Random Notes Flashcards
1
Q
2 main classes of gram positive cocci
A
Staphyloccocus and streptococcus
2
Q
How are streptococci differentiated
A
Haemolysis
3
Q
How are staphylococcus differentiated
A
Coagulase test
4
Q
Commonest cause of pneumonia
A
Streptococcus pneumoniae
5
Q
Treatment for strep pneumoniae
A
Penicillin
6
Q
2 main groups of alpha haemolytic streptococcus
A
Strep pneumoniae and Strep viridans
7
Q
Common cause of endocarditis
A
Strep viridans
8
Q
2 main groups of beta haemolytic streptococcus
A
Group A Strep and Group B strep
9
Q
Most pathogenic strep
A
Group A strep (strep pyogenes)
10
Q
Treatment for beta-haemolytic strep
A
Penicillin/amoxicillin
11
Q
Examples of non-haemolytic strep
A
Enterococcus (faecalis and faecium)
12
Q
Common cause of UTI’s
A
Enterococcus faecalis
13
Q
Catalase positive cocci
A
Staphylococcus
14
Q
Catalase negative cocci
A
Streptococcus
15
Q
Coagulase positive organisms
A
Staph aureus
16
Q
Coagulase negative organisms
A
All staph apart from staph aureus
17
Q
Common cause of infected prosthetic heart valves and joints
A
Staph epidermidis (coagulase negative staph)
18
Q
Treatment for coagulase negative staph
A
Vancomycin
19
Q
Common cause of skin infections, abscesses, resp infections and food poisoning
A
Staph aureus
20
Q
The most common cause of bacteraemia
A
Staph aureus
21
Q
Treatment for staph aureus
A
Flucloxacillin
22
Q
Treatment for MRSA
A
Co-trimoxazole and clindamycin
23
Q
Gram negative cocci that causes bacterial meningitis
A
Neisseria meningitis
24
Q
Gram negative cocci that causes gonorrhoea
A
Neisseria gonorrhoea
25
Gram negative cocci that look like E.coli when cultured
Coliforms
26
Common gut commensals
E.coli, klebsiella and enterococcus
27
Common gut pathogens
Verotoxin producing E.coli (E.coli 1057), shigella and salmonella
28
Treatment for coliform infection
Gentamycin
29
Examples of gram negative bacilli that are strict aerobes
Legionella (gram- bacilli)
| pseudomonas (gram- bacilli)
30
Spiral/curved aerobic gram negative bacilli
Vibro cholera, campylobacter and H. pylori
31
Gram negative organism that commonly causes chest infections (esp in COPD)
Haemophilus influenza
32
Examples of strict anaerobes
Clostridium (gram+ bacilli)
| Bacteroides (Gram- bacilli)
33
Gram positive organism that commonly causes C. diff
Clostridium
34
Treatment for strict aerobes
Metronidazole
35
Treatment for TB
Rifampicin, isonazide, pyrazinamide and ethambutol
36
Causative organism of TB
Mycobacteria
37
Causative organism of syphilis
Treponema pallidum
38
Cause of Lyme disease
Borrelia burgdorferi
39
Class of organisms that do not stain
Spirochaetes
40
Enzyme that is resistant to the early penicillins (like amoxicillin)
Beta-lactamase
41
Enzyme that is resistant to all penicillin and cephalosporins
Extended spectrum beta-lactamase
42
Enzyme that is resistant to all penicillin, cephalosporins and carbapenems
Carbapenemase
43
Staph aureus that is resistant to flucloxacillin
MRSA
44
Antibiotics that work on the cell wall
Penicillin, cephalosporins and glycopeptides
45
Penicillin that is used for gram positive organisms
Flucloxacillin
46
Penicillin that is used for gram positive and gram negative organisms
Amoxicillin, co-amoxiclav, tazocin
47
Penicillin that is used for gram negative organisms
Temocillin
