, Ingestion, Inoculation, mother to Infant, Intercourse

99
Q

Viruses contain RNA or DNA, never both. True/False?

A

True

Size of their capsid (protein coat) limits space

100
Q

Bactericidal antibiotics inhibit cell growth. True/False?

A

False

Kill bacteria directly - bacteriostatic inhibits cell growth

101
Q

Vancomycin is part of which family of antibiotics?

A

Glycopeptides

102
Q

Penicillins are bactericidal/bacteriostatic, safe/not safe in pregnancy, excreted via kidneys/urine/liver

A

Bactericidal, safe in pregnancy, kidneys

103
Q

Cephalosporins are bactericidal/bacteriostatic, safe/not safe in pregnancy, excreted via kidneys/urine/liver

A

Bactericidal, safe in pregnancy, kidneys + urine

104
Q

Macrolides are bactericidal/bacteriostatic, safe/not safe in pregnancy, excreted via kidneys/urine/liver

A

Bacteriostatic, erythromycin safe in pregnancy, liver

105
Q

Gentamicin [aminoglycoside] is bactericidal/bacteriostatic, safe/not safe in pregnancy, excreted via kidneys/urine/liver

A

Both bacteriostatic + bactericidal, not safe in pregnancy, urine

106
Q

Metronidazole is bactericidal/bacteriostatic, safe/not safe in pregnancy, treats aerobes/anaerobes

A

Bactericidal, safe in pregnancy, anaerobes (Clostridium and Bacteroides)

107
Q

Treatment of non-severe C.Difficile

A

Metronidazole PO 10days

108
Q

Treatment of severe C.Difficile

A

Vancomycin PO/NG (10 days)

+/- IV Metronidazole

109
Q

What is the main treatment for CF?

A

if Staph. aureus - flucloxacillin (PO) and septrin (PO)
if pseudomonas - azithromycin (PO), nebuliser colomycin and nebuliser tobramycin
Creon for pancreas
laxido/ gastrogaffin if constipation

110
Q

What is the very expensive treatment for CF patients with a G55ID mutation?

A

Ivacaftor

111
Q

What is the side effect of Ivacaftor?

A

Can’t eat grapefruit

112
Q

What is the treatment for the flu?

A

oseltamivir/zanamivir

113
Q

What vaccine for the flu is given to which group of people (live/killed)?

A

Killed - adults that need it (e.g. health care workers and elderly/ asthmatics
Live - for children aged 2-5 and NOW all primary school children are offered

114
Q

What treatment is given to those with CAP caused by an atypical bacteria?

A

Tetracycline and Macrolides

115
Q

What drugs do you NOT give to people with bronchiolitis?

A

salbutamol, adrenaline, antibiotics, ipratropium, corticosteroids, montelukast or saline

116
Q

What treatment do you give to those with bronchiolitis?

A

O2 (if below 92%), consider CPAP

117
Q

What is the treatment for epiglottis?

A

ceftriaxone

118
Q

What treatment should be given to those having an exacerbation of COPD?

A

amoxicillin 500mg (5 days), doxycycline if allergic to penicillin 200mg

119
Q

What is the treatment for whooping cough?

A

less than a month - clarythromycin
more than a month - clarythromycin and azithromycin
if pregnant - erythromycin

120
Q

What treatment should be given to those with Legionnaires disease?

A

clarythromycin, erythromycin and quinolones (levofloxacin)

121
Q

What is the treatment for aspergilloma?

A

Amphoteric B, Voriconazole and surgery

122
Q

What is the treatment for TB?

A

Two months of Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide and ethambutol
A further 4 months of rifampicin and isoniazid
“ 2RIPE 4RI”

123
Q

What are the side effects of the treatments for TB?

A

rifampicin - orange tears n urine
isoniazid - peripheral neuropathy
pyrazinamide - joint pain, gout
ethambutol - optic neuritis

124
Q

What is the initial treatment for those diagnosed with asthma?

A

SABA (IH) PRN

125
Q

If the initial treatment for asthma isn’t working, what the treatment can be given?

