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1
Q

tx WPW?

A

procainamide

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2
Q

causes of Wenckebach?

A

meds: dig, BBs, CCBs
increased vagal tone
R coronary ischemia

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3
Q

meds that improve mortality in CHF?

A 
BBs and ACe
if class III-IV, low dose spironolactone
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4
Q

best predictor of survival in STEMI?

A

LVEF

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5
Q

complication 1 day after MI?

A

heart failure

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6
Q

complication 2-4d after MI?

A

arrhythmia

pericarditis

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7
Q

complication 10d after MI?

A

LV rupture, papillary m rupture

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8
Q

complication many d after MI?

A

Dressler

ventricular aneurysm

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9
Q

cutoff for surg of AAA?

A

5 cm

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10
Q

fungus in seb derm?

A

pityrosporum ovale

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11
Q

erythema nodosum - false + lab test?

A

VDRL

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12
Q

tx of dermatitis herpetiformis?

A

dapsone

no gluten

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13
Q

pathogen in pilonidal cysts?

A

Bacteroides

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14
Q

what dz r/o if have pityriasis?

A

syphilis

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15
Q

SCC in palmoplantar distribution?

A

arsenic exposure

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16
Q

tx of mycosis fungoides?

A

phototherapy

radiation if advanced

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17
Q

short acting insulins?

A

lispro, aspart, glu

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18
Q

tx thyroid storm?

A

IV propranolol and steroids

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19
Q

tx myxedema coma?

A

IV levothyroxine and hydrocortisone

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20
Q

orphan annie, psammoma bodies?

A

papillary thyroid cancer

MOST COMMON thyroid ca

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21
Q

what tests with dx of medullary thy ca?

A

calcitonin

MEN2A/B

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22
Q

mosaic lamellar bone?

A

Paget’s

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23
Q

tx pagets?

A

bisphosphonates, calcitonin

NSAIDs for pain

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24
Q

pancreas, pituitary, parathyroid?

A

MEN1

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25
Q

parathyroid, pheo, medullary thyroid?

A

MEN2A

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26
Q

pheo, medullary thyroid, marfan, neuromas?

A

MEN2B

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27
Q

increase in prevalence affects PPV?

A

increased PPV

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28
Q

decrease in prevalence affects NPV?

A

increased NPV

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29
Q

MC cancers in men?

A

prost > lung > CRC

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30
Q

MC cancers in women?

A

breast > lung > CRC

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31
Q

anemia, glossitis, esophageal webs?

A

Plummer Vinson - iron deficiency

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32
Q

type A gastritis?

A

fundus
pernicious anemia
adenocarcinoma, carcinoid

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33
Q

type B gastritis?

A

antrum
NSAID/H pylori ulcers
gastric cancer risk

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34
Q

tx of campylobacter?

A

erythromycin

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35
Q

flask shaped ulcers?

A

entamoeba

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36
Q

tx entamoeba?

A

NO STEROIDS –> risk of perf

give metronidazole

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37
Q

tx salmonella?

A

quinolone or bactrim

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38
Q

tx shigella

A

bactrim - prevents transmission

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39
Q

vitamin deficiency from carcinoid?

A

niacin (serotonin made from tryptophan)

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40
Q

cutoff for SAAG?

A

> 1.1 indicates pulmonary HTN

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41
Q

what’s in cryoprecipitate?

A

FVIII and fibrinogen

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42
Q

DDAVP does?

A

increases FVIII

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43
Q

deficient F VIII, platelet dysfunction?

A

vWD

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44
Q

antibody in ITP?

A

IgG

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45
Q

high MMA and homocysteine?

A

B12 deficiency

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46
Q

nl MMA and high homocysteine?

A

folate

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47
Q

cafe au lait spots, short, thumb/radius hypoplasia?

A

Fanconi anemia

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48
Q

tx aplastic anemia?

A

blood transfusion
stem cell transplant
cyclosporin A and antithymocyte globulin

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49
Q

tx polycythemia vera?

A

hydroxyurea

IFN + ASA

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50
Q

tx porphyria attack?

A

lots of glucose

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51
Q

Dutcher bodies?

A

Waldenstrom

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52
Q

CD5 and CD20/21 on flow cytometry?

A

CLL

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53
Q

decreased LAP, high LDH uric acid and B12?

A

CML

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54
Q

alcohol induced pain?

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

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55
Q

Centor criteria?