48
Used first line for staph aureus
Flucloxacillin
49
Basically treats everything apart from pseudomonas and MRSA
Co-amoxiclav
50
Reserved for intensive care but can basically treat everything apart from MRSA
Tazocin
51
Only active against coliforms (gram negative organisms)
Temocillin
52
Broad spectrum antibiotics that are avoided in hospitals as they can cause C. diff
Cephalosporins
53
Examples of glycopeptides
Vancomycin and teicoplanin
54
What type of bacteria are glycopeptides active against
Gram positive bacteria (e.g. staph, strep, clostridium and MRSA)
55
Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis
Macrolides, tetracyclines and aminoglycosides
56
The only group of protein synthesis inhibiting antibiotics which are bacteriocidal
Aminoglycosides
57
Examples of macrolides
Erythromycin, clarithromycin and azithromycin
58
How are macrolides excreted
By the liver NOT the urine
59
Example of an aminoglycoside
Gentamicin
60
How must gentamicin be given
IV
61
Side effects of gentamycin
Kidney/renal damage, damage to CN VII causing deafness and dizziness
62
Antibiotics that work on bacterial DNA
Metronidazole, trimethoprim and fluoroquinolones
63
Used to treat true anaerobic infections
Metronidazole
64
Used for pneumocystis jirovecii
Co-trimoxazole
65
Examples of fluoroquinolones. Note these are severely restricted in Tayside due to risk of C. diff
Ciprofloxacin and levofloxacin
66
Can cause tendonitis
Ciprofloxacin
67
Interacts with alcohol
Metronidazole
68
Antibiotics to avoid (the 4 C's)
Ciprofloxacin, co-amoxiclav, cephalosporins and clindamycin
69
Treatment for mild/moderate CAP
IV/PO Amoxicillin (PO doxycycline if allergic)
70
Treatment for severe CAP
IV Co-amoxiclav + clarithromycin OR doxycycline PO
| IV levofloxacin if allergic
71
Treatment for non-severe HAP
PO Amoxycillin and metronidazole
| If penicillin allergic PO Co-trimoxazole + Metronidazole
72
Treatment for severe HAP
IV Amoxicillin + Metronidazole + Gentamicin
| If penicillin allergic: IV Co-trimoxazole + Metronidazole +/- Gentamicin
73
Specific treatment for Pneumococcal Pneumonia
Amoxicillin, Benzylpenicllin or cephalosporin
74
Specific treatment for Staphylococcal Pneumonia
Flucloxicillin
| If MRSA suspected add vancomycin
75
Specific treatment for Klebsiella Pneumonia
Cefotaxime or Imipenem
76
Specific treatment for Pseudomonas Pneumonia
Anti-pseudomonal penicillin, cerftazidime, meropenum, or ciprofloxacin + aminoglycoside
77
Specific treatment for Mycoplasma Pneumonia
Clarithromycin or Tetracycline or Fluroquinolone (e.g. ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin)
78
Specific treatment for Legionella Pneumonia
Clarithromycin + rifampicin OR
| Fluoroquinolone (e.g. cirporfloxin) for 2-3 weeks
79
Specific treatment for Chlamydophilia Pneumonia
Tetracycline or Clarithromycin
80
Specific treatment for Chlamydophilia Psittaci Pneumonia
Tetracycline or Clarithromycin
81
Specific treatment for Viral Pneumonia
Ciprofloxacin and Co-Amoxiclav.
| Prophylactically oseltamivir is given
82
Specific treatment for Pneumocystis Pneumonia (PCP)
High dose co-trimoxazole or pentamidine.
| Steroids are beneficial if severe hypoxaemia. Prophylaxis often used.
83
Treatment for Native valve (Subacute) Endocarditis (enterococcus)
IV Amoxicillin + Gentamicin, b.d.
