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Misc. Notes Year 1 > Cammy's Bible notes > Flashcards

Cammy's Bible notes Flashcards

1
Q

What shape is the Hb dissociation curve

A

Sigmoidal

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2
Q

What shape is the myoglobin dissociation curve

A

Hyperbolic

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3
Q

Which Ig is found in breast milk

A

IgA

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4
Q

Which Ig is associated with hypersensitivity

A

IgE

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5
Q

What receptors does IgE bind to bring about a response

A

Fc receptors

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6
Q

What is the most common type of Ig/antibody

A

IgG

Passed onto foetal circulation

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7
Q

What is the first antibody/Ig to appear in response to an antigen

A

IgM

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8
Q

What produces endotoxin

A

gram negative bacteria

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9
Q

What antibiotic is used for gram positive cover

A

Vancomycin

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10
Q

What is the key enzyme of glycolysis and what net ATP gain does it yield

A

phosphofructokinase

Uses 2 ATP, makes 4 ATP– net +2ATP

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11
Q

Name 2 classic oncogenes and what they do

A

ras/myc – stimulate cell growth and inhibit death

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12
Q

Name 3 tumour suppressor genes and what they do

A

p53/APC/BRCA1, inhibit cell growth and stimulate death

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13
Q

Is erection sympathetic or parasympathetic

A

parasympathetic

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14
Q

Is ejaculation sympathetic or parasympathetic

A

sympathetic

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15
Q

What provides myelination in the PNS

A

Schwann cells

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16
Q

What provides myelination in the CNS

A

oligodendrocytes

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17
Q

Name the 2 CNA glial cells and what they do

A

Astrocytes – homeostasis

Microglia – immune surveillance

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18
Q

What produces exotoxin

A

Gram positive bacteria

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19
Q

What 2 shapes can gram positive bacteria be and which genera do these belong to

A

cocci (sphere shaped) or bacilli (rod shaped)

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20
Q

What colour do Gram negative bacteria stain

A

Pink

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21
Q

What colour do Gram positive bacteria stain

A

Purple

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22
Q

where is trachea palpated

A

suprasternal/jugular notch

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23
Q

Where is the sternal angle clinically palpable

A

rib 2 line

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24
Q

where does larynx become trachea and pharynx become oesophagus

A

C6

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25
Q

where does trachea bifurcate (vertebral levels)

A

T5-T7/carina

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26
Q

nerve that supplies the diaphragm

A

C3,4,5 keep the diaphragm alive (phrenic nerve)

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27
Q

Horners syndrome - 3 osis’s and what they mean

A

ptosis - drooping or falling of the upper eyelid
miosis - excessive constriction of the pupil of the eye
anhydrosis - inability to sweat

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28
Q

Non-smoker lung cancer

A

adenocarcinoma

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29
Q

antigen in squamous cell carcinoma of lung

A

p63

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30
Q

What is the Rima glottidis and why is it significant

A

narrowest part of larynx where foreign bodies tend to block

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31
Q

which obstructive lung disease involves raised eosinophils

A

Asthma

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32
Q

which obstructive lung disease involves raised neutrophils

A

COPD

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33
Q

Asian man with night sweats, fever and weight loss?

A

Tb

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34
Q

Urine antigen test buzzword

A

Legionella

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35
Q

Ziehl-Neelsen stain positive for acid fast bacilli buzzword

A

Tb

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36
Q

4 C’s of fibrosis?

A

clubbing, cyanosis, crackles, cough

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37
Q

D sign on X ray buzzword

A

Empyema

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38
Q

Define transudate and exudate pleural effusions

A

Exudate (extra protein >30) and transudate (less protein <30)

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39
Q

Thumbprint sign on head xray buzzword

A

Epiglottitis

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40
Q

Causative organism of Epiglottitis

A

Sark Mith
lol, jk
H. Influenzae

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41
Q

Treatment for Epiglottitis

A

Ceftriaxone

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42
Q

Where is respiratory rhythm established

A

Medulla

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43
Q

Pneumonic for breathing control

A

DIVE – doral firing is inspirate, ventral firing is expiratory

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44
Q

Describe respiratory epithelium

A

pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with goblet cells

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45
Q

What kind of lung cancer produces mucin

A

adenocarcinoma

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46
Q

Which investigation you would do to look for bone metastasis

A

radionuclide bone scanning

47
Q

Treatment for Large P.E

A

Thrombolysis

48
Q

Treatment for small P.E

49
Q

COPD exacerbation treatment pneumonic

A 
ISOAP
Ipratropium 
Salbutamol
Oxygen
Amoxicillin 
Prednisolone
50
Q

What does Alpha 1-antitypsin deficiency lead to

A

Liver damage and early COPD

51
Q

What is caplans syndrome

A

Rheumatoid arthritis and pneumoconiosis

52
Q

What is Samster’s triad and what can it cause

A

asthma, salicylate sensitivity (Aspirin) and nasal polyps- aspirin induced asthma

53
Q

What is centriacinar emphysema caused by

54
Q

What is panacinar emphysema caused by

A

A1AT deficiency

55
Q

Commonest cause of bronchiolitis, diagnosed by PC

56
Q

Where is the middle lung lobe auscultated

A

on right side between rib 4 and 6

57
Q

Where are the horizontal and oblique fissures auscultated

A

Oblique fissure – rib 6, Horizontal fissure – right rib4

58
Q

Anterior intercostal spaces blood vessels

A

internal thoracic artery/vein

59
Q

Posterior intercostal spaces blood vessels

A

thoracic aorta/azygous vein

60
Q

Treatment for Tb Pneumonic

A

2 RIPE 4 RI

Quadruple therapy for 2 months and dual therapy (rifampin and isoniazid) for 4 months

61
Q

Tb drugs side effects

A

Rifampin – side effect of red-orange discoloration of urine and tears, rashes and hepatotoxicity.
Isoniazid – peripheral neuropathy
Pyrazinamide – joint pain, rash, allergic reaction, yellow skin or eyes, worsening gout
Ethambutol – change in vision, optic neuritis and red-green colour blindness.

