Cammy's Bible notes Flashcards
1
Q
What shape is the Hb dissociation curve
A
Sigmoidal
2
Q
What shape is the myoglobin dissociation curve
A
Hyperbolic
3
Q
Which Ig is found in breast milk
A
IgA
4
Q
Which Ig is associated with hypersensitivity
A
IgE
5
Q
What receptors does IgE bind to bring about a response
A
Fc receptors
6
Q
What is the most common type of Ig/antibody
A
IgG
Passed onto foetal circulation
7
Q
What is the first antibody/Ig to appear in response to an antigen
A
IgM
8
Q
What produces endotoxin
A
gram negative bacteria
9
Q
What antibiotic is used for gram positive cover
A
Vancomycin
10
Q
What is the key enzyme of glycolysis and what net ATP gain does it yield
A
phosphofructokinase
Uses 2 ATP, makes 4 ATP– net +2ATP
11
Q
Name 2 classic oncogenes and what they do
A
ras/myc – stimulate cell growth and inhibit death
12
Q
Name 3 tumour suppressor genes and what they do
A
p53/APC/BRCA1, inhibit cell growth and stimulate death
13
Q
Is erection sympathetic or parasympathetic
A
parasympathetic
14
Q
Is ejaculation sympathetic or parasympathetic
A
sympathetic
15
Q
What provides myelination in the PNS
A
Schwann cells
16
Q
What provides myelination in the CNS
A
oligodendrocytes
17
Q
Name the 2 CNA glial cells and what they do
A
Astrocytes – homeostasis
Microglia – immune surveillance
18
Q
What produces exotoxin
A
Gram positive bacteria
19
Q
What 2 shapes can gram positive bacteria be and which genera do these belong to
A
cocci (sphere shaped) or bacilli (rod shaped)
20
Q
What colour do Gram negative bacteria stain
A
Pink
21
Q
What colour do Gram positive bacteria stain
A
Purple
22
Q
where is trachea palpated
A
suprasternal/jugular notch
23
Q
Where is the sternal angle clinically palpable
A
rib 2 line
24
Q
where does larynx become trachea and pharynx become oesophagus
A
C6
25
where does trachea bifurcate (vertebral levels)
T5-T7/carina
26
nerve that supplies the diaphragm
C3,4,5 keep the diaphragm alive (phrenic nerve)
27
Horners syndrome - 3 osis's and what they mean
ptosis - drooping or falling of the upper eyelid
miosis - excessive constriction of the pupil of the eye
anhydrosis - inability to sweat
28
Non-smoker lung cancer
adenocarcinoma
29
antigen in squamous cell carcinoma of lung
p63
30
What is the Rima glottidis and why is it significant
narrowest part of larynx where foreign bodies tend to block
31
which obstructive lung disease involves raised eosinophils
Asthma
32
which obstructive lung disease involves raised neutrophils
COPD
33
Asian man with night sweats, fever and weight loss?
Tb
34
Urine antigen test buzzword
Legionella
35
Ziehl-Neelsen stain positive for acid fast bacilli buzzword
Tb
36
4 C’s of fibrosis?
clubbing, cyanosis, crackles, cough
37
D sign on X ray buzzword
Empyema
38
Define transudate and exudate pleural effusions
Exudate (extra protein >30) and transudate (less protein <30)
39
Thumbprint sign on head xray buzzword
Epiglottitis
40
Causative organism of Epiglottitis
Sark Mith
lol, jk
H. Influenzae
41
Treatment for Epiglottitis
Ceftriaxone
42
Where is respiratory rhythm established
Medulla
43
Pneumonic for breathing control
DIVE – doral firing is inspirate, ventral firing is expiratory
44
Describe respiratory epithelium
pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium with goblet cells
45
What kind of lung cancer produces mucin
adenocarcinoma
46
Which investigation you would do to look for bone metastasis
radionuclide bone scanning
47
Treatment for Large P.E
Thrombolysis
48
Treatment for small P.E
LMWH
49
COPD exacerbation treatment pneumonic
```
ISOAP
Ipratropium
Salbutamol
Oxygen
Amoxicillin
Prednisolone
```
50
What does Alpha 1-antitypsin deficiency lead to
Liver damage and early COPD
51
What is caplans syndrome
Rheumatoid arthritis and pneumoconiosis
52
What is Samster's triad and what can it cause
asthma, salicylate sensitivity (Aspirin) and nasal polyps- aspirin induced asthma
53
What is centriacinar emphysema caused by
Smoking
54
What is panacinar emphysema caused by
A1AT deficiency
55
Commonest cause of bronchiolitis, diagnosed by PC
RSV
56
Where is the middle lung lobe auscultated
on right side between rib 4 and 6
57
Where are the horizontal and oblique fissures auscultated
Oblique fissure – rib 6, Horizontal fissure – right rib4
58
Anterior intercostal spaces blood vessels
internal thoracic artery/vein
59
Posterior intercostal spaces blood vessels
thoracic aorta/azygous vein
60
Treatment for Tb Pneumonic
2 RIPE 4 RI
| Quadruple therapy for 2 months and dual therapy (rifampin and isoniazid) for 4 months
61
Tb drugs side effects
Rifampin – side effect of red-orange discoloration of urine and tears, rashes and hepatotoxicity.