84
Treatment for Native valve severe sepsis (Acute) Endocarditis (staph aureus)
IV Flucloxacillin
85
Treatment for Prosthetic valve or Suspected MRSA Endocarditis (staph epidermidis)
Vancomycin IV + Rifampicin PO b.d. + Gentamicin IV
86
Native valve severe sepsis + risk factors for resistant pathogens Endocarditis
Vancomycin IV + Meropenem IV
87
Explain CURB 65 Score
```
Confusion
Urea >7 mmol/L
Resp. Rate ≥ 30/min
Bp <90mmHg (systolic) or ≤60mmHg (diastolic)
65 Age ≥65
1 point for each criteria
0-2 = Mild/Moderate CAP
3-5 = Severe CAP
```
88
Mechanism of Penicillins, Glycopeptides and Cephalosporins
Inhibit cell wall formation
89
Mechanism of Macrolides (e.g. erythromycin), Aminoglycosides and Tetracyclines
Inhibit protein synthesis
90
Mechanism of Quinolones (e.g. ciprofloxacin), Trimethoprim and Metronidazole
Inhibit DNA synthesis
91
Mechanism of Rifampicin
Inhibit RNA synthesis
92
Gram+ organisms stain...
Purple
| Stain well due to thick peptidoglycan layer
93
Gram- organisms stain...
Pink
| Thinner peptidoglycan layer doesn't retain stain well
94
Endotoxin is produced by...
Gram-
| Part of cell wall
95
Exotoxin is produced by...
Gram+
| Exported from cell
96
Gram+ cocci in chains are?
Strep
97
Gram+ cocci in clusters are?
Staph
98
The 5 methods of spread of infection are...
Inhalation, Ingestion, Inoculation, mother to Infant, Intercourse
99
Viruses contain RNA or DNA, never both. True/False?
True
| Size of their capsid (protein coat) limits space
100
Bactericidal antibiotics inhibit cell growth. True/False?
False
| Kill bacteria directly - bacteriostatic inhibits cell growth
101
Vancomycin is part of which family of antibiotics?
Glycopeptides
102
Penicillins are bactericidal/bacteriostatic, safe/not safe in pregnancy, excreted via kidneys/urine/liver
Bactericidal, safe in pregnancy, kidneys
103
Cephalosporins are bactericidal/bacteriostatic, safe/not safe in pregnancy, excreted via kidneys/urine/liver
Bactericidal, safe in pregnancy, kidneys + urine
104
Macrolides are bactericidal/bacteriostatic, safe/not safe in pregnancy, excreted via kidneys/urine/liver
Bacteriostatic, erythromycin safe in pregnancy, liver
105
Gentamicin [aminoglycoside] is bactericidal/bacteriostatic, safe/not safe in pregnancy, excreted via kidneys/urine/liver
Both bacteriostatic + bactericidal, not safe in pregnancy, urine
106
Metronidazole is bactericidal/bacteriostatic, safe/not safe in pregnancy, treats aerobes/anaerobes
Bactericidal, safe in pregnancy, anaerobes (Clostridium and Bacteroides)
107
Treatment of non-severe C.Difficile
Metronidazole PO 10days
108
Treatment of severe C.Difficile
Vancomycin PO/NG (10 days)
| +/- IV Metronidazole
109
What is the main treatment for CF?
if Staph. aureus - flucloxacillin (PO) and septrin (PO)
if pseudomonas - azithromycin (PO), nebuliser colomycin and nebuliser tobramycin
Creon for pancreas
laxido/ gastrogaffin if constipation
110
What is the very expensive treatment for CF patients with a G55ID mutation?
Ivacaftor
111
What is the side effect of Ivacaftor?
Can't eat grapefruit
112
What is the treatment for the flu?
oseltamivir/zanamivir
113
What vaccine for the flu is given to which group of people (live/killed)?
Killed - adults that need it (e.g. health care workers and elderly/ asthmatics
Live - for children aged 2-5 and NOW all primary school children are offered
114
What treatment is given to those with CAP caused by an atypical bacteria?
Tetracycline and Macrolides
115
What drugs do you NOT give to people with bronchiolitis?
salbutamol, adrenaline, antibiotics, ipratropium, corticosteroids, montelukast or saline
116
What treatment do you give to those with bronchiolitis?