A

ICS - beclometasone
LABA - only used in combination with ICS - salmeterol
CystLT receptor antagonist - montelukast
cromone - sodium cromoglicate
xanthine - used in combination with SABA/LABA and ICS - theophylline

126
Q

What is ivabradine?

A

A selective HCN channel blocker that slows HR in angina

127
Q

What do catecholamines do?

A

B adrenoreceptor agonists - Increase HR and force

Can cause disturbances in cardiac rhythm - dobutamine, adrenaline and noradrenaline

128
Q

When is dobutamine used as a treatment?

A

During acute but possibly reversible heart failure

129
Q

What do B-blockers do?

A

Propanolol, atenolol, bisoprolol - reduce HR and force - can cause bradycardia or bronchospasms( yeh even cardio selective ones according to passtest)

130
Q

When are B-blockers used?

A

to decrease tachycardia, AF, treat angina, heart failure and hypertension

131
Q

What patients do you avoid giving B-blockers to if possible?

A

asthmatics (causes bronchospasm)

diabetics (masks a hypo)

132
Q

What are the side effects of B-blockers?

A 
bronchospasm 
bradycardia (heart block in those with coronary disease)
masks a hypo
fatigue 
cold extremities
133
Q

What is atropine?

A

Muscarinic receptor antagonist - increases HR

134
Q

Why is atropine used clinically?

A

For patients with SEVERE bradycardia

135
Q

What should you be careful of when using atropine?

A

Always give in 600mg or more doses because if given in lower doses, can cause more bradycardia (lol how unlucky could you get)

136
Q

What is digoxin used for?

A

Heart failure

137
Q

What are the side effects of digoxin?

A

Can cause tachycardia, an ectopic beat, hypokalemia, heart block, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, disturbances of colour vision, tender breasts
Basically, it’s a riot

138
Q

What is levosimendan?

A

A calcium- sensitiser - causes vasodilation

139
Q

When are diuretics used?

A 
Hypertension (mild - thiazide) 
Heart failure (strong - Loop)
140
Q

Loop diuretics side effects include

A

HYPO - everything basically

141
Q

What is an example of a non selective b blocker and what is it used for?

A

propanolol

thyrotoxicosis

142
Q

What are alpha blockers used for?

A

hypertension

prostatic hypertrophy

143
Q

When are anti platelets used?

A

angina
acute MI
CVA/TIA

144
Q

What is an example of an antiplatelet?

A

aspirin

clopidogrel

145
Q

What are the side effects of anti platelets?

A

haemorrhage
peptic ulcer
aspirin sensitivity

146
Q

What are examples of anticoagulants?

A 
Heparin IV
Warfarin IV (blocks clotting factors 2,7,9,10)
147
Q

What is the treatment for an acute MI?

A 
MONAC
moprhine = anti emetic 
oxygen 
nitrates (GTN)
aspirin 
clopidogrel
148
Q

When should PCI be given?

A

within 90mins of contact

149
Q

What is used for an acute phase SVT?

A

vagal manoeuvres
IV adenosine
IV verapamil

150
Q

What drug can control rhythm in AF?

A

K+ channel blockers

amiodarone, soltalol

151
Q

What is the treatment for post MI?

A 
SABA (+C)
statin (simvastatin)
ACEI/ARB (lisinopril/losasartan)
B blocker (atenolol)
Aspirin(+ Clopidogrel for 4 weeks)
152
Q

What drug can control AF rate?

A

b blocker - NOT sotalol
Rate limiting channel blockers - verapamil, diltiazem
digoxin for those that don’t got off their arse

153
Q

What is the treatment for chronic SVT?

A

B blockers
Calcium channel antagonist
Ablation

154
Q

What is the treatment of sinus bradycardia?

A

Atropine

Pacing if haemodynamic compromise

155
Q

What is the treatment pathway for angina?

A
  1. B blocker/ calcium channel blocker
  2. Can add long acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil

then ACEI
statins

156
Q

What is the treatment for VF or pulseless VT?

A

Shock that bastard

157
Q

What is the treatment for Ventricular fibrillation?

A

CRP
Defib
after 3rd shock - IV adrenaline
-IV amiodarone

158
Q

What is the treatment of Ventricular tachycardia?