62
Q

Bone scan used to diagnose osteoporosis

A

DEXA bone scan

63
Q

Side effect of ACEI

different option?

A

Dry Cough

ARB

64
Q

ACEi and ARB contra-indication

A

Renal artery stenosis

pregnancy

65
Q

Main cause of Infective endocarditis

A

staph aureus – main cause (prosthetic valves or IV drug users)

66
Q

When is Strep viridans causative of infective endocarditis

A

present in mouth after dental surgery

67
Q

Ductus arteriosus is a connection between which two vessels

A

pulmonary artery and descending aorta

68
Q

Strawberry milkshake coloured blood buzzword

A

Hyperlipidaemia

69
Q

Herpes zoster virus (shingles) dermatome level

70
Q

Nipple dermatome

71
Q

Belly Button dermatome

72
Q

Rate limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis

A

HMG-CoA reductase

73
Q

MABP calculation

A

Diastolic + 1/3(pulse pressure)

74
Q

What is the longest vein in the body

A

great saphenous

75
Q

which coronary artery supplies the SA node

A

Right coronary artery

76
Q

Tetralogy of fallot consists of?

A

VS defect, overriding aorta, pulmonary stenosis, RV hypertrophy

77
Q

Anterior branches of thoracic aorta

A

bronchial, oesophageal, mediastinal, pericardial, phrenic arteries

78
Q

A counter regulatory mechanism to RAAS system and when it is triggered

A

ANP – released in response to atrial distension/hypervolemia – acts as a vasodilator and decreases renin release

79
Q

Nerve that supplies the rectum

A

S4, inferior rectal nerve

80
Q

Treatment of H.pylori

A

PPI + amoxycillin 1g bd + clarithromycin 500mg bd

PPI + metronidazole 400mg bd + clarithromycin 250mg bd

81
Q

what is Virchows node and what does it link to

A

left supraclavicular lymph node – gastric cancer

82
Q

Corkscrew oesophagus on barium swallow

A

diffuse oesophageal spasm

83
Q

Lowest part of peritoneal cavity when supine

A

hepatorenal recess/morrisons pouch

84
Q

Area between rectum and uterus in females

A

rectouterine pouch – pouch of douglas

85
Q

Area between rectum and bladder in males

A

rectovesical pouch

86
Q

Muscle of the cheek that moves food during mastication

A

Buccinator

87
Q

Treatment for campylobacter

if co morbid

A

Ciprofloxacin or erythromycin

88
Q

Treatment for salmonella

if co morbid

A

Ciprofloxacin or cefotaxime

89
Q

Treatment for peritonitis

A

Metronidazole + gentamicin

90
Q

Antibody for Primary biliary cirrhosis

A

Anti-mitochondrial antibody (AMA)

91
Q

Antibody for autoimmune hepatitis

A

Anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA)

92
Q

Antibody for Hepatocellular carcinoma

A

Alpha feto protein

AFP

93
Q

Signs of Diffuse Stomach cancer

A

Signet ring cells seen on biopsy

94
Q

Antibody for coeliac disease

A

Anti-transglutaminase antibody, anti endomysial antibody

95
Q

Antibody for UC or PSC

A

perinuclear-ANCA (pANCA)

96
Q

Antibody for PSC

A

Antineutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibodies (ANCA) (cANCA)

97
Q

Signs of pancreatitis

A

Raised amylase, lipase, vomiting, pain

98
Q

Q fever causative organism

A

Coxiella burnetti

99
Q

What is Pickwickian disease

A

Obesity hypoventilation syndrome
obese people whose body fat preventing air getting in. Causes sleep apnoea and hypercapnia (high levels of carbon dioxide in the blood). Buzzword: overnight nasal ventilation

100
Q

what is Guillian-Barre disease

A

disease which causes paralysis. Normally preceded by a strep. throat/infection of respiratory or GI tract. A.K.A polyneuritis (meaning rapidly progressive, ascending motor neurone paralysis, beginning in the feet and ascending to the other muscles)

101
Q

How do you differentiate between a gastric and a duodenal ulcer

A

Pain from gastric ulcer is brought on by eating whereas it is relieved by eating in a duodenal ulcer

102
Q

If someone is HBsAg positive, what does that mean

A

had a previous infection, acute or chronic

103
Q

If someone is AntiHBsAg positive, what does that mean

A

clinical recovery and immunity

104
Q

If someone is HBeAg positive, what does that mean

A

highly infectious

105
Q

If someone is IgM antiHBc positive, what does that mean

A

Acute infection

106
Q

If someone is IgG antiHBc positive, what does that mean

A

Chronic infection

107
Q

Which hepatitis only presents with another one

A

Hep D

Only presents with Hep B

108
Q

Pharmacological treatment for ascites

A

Spironolactone

109
Q

What is Charcot’s triad and what does this indicate

A

RUQ pain, Fever, Jaundice

Ascending Cholangitis

110
Q

Treatment for hemochromatosis

A

phlebotomy, blood letting

Lifelong copper chelating drugs

111
Q

What is Leukonychia and what does it indicate

A

white nails

hypoalbuminaemia

112
Q

What is Koilonychia and what does it indicate

A

nail spooning

iron deficiency anaemia

113
Q

What do Mallory hyaline bodies indicate

A

alcoholic liver disease

Misc. Notes Year 1 (13 decks)

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