Quiz Three Material Flashcards

1
Q

What is Metaplasia?

A

Replacement of one cell type with another

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2
Q

What is Dysplasia?

A

Disordered hyperplasia without maturation

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3
Q

What term describes the enhanced odds of getting a tumor from hyperplasia?

A

Preneoplastic

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4
Q

What is ischemia?

A

Inadequate circulation

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5
Q

What causes swelling in injured cells?

A

Loss of the Na pump

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6
Q

What two cellular signals can result in apoptosis?

A
  1. Fas or 2. TNF
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7
Q

What is the word for necrosis that causes the nucleus to become shriveled and dark?

A

Nuclear pyknosis

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8
Q

What is the word for necrosis that causes the nucleus to become digested and light?

A

Karyolysis

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9
Q

What is the word for necrosis that causes the nucleus to become fragmented?

A

Karyorrhexis

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10
Q

What sort of change in the liver would correspond to alcoholism, obesity, starvation and toxins?

A

Fatty changes

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11
Q

What sort of change in the liver would correspond to diabetes, glycogen storage disease and certain tumors?

A

Glycogen accumulation

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12
Q

What two diseases are linked to lipid storage in the liver?

A

Fabry’s and Gaucher’s

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13
Q

What are the three brown storage products?

A
  1. Lipofuscin, 2. Bilirubin and 3. Hemosiderin
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14
Q

What term describes too much fluid in the peritoneal space?

A

Ascites

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15
Q

What disease is associated with an increased end diastolic volume resulting in an increased stroke volume?

A

Frank Starling

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16
Q

What are the four causes of left sided heart failure?

A
  1. Ischemic heart disease, 2. Hypertension, 3. Aortic/mitral valve disease and 4. myocardial disease (cardiomyopathy or myocarditis)
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17
Q

What is the word for breathlessness?

A

Dyspnea

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18
Q

What describes Orthopnea (3)?

A
  1. Dyspnea while lying down, 2. reflection of vascular congestion and 3. develops quickly
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19
Q

What is paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea?

A

Extreme dyspnea caused from heart failure while lying down

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20
Q

What effect does left-sided heart failure have on the kidneys?

A

Prerenal azotemia (high BUN with normalish creatinine) and ischemic tubular necrosis

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21
Q

What is Prinzmetal’s angina?

A

Angina that occurs at rest, is brief/reversible and has ST-segment elevation/depression

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22
Q

What drugs target the proximal convoluted tubules?

A

Acetazolamides (carbonic anhydrase inhibitors)

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23
Q

What two drugs are loop diuretics?

A
  1. Furosemide and 2. Bumetanide
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24
Q

What are two side effects of loop diuretics?

A

Hypokalemia and inhibit NSAIDs

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25
Q

What are the two Thiazide diuretics?

A
  1. Hydrochlorothiaide and 2. Chlorthalindone
26
Q

What are the two side effects of Thiazide diuretics?

A
  1. Hypokalemia and 2. inhibit NSAIDs
27
Q

Where do Potassium-sparing diuretics effect?

A

Collecting tubule

28
Q

Where do Thiazides effect?

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

29
Q

What are the two Potassium-sparing drugs that we need to know?

A
  1. Spironolactone and 2. Amiloride
30
Q

Why is Mecamylamine rarely used?

A

It shuts down Nicotinic receptors - irrespective of their location

31
Q

What is the MOA for Guanethidine?

A

Inhibits release of NE

32
Q

What are the two B1 blockers?

A
  1. Atenolol and 2. Metoprolol
33
Q

What are the two non-selective B blockers?

A
  1. Propanolol and 2. Nadolol
34
Q

What are the two beta + alpha 1 blockers?

A
  1. Labetalol and 2. Carvedilol
35
Q

What are the two alpha one blockers?

A
  1. Prozosin and 2. Terazosin
36
Q

What are the two non-selective A blockers?

A
  1. Phentolamine and 2. Phenoxybenzamine
37
Q

What are two side effects to using Alpha one blockers?

A
  1. Orthostatic hypotension and 2. Nasal congestion
38
Q

What drug releases NO from the drug into the endothelium?

A

Hydralazine

39
Q

What three drugs reduce Ca influx?

A
  1. Verapamil, 2. Diltiazem and 3. Nifedipine
40
Q

What drug causes the hyperpolization of smooth muscles by opening K channels (and causes hair growth)?

A

Minoxidil

41
Q

What are the five vasodilators?

A
  1. Hydralazine, 2. Verapamil, 3. Diltiazem, 4. Nefidipine and 5. Minoxidil
42
Q

What is the name of the ACE inhibitor that we need to know?

A

Captopril

43
Q

What is the Angiotensin II Inhibitor we need to know?

A

Losartan

44
Q

What should be used as a short-acting treatment of angina?

A

Amyl Nitrate

45
Q

What three drugs are Ca channel blockers?

A
  1. Verapamil, 2. Nifedipine and 3. Diltiazem
46
Q

What are the three statins we need to know?

A
  1. Lovastatin, 2. Atorvastin and 3. Simvastatin
47
Q

What drug is a Fibrate?

A

Fenobrate

48
Q

What anti-cholesterol drug has toxicity and mild flushing as side effects?

A

Niacin

49
Q

What drug is associated with the bile acid-binding agents and is used to treat high cholesterol?

A

Cholesteramine

50
Q

What drug may aid in weight loss, is used to treat high cholesterol, and blocks the intestine from absorbing cholesterol?

A

Ezetimibe

51
Q

What drug can be used to treat heart disease?

A

Digitalis

52
Q

What drug acts like foxglove?

A

Bipyridines (Milrinone)

53
Q

What B1 adrenoceptor agonist helps counter heart attacks?

A

Dobutamine

54
Q

Which diuretic can be used to treat heart attacks?

A

Furosemide

55
Q

What ACE inhibitor is a prototype drug for the treatment of heart attacks?

A

Captopril

56
Q

Which vasodilator is used to treat heart attacks?

A

Hydralazine

57
Q

Which B-adrenoceptor blocker can help with heart attacks?

A

Metoprolol

58
Q

What antiarrhythmic drug functions by blocking Na channels (Class 1)?

A

Procainamide

59
Q

What antiarrhythmic drug functions by similar functions to a class 1 drug (Class 2)?

A

Quinidine

60
Q

What antiarrhythmic drug is the first choice for ventricular arrhythmias (Class 3)?

A

Lidocaine

61
Q

What antiarrhythmic drug functions by prolonging refractory periods (Class 3)?

A

Amiodarone

62
Q

What two antiarrhythmic drugs function by blocking Ca channels (Class 4)?

A
  1. Verapamil and 2. Diltiazem