A 
DCCV
catheterisation
electrolyte correction 
amiodarone 
lidocaine

B blockers are initial therapy

159
Q

What are the side effects of calcium channel blocker?

A 
hypotension
dizziness 
flushing
ankle oedema
constipation
heart block
160
Q

What are the side effects of heparin?

A

osteoporosis
haemorrhage
hypoaldosteronism

161
Q

What do aldosterone antagonists do and give an example?

A

gets rid of excess water and Na retention (RAAS inhibitor), increases potassium levels, lowers high BP, treats heart failure
- spironolactone

162
Q

What are side effects of spironolactone?

A

gynecomastia (lol)

hyperkalaemia

163
Q

What does ezetimibe do?

A

reduces the absorption of cholesterol to decrease LDL

164
Q

Who can ezetimibe not be given to?

A

breast feeding females (females who are breast feeding their kids not ones who are feeding off breasts)

165
Q

Name the 4 classes of Anti-Hypertensive drugs

A

Diuretics, Beta-blockers, Ca2+ Channel Antagonists and Vasodilators

166
Q

Name the two types of Diuretics and their relative strength

A

Thiazide mild

Loop strong

167
Q

Name the two types of Beta Blockers and the difference between them

A

Cardioselective - Only block B1 receptors

Non -selective - Block B1 and B2 receptors

168
Q

Name the 3 types of Vasodilators

A

Alpha-Blockers a1 adrenoreceptor antagonists
ACE inhibitors
Angiotensin receptor blockers

169
Q

Give an example of a Thiazide diuretic

A

Bendrofluazide

170
Q

Give an example of a Loop diuretic

A

Furosemide

171
Q

Give an example of a Cardioselective beta blocker

A

Atenolol

172
Q

Give an example of a Non-selective beta blocker

A

propanolol

173
Q

Give an example of a Dihydropyridine Ca2+ Channel antagonist

A

Amlodipine

174
Q

Give examples of Rate limiting calcium antagonists (Ca2+ channel antagonists)

A

Verapamil

Diltiazem

175
Q

Give examples of Alpha Blocker vasodilators

A

Prazosin

Doxazosin

176
Q

Give an example of an ACE inhibitor vasodilator

A

Ramipril

177
Q

Give an example of an Angiotensin receptor blocker vasodilator

A

Losartan

178
Q

Name the monoclonal antibody against IgE?

A

olamizumab (yeh that weird one that you can’t pronounce)

179
Q

What is the monoclonal antibody against IL-5?

A

mepolizumab

180
Q

What treatment is used for those who present with an acute asthma attack?

A 
O2 (high flow)
Salbutamol nebulised
Hydrocortisol (or prednisolone) 
Ipratropium 
Magnesium sulphate 
Theophylline 
Anaesthetist
181
Q

What is the treatment for those suffering an acute exacerbation of COPD?

A 
ISOAP
Ipratropium
Salbutamol
Oxygen (Venturi mask blue or white)
Amoxicillin
Prednisolone
182
Q

What is the recommended treatment for COPD?

A

A LABA/LAMA combination inhaler

and stop smoking so you dont die as soon

183
Q

What is an example of an Ultra - LABA?

A

Indacaterol (cos it’s shorter acting than salmeterol)

184
Q

What other drugs can be used in the treatment for COPD?

A

Rofumilast - PDE4 inhibitor

185
Q

What is the main drug given to those diagnosed with rhinitis?

A

Glucocorticoids - beclometasone, prednisolone

186
Q

What other treatments can be given to those with rhinitis?