A 
3/4 of:
fever
tonsillar exudate
tender anterior cervical LAN
no cough
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56
Q

HIV/pregnant/filipino, from the south west?

A

coccidio!

give azole or ampho

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57
Q

first CN affected in increased ICP?

A

III and VI

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58
Q

HIV ppx cutoffs?

A
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59
Q

lung infection + palatal ulcers?

A

histo!

60
Q

tx histo?

A

mild/chronic: itra

severe/disseminated: ampho

61
Q

foamy macrophages, high alk phos and LDH?

A

MAC

62
Q

tx MAC?

A

clarythromycin

or ethambutol + rifabutin

63
Q

causes of VDRL false +?

A 
viruses
drugs
RF/RA
lupus
leprosy
64
Q

penis with beefy red ulcer with rolled edge?

A

Klebsiella granulomatis

tx: doxy/azithro

65
Q

what tx for hyponozoite elimination in malaria?

A

primaquine

66
Q

tx of tertiary Lyme?

A

ceftriaxone

67
Q

eschar, hemorrhagic mediastinitis, bloody diarrhea?

A

anthrax

68
Q

ant shoulder disloc and what nerve?

A

axillary

69
Q

anterior hip disloc and what nerve?

A

obturator

70
Q

posterior hip disloc and what nerve?

A

sciatic

71
Q

humeral fx and what nerve?

A

radial

72
Q

supracondylar humeral fx and what vessel?

A

brachial artery

73
Q

onion skinning bone tumor?

A

Ewings

  • 11:22
  • increased ESR
  • midshaft lesions
74
Q

soap bubble bone tumor?

A

giant cell

75
Q

sunburst bone tumor?

A

osteosarcoma

  • increased alk phos
  • metaphysis lesions
76
Q

benign bone tumor?

A

osteochondroma

77
Q

asymmetric SI pain assoc with IBD?

A

enteropathic spondylitis

78
Q

tx ankylosing spond?

A

TNF inhib or sulfasalazine

79
Q

RA, splenomegaly, neutropenia?

A

Felty syndrome

80
Q

tx of skin/jt SLE?

A

hydroxychloroquine

81
Q

tx of renal SLE?

A

cyclophosphamide

82
Q

risk of iridocyclitis in JIA?

A

pauciarticular –> increased risk
polyarticular –> less risk
Still’s –> no risk

83
Q

risk factors for lacunar infarcts?

A

chronic HTN
hyperchol
DM

84
Q

mental status change, small pupils, Cheyne Stokes breathing?

A

downward herniation

85
Q

down and out pupil, ipsilateral hemiparesis?

A

uncal herniation

86
Q

tonsillar herniation?

A

respiratory arrest, death

87
Q

tx partial sz?

A

phenytoin, phenobarb (kids)

88
Q

tx tonic/clonic sz?

A

phenytoin, VPA

89
Q

tx absence sz?

A

ethosux, VPA

90
Q

tx status?

A

thiamine –> glucose and naloxone

benzo –> phenytoin –> phenobarb

91
Q

tx infantile spasm

A

ACTH
pred
clonazepam, VPA

92
Q

stroke that mimics labyrinthitis?

A

AICA - has auditory sx

93
Q

stroke that mimics vestibular neuritis?

A

PICA - no auditory sx

94
Q

drugs to avoid in myasthenia?

A

aminoglycosides

BBs

95
Q

MC adult brain tumors?

A

glioblastoma

meningioma

96
Q

MC kid brain tumors?

A

astrocytoma

medulloblastoma

97
Q

what eval in tuberous sclerosis?

A

cardiac rhabdomyosarcoma, infantile spasms

98
Q

tx of atrophic macular degeneration?

A

vit C
vit E
beta carotene
zinc

99
Q

tx of exudative macular degeneration?

A

VEGF inhibitor

verteporfin

100
Q

MC cyanotic heart dz?

A

TGA

101
Q

risk factors for ToF?

A

maternal PKU

DiGeorge

102
Q

tx tet spells?

A 
O2
propranolol
phenylephrie
fluids
morphine
103
Q

stranger anxiety?

A

6 mos

104
Q

separation anxiety?

A

12 mos

105
Q

risk factors for pulmonic stenosis?

A

TEF
mom with pyloric stenosis
erythromycin

106
Q

what ppx in SCID?

A

PCP

107
Q

nitroblue tetrazolium test is for what?

