R5 Flashcards

1
Q

which opiate is most nonionized at physiologic ph?

A

alfentanil (89%)

is moderately lipid soluble so is VERY fast and short acting

plasma-brain equilibrium time is 1.1minutes!

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2
Q

primary determinant of opiate onset and duration of action?

A

lipid solubility

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3
Q

lipid solubtility of fentanyls

A

al: 128
su: 1700
fent: 816

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4
Q

ESRD electrolyte changes

A

anemia (decreased EPO)
HYPO: calcemia (can’t reabsorb)
HYPER: kalemia, magnesia, lipidemia, tension, phosphatemia, uremia (AMS, platelet dysfunction)

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5
Q

why does liver disease result in decreased vitamin K levels?

A

decreased bile salt production, which are required for vitamin K absorption from the gut

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6
Q

why cant opiates be used as solo anesthetics?

A

ceiling effects -> recall and awareness

remi and fentanyl can have up to 80% reduction. Sufentanil can but needs 10x more

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7
Q

what beta blocker is metabolized by RBC esterases?

A

esmolol

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8
Q

cardioselective (B1) beta blockers

A
BEAM
bisoprolol
esmolol
atenolol
metoprolol
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9
Q

ratio of labetolol potency with PO/IV

A

alpha to beta
IV: 1:7
PO: 1:3

carvedilol is the only other common BB with alpha antagonism

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10
Q

what BB is metabolized by kidney?

A

atenolol is ONLY one

ATNelol

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11
Q

what is fenoldopam?

A

Dopamine 1 agonist -> peripheral vasodilation ia camp stimulation -> reduces preload AND afterload. Stimulates diuresis and naturesis. Can stimulate kidney perfusion while treating HTN

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12
Q

what reflects least amount of ultrasound beam reflection?

A

blood or other tissue with high water content (effusions, cyst)

air actually reflects ultrasound beams well -> use gel!

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13
Q

what determines acoustic impedance during ultrasound

A

density and propagation speed of sound

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14
Q

arterial oxygen content formula

A

CaO2 = (SaO2 * 1.36 * Hgb) + (PaO2 * 0.03)

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15
Q

partial pressure of oxygen at which 50% of hgb is saturated

A

normal P50 is 27%

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16
Q

weight is more reliable than pressure for which two gases?

A

NO and CO2 (and propane)

NO: Pressure gauge remains constant until only 400L (full is 1590L) remains). Full is 8.8kg pressure 745 psig, empty is 5.9 kg

17
Q

E-sized FULL gas cylinders

A
O2: 660
NO: 1590
CO2: 1590
Helium: 500
Air: 625
18
Q

what does engiotensin converting enzyme do?

A

catalyzes the degradation of bradykinin, which promotes vasodilation by increasing production of arachidonic acid metabolites and NO

RAS: renin released by JGA in response to decreased renal perfusion pressure, reduced sodium in macula densa, or sympathetic activation. Renin cleaves angiotensinogen to AT1. ACE then cleaves AT2 from AT1

AT2 increases Na retention via aldosterone stimulation and renal vasoconstriction. Increases fluid retention via stimulation of ADH from PP

19
Q

what is aldosterone’s action?

A

promotes Na and H2O retention in kidney via activation of Na/K pumps in distal tubule

20
Q

why do ACE inhibitors cause a decrease in GFR in setting of hypoperfusion?

A

decrease in efferent arteriolar resistance.

21
Q

purposeful response after repeated or painful stimulus

A

deep sedation

22
Q

How to calculate and read FeNa

A

UNa * PCr / PNa * UCr

<1% = prerenal 
>2% = intra/postrenal
23
Q

chronic management of CHR

A

afterload reduction: ACEi, BB, spironolactone

volume control: fluid and diuretic management

24
Q

when to continue DAPT for 12 months, regardless of type of stent?

A

if patients underwent PCI for ACS (can stop at 6 months if high risk of severe bleeding)

25
Q

NSAIDs inhibit what?

A

afferent renal artery vasodilation

also COX, preventing formation of prostaglandins and thromboxane

TXA: produced by platelets, promotes platelet activation
PGE: protective effects in GI and renal systems. cause vasodilation of afferent -> increase renal blood flow

26
Q

P450 34A system is involved in metabolism of

A

tramadol, benzos, TCAs, alfentanil, antipsychotics

inhibited by grapefruit and protease inhibitors
activated by st. john’s wort and anticonvulsants

27
Q

patients at highest risk of latex allergy

A

healthcare workers, multiple surgery, atopy, allergies to tropical or stone fruits, chestnuts.

if suspected - draw mast cell tryptase level within 15-30m

28
Q

MC involved in perioperative anaphylaxis

A

NMBAs, latex, antibiotics