O2 (if below 92%), consider CPAP
117
What is the treatment for epiglottis?
ceftriaxone
118
What treatment should be given to those having an exacerbation of COPD?
amoxicillin 500mg (5 days), doxycycline if allergic to penicillin 200mg
119
What is the treatment for whooping cough?
less than a month - clarythromycin
more than a month - clarythromycin and azithromycin
if pregnant - erythromycin
120
What treatment should be given to those with Legionnaires disease?
clarythromycin, erythromycin and quinolones (levofloxacin)
121
What is the treatment for aspergilloma?
Amphoteric B, Voriconazole and surgery
122
What is the treatment for TB?
Two months of Rifampicin, isoniazid, pyrazinamide and ethambutol
A further 4 months of rifampicin and isoniazid
" 2RIPE 4RI"
123
What are the side effects of the treatments for TB?
rifampicin - orange tears n urine
isoniazid - peripheral neuropathy
pyrazinamide - joint pain, gout
ethambutol - optic neuritis
124
What is the initial treatment for those diagnosed with asthma?
SABA (IH) PRN
125
If the initial treatment for asthma isn't working, what the treatment can be given?
ICS - beclometasone
LABA - only used in combination with ICS - salmeterol
CystLT receptor antagonist - montelukast
cromone - sodium cromoglicate
xanthine - used in combination with SABA/LABA and ICS - theophylline
126
What is ivabradine?
A selective HCN channel blocker that slows HR in angina
127
What do catecholamines do?
B adrenoreceptor agonists - Increase HR and force
| Can cause disturbances in cardiac rhythm - dobutamine, adrenaline and noradrenaline
128
When is dobutamine used as a treatment?
During acute but possibly reversible heart failure
129
What do B-blockers do?
Propanolol, atenolol, bisoprolol - reduce HR and force - can cause bradycardia or bronchospasms( yeh even cardio selective ones according to passtest)
130
When are B-blockers used?
to decrease tachycardia, AF, treat angina, heart failure and hypertension
131
What patients do you avoid giving B-blockers to if possible?
asthmatics (causes bronchospasm)
| diabetics (masks a hypo)
132
What are the side effects of B-blockers?
```
bronchospasm
bradycardia (heart block in those with coronary disease)
masks a hypo
fatigue
cold extremities
```
133
What is atropine?
Muscarinic receptor antagonist - increases HR
134
Why is atropine used clinically?
For patients with SEVERE bradycardia
135
What should you be careful of when using atropine?
Always give in 600mg or more doses because if given in lower doses, can cause more bradycardia (lol how unlucky could you get)
136
What is digoxin used for?
Heart failure
137
What are the side effects of digoxin?
Can cause tachycardia, an ectopic beat, hypokalemia, heart block, nausea, vomiting, diarrhoea, disturbances of colour vision, tender breasts
Basically, it's a riot
138
What is levosimendan?
A calcium- sensitiser - causes vasodilation
139
When are diuretics used?
```
Hypertension (mild - thiazide)
Heart failure (strong - Loop)
```
140
Loop diuretics side effects include
HYPO - everything basically
141
What is an example of a non selective b blocker and what is it used for?
propanolol
| thyrotoxicosis
142
What are alpha blockers used for?
hypertension
| prostatic hypertrophy
143
When are anti platelets used?
angina
acute MI
CVA/TIA
144
What is an example of an antiplatelet?
aspirin
| clopidogrel
145
What are the side effects of anti platelets?
haemorrhage
peptic ulcer
aspirin sensitivity
146
What are examples of anticoagulants?
```
Heparin IV
Warfarin IV (blocks clotting factors 2,7,9,10)
```
147
What is the treatment for an acute MI?
```
MONAC
moprhine = anti emetic
oxygen
nitrates (GTN)
aspirin
clopidogrel
```
148
When should PCI be given?
within 90mins of contact
149
What is used for an acute phase SVT?
vagal manoeuvres
IV adenosine
IV verapamil
150
What drug can control rhythm in AF?
K+ channel blockers
| amiodarone, soltalol
151
What is the treatment for post MI?