A

CGD

108
Q

green soft tissue tumor?

A

chloroma –> AML

109
Q

rosettes on biopsy, increased VMA/HVA?

A

neuroblastoma

110
Q

causes pulsus paradoxus?

A

tamponade

COPD/asthma

111
Q

CNS stimulation, GI disturbances, arrhythmias?

A

theophylline toxicity

112
Q

follicular conjunctivitis, neovascularization of cornea, nasal discharge?

A

trachoma (C trachomatis)

113
Q

severe hypertension + recurrent flash pulmonary edema?

A

renovascular hypertension

114
Q

efficacy of lifestyle mods in HTN?

A 
best = wt loss
then DAHS
then exercise
then sodium
then alcohol
115
Q

sheep farmer + liver shiz?

A

echinococcosis

ingestion of eggs –> hydatid cysts in liver (and lungs)

116
Q

when do you give tetanus IG?

A

only if wound is dirty AND pt is unimmunized/not completely immunized (boosters don’t count!)

117
Q

risk factors for RDS?

A 
** prematurity
male
perinatal asphyxia
maternal DM
cesarean w/o labor
118
Q

mesothelioma vs bronchogenic carcinoma?

A

both have asbestosis as risk factor
both have pleural plaques
*bronchogenic more common
*mesothel usually unilateral

119
Q

paget’s dz what type of ca?

A

adenocarcinoma

120
Q

cutoff for doing external cephalic version in breech?

A

from 37 wks to delivery

121
Q

adolescent with nasal obstruction, nasal mass, epistaxis?

A

juvenile angiofibroma

122
Q

dx of lactose intolerance?

A

hydrogen breath test

prior - lactose tolerance test

123
Q

hypocalcemia in nephrotic syndrome?

A

from decreased albumin

124
Q

tx cocaine intox?

A

benzos if HTN or anxious
aspirin and nitros for pain
NO BBs

125
Q

RA and macrocytic anemia - what mx?

A

methotrexate (inhibits DHF reductase)

126
Q

when does OR approximate RR?

A

when disease incidence is low

127
Q

bone lesion with small round lucency, sclerotic margins?

A

osteoid osteoma (benign)
usually prox femur
NSAIDs and monitoring

128
Q

what tests in breath holding spell?

A

CBC and ferritin (assoc with Fe defic anemia)

129
Q

HSV vs CMV retinitis?

A

HSV: keratitis and visual loss, pale lesions, central necrosis
CMV: painless, fluffy, hemorrhages

130
Q

thyroid chg in preg?

A

increase in total T4 (from HCG stim) and smaller increase in TBG
mild increase in free T4
TSH decrease

131
Q

when to vaccinate asplenic pts?

A

> 14 days before splenectomy or >14 days after

132
Q

SEs of tac vs cyclosporine?

A

tac: nephrotox, hyperK, neurotox, diarrhea
cyclosporine: npehrotox and kyperK, GUM hypertrophy and hirsutism

133
Q

carcinoid and heart?

A

R sided valvular lesions

134
Q

meningococcemia + vasomotor collapse?

A

waterhouse friderichsen = adrenal hemorrhage

135
Q

tx of PBC?

A

ursodeoxycholic = 1st line

136
Q

metabolic abnormalities in hypothyroid?

A

hyponatremia
hyperlipidemia
elevations in CK and transminases (asx)

137
Q

renal vein thrombosis usually seen with what dz?

A

nephrotic syndrome, esp membranous

138
Q

HIV+ with large purple exophytic papules (hemorrhage prone)?

A

bartonella - bacillary angiomatosis

139
Q

increased urinary hydroxyproline?

A

PAgets

140
Q

tx Legionella?

A

macrolides or fluoroquinolones (levoflox)

141
Q

loss of pain/t in ipsilateral face, contralateral body?

A

Wallenberg = lateral medullary

142
Q

AKI in systemic sclerosis?

A

scleroderma renal crisis

MAHA or DIC, malignant HTN

143
Q

wheezing after taking NSAID, post nasal drip, rhinitis?

A

AERD (aspirin exacerbated resp dz)

nasal polyposis, bronchospasm

144
Q

palpable purpura, proteinuria, hematuria, HCV?

A

mixed cryoglobulinemia

145
Q

CHARGE syndrome?

A 
colobomas
heart defects
atresia of choanae
renal anomalies
growth impairment
ear abnormalities

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