A

Anti-histamines - Loratadine, Fexofenadine, Cetirizine
SAMA - Ipratropium
Cromones - sodium cromoglicate
CystLT - montelukast
Vasoconstrictors - oxymetazoline
(if ur keen, take a look at rebecca’s Resp cards she loves rhinitis)

187
Q

Mechanism of diuretics

A

Promote Na+ and water excretion from the kidneys by inhibiting reabsorption in the loop of Henle or distal tubule

188
Q

What is the mechanism of cardioselective beta blockers

A

Only block β1 receptors – β1 adrenoceptors stimulate Gs - ↑ cAMP, ↑PKa - ↑CICR VIA RyR2, ↑Contractility

189
Q

What is the mechanism of non-selective beta blockers

A

Block β1 & β2 receptors – β2 adrenoceptors cause vasodilation of the coronary arteries and ↑ HR

190
Q

What is the mechanism of Alpha Blocker vasodilators

A

Block vascular α1-adrenoceptors - ↓ TPR and MABP

191
Q

What is the mechanism of Ace inhibitors

A

Block the conversion of angiotensin I – angiotensin II

192
Q

What is the mechanism of Angiotensin Receptor Blockers

A

AT1 receptor antagonist – competitively blocks the agonist action of angiotensin II at AT1 receptors – Venous dilatation (↓ preload) and arteriolar dilatation (↓ afterload and ↓TPR), ↓ MABP

193
Q

Name the 4 types of Anti- Anginal drugs

A

Beta Blockers Ca2+ Channel Antagonists Nitrates Potassium channel openers

194
Q

Give 2 examples of Nitrates

A

Glyceryl trinitrate Spray (GTN Spray) Isosorbide mononitrate

195
Q

Give 2 examples of Potassium channel openers

A

Nicorandil Ivabradine

196
Q

What is the mechanism of Nitrates

A

Relax all types of smooth muscle, via their metabolism to nitric oxide. Small doses – vasorelaxation - ↓ CVP (preload) reduces SV Higher doses - ↓ MAP - ↓ afterload ↑ Coronary blood flow. In angina, there is no overall increase, but blood is directed towards the ischaemic zone – collateral arterioles dilated&raquo_space; ↓myocardial O₂ req., ↓ afterload, ↑Ischaemic perfusion

197
Q

What is the mechanism of Potassium channel openers

A

↓ The Ca2+ sensitivity of smooth muscle, Activates sarcolemma Ca2+ pump and promotes K+ efflux, causing hyperpolarization → relaxation of the smooth muscle and coronary vasodilation

198
Q

How you doing?

A

Good shift for making it this far, just checking up on you, click the wee blue comment symbol and lemme know how ur feeling

199
Q

What conditions can Potassium channel blockers be used for

A

Nicorandil - Stable Angina Ivabradine - Chronic Heart Failure, Angina Pectoralis

200
Q

What are the side effects of nitrates

A

Repeated Administration may be associated with diminished tolerance. Build in ‘nitrate low’ periods. Postural hypotension Headaches leave 8hrs of the day nitrate free

201
Q

What are the side effects of Potassium channel openers

A

Hypovolaemia – low systolic BP Palpitations, Weakness

202
Q

Name 4 types of Anti-Cholesterol Drugs

A

Statins
Fibrates
Bile acid Binding Resins
Ezetimibe

203
Q

Name 2 statins

A

Simvastatin

Atorvastatin

204
Q

Name 2 fibrates

A

Bezafibrate

Gemfibrozil

205
Q

Name 3 Bile acid Binding Resins

A

Colestyramine
Colestipol
Colesevelam

206
Q

Name an Ezetimibe

A

Ezetimibe (just making sure ur paying attention and not just boosting ur flashcard number)

207
Q

What is the mechanism of statins

A

Block HMG-CoA reductase (competitive inhibitors) – Reduction of LDL production in Liver
Surface expression of the LDL receptors increases → increased clearance of LDL in the liver.
↓ inflammation, reversal of endothelial dysfunction, ↓ thrombosis, stabilisation of atherosclerotic plaques

208
Q

What is the mechanism of fibrates

A

↓ triglyceride levels, and slight ↓ LDL & HDL by ↓ liver’s production of the particle carrying them in blood, and by ↑ rate of triglyceride removal
↑ Transcription of gene encoding LPL.

209
Q

What conditions are statins used for

A 
Hypercholesterolaemia
Diabetes
Angina/MI
CVA/TIA
High risk of MA &amp; CVA
210
Q

What conditions are fibrates used for

A

Low HDL cholesterol

Hypertriglyceridaemia – first line treatment

211
Q

What are the side effects of statins

A

Myopathy
Rhabdomyolysis
sreenal failure lol
Should not be prescribed to pregnant → cholesterol needed for foetus development

212
Q

What are the side effects of fibrates

A

May cause myositis – advised combining with statins.