```
SABA (+C)
statin (simvastatin)
ACEI/ARB (lisinopril/losasartan)
B blocker (atenolol)
Aspirin(+ Clopidogrel for 4 weeks)
```
152
What drug can control AF rate?
b blocker - NOT sotalol
Rate limiting channel blockers - verapamil, diltiazem
digoxin for those that don't got off their arse
153
What is the treatment for chronic SVT?
B blockers
Calcium channel antagonist
Ablation
154
What is the treatment of sinus bradycardia?
Atropine
| Pacing if haemodynamic compromise
155
What is the treatment pathway for angina?
1. B blocker/ calcium channel blocker
2. Can add long acting nitrate, ivabradine, nicorandil
then ACEI
statins
156
What is the treatment for VF or pulseless VT?
Shock that bastard
157
What is the treatment for Ventricular fibrillation?
CRP
Defib
after 3rd shock - IV adrenaline
-IV amiodarone
158
What is the treatment of Ventricular tachycardia?
```
DCCV
catheterisation
electrolyte correction
amiodarone
lidocaine
```
B blockers are initial therapy
159
What are the side effects of calcium channel blocker?
```
hypotension
dizziness
flushing
ankle oedema
constipation
heart block
```
160
What are the side effects of heparin?
osteoporosis
haemorrhage
hypoaldosteronism
161
What do aldosterone antagonists do and give an example?
gets rid of excess water and Na retention (RAAS inhibitor), increases potassium levels, lowers high BP, treats heart failure
- spironolactone
162
What are side effects of spironolactone?
gynecomastia (lol)
| hyperkalaemia
163
What does ezetimibe do?
reduces the absorption of cholesterol to decrease LDL
164
Who can ezetimibe not be given to?
breast feeding females (females who are breast feeding their kids not ones who are feeding off breasts)
165
Name the 4 classes of Anti-Hypertensive drugs
Diuretics, Beta-blockers, Ca2+ Channel Antagonists and Vasodilators
166
Name the two types of Diuretics and their relative strength
Thiazide mild
| Loop strong
167
Name the two types of Beta Blockers and the difference between them
Cardioselective - Only block B1 receptors
| Non -selective - Block B1 and B2 receptors
168
Name the 3 types of Vasodilators
Alpha-Blockers a1 adrenoreceptor antagonists
ACE inhibitors
Angiotensin receptor blockers
169
Give an example of a Thiazide diuretic
Bendrofluazide
170
Give an example of a Loop diuretic
Furosemide
171
Give an example of a Cardioselective beta blocker
Atenolol
172
Give an example of a Non-selective beta blocker
propanolol
173
Give an example of a Dihydropyridine Ca2+ Channel antagonist
Amlodipine
174
Give examples of Rate limiting calcium antagonists (Ca2+ channel antagonists)
Verapamil
| Diltiazem
175
Give examples of Alpha Blocker vasodilators
Prazosin
| Doxazosin
176
Give an example of an ACE inhibitor vasodilator
Ramipril
177
Give an example of an Angiotensin receptor blocker vasodilator
Losartan
178
Name the monoclonal antibody against IgE?
olamizumab (yeh that weird one that you can't pronounce)
179
What is the monoclonal antibody against IL-5?
mepolizumab
180
What treatment is used for those who present with an acute asthma attack?
```
O2 (high flow)
Salbutamol nebulised
Hydrocortisol (or prednisolone)
Ipratropium
Magnesium sulphate
Theophylline
Anaesthetist
```
181
What is the treatment for those suffering an acute exacerbation of COPD?
```
ISOAP
Ipratropium
Salbutamol
Oxygen (Venturi mask blue or white)
Amoxicillin
Prednisolone
```
182
What is the recommended treatment for COPD?
A LABA/LAMA combination inhaler
| and stop smoking so you dont die as soon
183
What is an example of an Ultra - LABA?
Indacaterol (cos it's shorter acting than salmeterol)
184
What other drugs can be used in the treatment for COPD?
Rofumilast - PDE4 inhibitor
185
What is the main drug given to those diagnosed with rhinitis?
Glucocorticoids - beclometasone, prednisolone
186
What other treatments can be given to those with rhinitis?