Isoniazid – peripheral neuropathy
Pyrazinamide – joint pain, rash, allergic reaction, yellow skin or eyes, worsening gout
Ethambutol – change in vision, optic neuritis and red-green colour blindness.
62
Bone scan used to diagnose osteoporosis
DEXA bone scan
63
Side effect of ACEI
| different option?
Dry Cough
| ARB
64
ACEi and ARB contra-indication
Renal artery stenosis
| pregnancy
65
Main cause of Infective endocarditis
staph aureus – main cause (prosthetic valves or IV drug users)
66
When is Strep viridans causative of infective endocarditis
present in mouth after dental surgery
67
Ductus arteriosus is a connection between which two vessels
pulmonary artery and descending aorta
68
Strawberry milkshake coloured blood buzzword
Hyperlipidaemia
69
Herpes zoster virus (shingles) dermatome level
T4/T5
70
Nipple dermatome
T4
71
Belly Button dermatome
T10
72
Rate limiting enzyme in cholesterol synthesis
HMG-CoA reductase
73
MABP calculation
Diastolic + 1/3(pulse pressure)
74
What is the longest vein in the body
great saphenous
75
which coronary artery supplies the SA node
Right coronary artery
76
Tetralogy of fallot consists of?
VS defect, overriding aorta, pulmonary stenosis, RV hypertrophy
77
Anterior branches of thoracic aorta
bronchial, oesophageal, mediastinal, pericardial, phrenic arteries
78
A counter regulatory mechanism to RAAS system and when it is triggered
ANP – released in response to atrial distension/hypervolemia – acts as a vasodilator and decreases renin release
79
Nerve that supplies the rectum
S4, inferior rectal nerve
80
Treatment of H.pylori
PPI + amoxycillin 1g bd + clarithromycin 500mg bd
PPI + metronidazole 400mg bd + clarithromycin 250mg bd
81
what is Virchows node and what does it link to
left supraclavicular lymph node – gastric cancer
82
Corkscrew oesophagus on barium swallow
diffuse oesophageal spasm
83
Lowest part of peritoneal cavity when supine
hepatorenal recess/morrisons pouch
84
Area between rectum and uterus in females
rectouterine pouch – pouch of douglas
85
Area between rectum and bladder in males
rectovesical pouch
86
Muscle of the cheek that moves food during mastication
Buccinator
87
Treatment for campylobacter
| if co morbid
Ciprofloxacin or erythromycin
88
Treatment for salmonella
| if co morbid
Ciprofloxacin or cefotaxime
89
Treatment for peritonitis
Metronidazole + gentamicin
90
Antibody for Primary biliary cirrhosis
Anti-mitochondrial antibody (AMA)
91
Antibody for autoimmune hepatitis
Anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA)
92
Antibody for Hepatocellular carcinoma
Alpha feto protein
| AFP
93
Signs of Diffuse Stomach cancer
Signet ring cells seen on biopsy
94
Antibody for coeliac disease
Anti-transglutaminase antibody, anti endomysial antibody
95
Antibody for UC or PSC
perinuclear-ANCA (pANCA)
96
Antibody for PSC
Antineutrophil Cytoplasmic Antibodies (ANCA) (cANCA)
97
Signs of pancreatitis
Raised amylase, lipase, vomiting, pain
98
Q fever causative organism
Coxiella burnetti
99
What is Pickwickian disease
Obesity hypoventilation syndrome
obese people whose body fat preventing air getting in. Causes sleep apnoea and hypercapnia (high levels of carbon dioxide in the blood). Buzzword: overnight nasal ventilation
100
what is Guillian-Barre disease
disease which causes paralysis. Normally preceded by a strep. throat/infection of respiratory or GI tract. A.K.A polyneuritis (meaning rapidly progressive, ascending motor neurone paralysis, beginning in the feet and ascending to the other muscles)
101
How do you differentiate between a gastric and a duodenal ulcer
Pain from gastric ulcer is brought on by eating whereas it is relieved by eating in a duodenal ulcer
102
If someone is HBsAg positive, what does that mean
had a previous infection, acute or chronic
103
If someone is AntiHBsAg positive, what does that mean
clinical recovery and immunity
104
If someone is HBeAg positive, what does that mean
highly infectious
105
If someone is IgM antiHBc positive, what does that mean
Acute infection
106
If someone is IgG antiHBc positive, what does that mean
Chronic infection
107
Which hepatitis only presents with another one
Hep D
| Only presents with Hep B
108
Pharmacological treatment for ascites
Spironolactone
109
What is Charcot's triad and what does this indicate
RUQ pain, Fever, Jaundice
| Ascending Cholangitis
110
Treatment for hemochromatosis
phlebotomy, blood letting
| Lifelong copper chelating drugs
111
What is Leukonychia and what does it indicate
white nails
| hypoalbuminaemia
112
What is Koilonychia and what does it indicate
nail spooning
| iron deficiency anaemia
113
What do Mallory hyaline bodies indicate
alcoholic liver disease