213
Q

When can statins not be used

A

Ineffective in Homozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia, where LDL receptors are lacking

214
Q

What is the mechanism of bile acid binding resins

A

Cause the excretion of bile salts resulting in more cholesterol to be converted to bile salts by interrupting enterohepatic recycling
↓ absorption pf triglycerides, ↑ LDL receptor expression

215
Q

What are the side effects of bile acid binding resins

A

G.I. tract irritation

216
Q

Name the 4 types of Anti-Arrhythmic drugs

A

Class I Class II Class III Class IV

you’ve nailed it, ur basically a doctor now

217
Q

Name the 3 types of Class I Anti-Arrhythmic drugs

A

IA IB IC

congrats ur now a consultant

218
Q

Give an example of a Class IA drug

A

Disopyramide

219
Q

Give an example of a Class IB drug

A

Lignocaine

220
Q

Give an example of a Class IC drug

A

Flecainide

221
Q

Give an example of a Class II drug

A

Metoprolol

222
Q

Give an example of a Class III drug

A

Amiodarone

223
Q

Give an example of a Class IV drug

A

Verapamil

224
Q

How to remember mechanisms of the 4 classes of anti arrhythmic drugs

A

Seumy Barker Pulls Cammy
Sodium, Beta, Potassium, Calcium
1, 2, 3, 4

225
Q

What are the side effects of Anti-Arrhythmic drugs

A

Phototoxicity

Pulmonary Fibrosis

Thyroid abnormalities

226
Q

Name 3 types of inotropic drugs

A

Digoxin
Calcium sensitizers
Beta-Adrenoceptor agonists

227
Q

Name the 2 types of Digoxin

A

Digoxin I
Digoxin II
mate, ur basically a surgeon now

228
Q

Name 2 Beta-Adrenoceptors

A

Adrenaline

Dobutamine - IV

229
Q

What is the mechanism of Digoxin I

A

Blocks atrial-ventricular conduction – produces an AV conduction delay. Blocks the Sarcolemma ATPase - Na+/K+ATPase blocked, ↑[Na]I and ↓Vm, ↓Na+/Ca2+ exchange and ↑[Ca2+]I, ↑ storage of Ca2+ in SR, ↑CICR; ↑contractility (Increases contractility of the heart)

230
Q

What is the mechanism of Digoxin II

A

Increases ventricular irritability which produces ventricular arrhythmias – always bad, narrow therapeutic index BAD BAD BAD BAD

231
Q

How can you tell if an antacid will have a constipating effect or a laxative effect?

A

Those containing aluminium are constipating

Those containing magnesium are laxative

232
Q

Give 2 examples of antispasmodics

A

hyoscine, mebeverine

233
Q

What disease are antispasmodics useful in

A

Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)

234
Q

How do you eradicate H.pylori infections

A

omeprazole plus amoxicillin plus clarithromycin

can give metronidazole instead of amoxicillin if allergic to penicillins

235
Q

What drugs can be given to reduce stomach acid

A

H2 receptor antagonists (ranitidine) or Proton pump inhibitors (omeprazole or anything else ending ‘azole’)

236
Q

What drugs protect the mucosa from stomach acid

A

Sucralfate protects the mucosa from acid

Misoprostol- prostaglandin analogue

237
Q

When would you give PPI’s IV

A

For peptic ulcer bleeding

238
Q

What class of. drugs are useful in UC but not in Crohn’s

A

5-ASAs (sulfasalazine, mesalazine)

239
Q

Name 2 antimotility drugs useful for diarrhoea

A

Loperamide and codeine

240
Q

Name the 4 types of laxative drugs and examples

A

Bulk forming (methylcellulose)
Stimulant (bisacodyl, senna)
Faecal softeners (docusate sodium)
Osmotic (macrogols, lactulose)

Misc. Notes Year 1 (13 decks)

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