Anti-histamines - Loratadine, Fexofenadine, Cetirizine
SAMA - Ipratropium
Cromones - sodium cromoglicate
CystLT - montelukast
Vasoconstrictors - oxymetazoline
(if ur keen, take a look at rebecca's Resp cards she loves rhinitis)
187
Mechanism of diuretics
Promote Na+ and water excretion from the kidneys by inhibiting reabsorption in the loop of Henle or distal tubule
188
What is the mechanism of cardioselective beta blockers
Only block β1 receptors – β1 adrenoceptors stimulate Gs - ↑ cAMP, ↑PKa - ↑CICR VIA RyR2, ↑Contractility
189
What is the mechanism of non-selective beta blockers
Block β1 & β2 receptors – β2 adrenoceptors cause vasodilation of the coronary arteries and ↑ HR
190
What is the mechanism of Alpha Blocker vasodilators
Block vascular α1-adrenoceptors - ↓ TPR and MABP
191
What is the mechanism of Ace inhibitors
Block the conversion of angiotensin I – angiotensin II
192
What is the mechanism of Angiotensin Receptor Blockers
AT1 receptor antagonist – competitively blocks the agonist action of angiotensin II at AT1 receptors – Venous dilatation (↓ preload) and arteriolar dilatation (↓ afterload and ↓TPR), ↓ MABP
193
Name the 4 types of Anti- Anginal drugs
Beta Blockers Ca2+ Channel Antagonists Nitrates Potassium channel openers
194
Give 2 examples of Nitrates
Glyceryl trinitrate Spray (GTN Spray) Isosorbide mononitrate
195
Give 2 examples of Potassium channel openers
Nicorandil Ivabradine
196
What is the mechanism of Nitrates
Relax all types of smooth muscle, via their metabolism to nitric oxide. Small doses – vasorelaxation - ↓ CVP (preload) reduces SV Higher doses - ↓ MAP - ↓ afterload ↑ Coronary blood flow. In angina, there is no overall increase, but blood is directed towards the ischaemic zone – collateral arterioles dilated >> ↓myocardial O₂ req., ↓ afterload, ↑Ischaemic perfusion
197
What is the mechanism of Potassium channel openers
↓ The Ca2+ sensitivity of smooth muscle, Activates sarcolemma Ca2+ pump and promotes K+ efflux, causing hyperpolarization → relaxation of the smooth muscle and coronary vasodilation
198
How you doing?
Good shift for making it this far, just checking up on you, click the wee blue comment symbol and lemme know how ur feeling
199
What conditions can Potassium channel blockers be used for
Nicorandil - Stable Angina Ivabradine - Chronic Heart Failure, Angina Pectoralis
200
What are the side effects of nitrates
Repeated Administration may be associated with diminished tolerance. Build in ‘nitrate low’ periods. Postural hypotension Headaches leave 8hrs of the day nitrate free
201
What are the side effects of Potassium channel openers
Hypovolaemia – low systolic BP Palpitations, Weakness
202
Name 4 types of Anti-Cholesterol Drugs
Statins
Fibrates
Bile acid Binding Resins
Ezetimibe
203
Name 2 statins
Simvastatin
| Atorvastatin
204
Name 2 fibrates
Bezafibrate
| Gemfibrozil
205
Name 3 Bile acid Binding Resins
Colestyramine
Colestipol
Colesevelam
206
Name an Ezetimibe
Ezetimibe (just making sure ur paying attention and not just boosting ur flashcard number)
207
What is the mechanism of statins
Block HMG-CoA reductase (competitive inhibitors) – Reduction of LDL production in Liver
Surface expression of the LDL receptors increases → increased clearance of LDL in the liver.
↓ inflammation, reversal of endothelial dysfunction, ↓ thrombosis, stabilisation of atherosclerotic plaques
208
What is the mechanism of fibrates
↓ triglyceride levels, and slight ↓ LDL & HDL by ↓ liver’s production of the particle carrying them in blood, and by ↑ rate of triglyceride removal
↑ Transcription of gene encoding LPL.
209
What conditions are statins used for
```
Hypercholesterolaemia
Diabetes
Angina/MI
CVA/TIA
High risk of MA & CVA
```
210
What conditions are fibrates used for
Low HDL cholesterol
| Hypertriglyceridaemia – first line treatment
211
What are the side effects of statins
Myopathy
Rhabdomyolysis
sreenal failure lol
Should not be prescribed to pregnant → cholesterol needed for foetus development
212
What are the side effects of fibrates
May cause myositis – advised combining with statins.
213
When can statins not be used
Ineffective in Homozygous familial hypercholesterolaemia, where LDL receptors are lacking
214
What is the mechanism of bile acid binding resins
Cause the excretion of bile salts resulting in more cholesterol to be converted to bile salts by interrupting enterohepatic recycling
↓ absorption pf triglycerides, ↑ LDL receptor expression
215
What are the side effects of bile acid binding resins
G.I. tract irritation
216
Name the 4 types of Anti-Arrhythmic drugs
Class I Class II Class III Class IV
| you've nailed it, ur basically a doctor now
217
Name the 3 types of Class I Anti-Arrhythmic drugs
IA IB IC
| congrats ur now a consultant
218
Give an example of a Class IA drug
Disopyramide
219
Give an example of a Class IB drug
Lignocaine
220
Give an example of a Class IC drug
Flecainide
221
Give an example of a Class II drug
Metoprolol
222
Give an example of a Class III drug
Amiodarone
223
Give an example of a Class IV drug
Verapamil
224
How to remember mechanisms of the 4 classes of anti arrhythmic drugs
Seumy Barker Pulls Cammy
Sodium, Beta, Potassium, Calcium
1, 2, 3, 4
225
What are the side effects of Anti-Arrhythmic drugs
Phototoxicity
Pulmonary Fibrosis
Thyroid abnormalities
226
Name 3 types of inotropic drugs
Digoxin
Calcium sensitizers
Beta-Adrenoceptor agonists
227
Name the 2 types of Digoxin
Digoxin I
Digoxin II
mate, ur basically a surgeon now
228
Name 2 Beta-Adrenoceptors
Adrenaline
| Dobutamine - IV
229
What is the mechanism of Digoxin I
Blocks atrial-ventricular conduction – produces an AV conduction delay. Blocks the Sarcolemma ATPase - Na+/K+ATPase blocked, ↑[Na]I and ↓Vm, ↓Na+/Ca2+ exchange and ↑[Ca2+]I, ↑ storage of Ca2+ in SR, ↑CICR; ↑contractility (Increases contractility of the heart)
230
What is the mechanism of Digoxin II
Increases ventricular irritability which produces ventricular arrhythmias – always bad, narrow therapeutic index BAD BAD BAD BAD
231
How can you tell if an antacid will have a constipating effect or a laxative effect?
Those containing aluminium are constipating
| Those containing magnesium are laxative
232
Give 2 examples of antispasmodics
hyoscine, mebeverine
233
What disease are antispasmodics useful in
Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)
234
How do you eradicate H.pylori infections
omeprazole plus amoxicillin plus clarithromycin
| can give metronidazole instead of amoxicillin if allergic to penicillins
235
What drugs can be given to reduce stomach acid
H2 receptor antagonists (ranitidine) or Proton pump inhibitors (omeprazole or anything else ending ‘azole’)
236
What drugs protect the mucosa from stomach acid
Sucralfate protects the mucosa from acid
| Misoprostol- prostaglandin analogue
237
When would you give PPI's IV
For peptic ulcer bleeding
238
What class of. drugs are useful in UC but not in Crohn's
5-ASAs (sulfasalazine, mesalazine)
239
Name 2 antimotility drugs useful for diarrhoea
Loperamide and codeine
240
Name the 4 types of laxative drugs and examples
Bulk forming (methylcellulose)
Stimulant (bisacodyl, senna)
Faecal softeners (docusate sodium)
Osmotic (macrogols, lactulose)
