Quiz One Material Flashcards

1
Q

What are the two methods of action in neurotransmitters?

A

Direct and indirect

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2
Q

What is it called when a drug or other neurotransmitter opens a channel?

A

Ionotrophic

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3
Q

What is it called when differences in membrane potential cause a channel to open?

A

Voltage-gated channels

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4
Q

What is the receptor called that, when a cellular signal, cause a cell to release secondary messengers?

A

Metabotrophic receptor

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5
Q

What are the three neurotransmitters that are catecholamines?

A
  1. Epinephrine, 2. Norepinephrine and 3. Dopamine
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6
Q

Which amino acid is used to create Dopamine?

A

Tyrosine

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7
Q

What is the name of the enzyme that transforms Tyr into DOPA?

A

Tyrosine Hydrolase

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8
Q

What is the name of the enzyme that transforms DOPA into DA?

A

Aromatic Amino Acid Decarboxylase

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9
Q

What transporter allows DA to be transferred into vesicles?

A

VMAT

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10
Q

What enzyme breaks down DA?

A

MAO

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11
Q

What transforms DA into NE?

A

Dopamine Beta Hydroxylase

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12
Q

What type of receptor is the autoreceptor for NE?

A

Alpha 2

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13
Q

What is the main type of cell that creates and releases Epinephrine?

A

Adrenal Medullary Cells

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14
Q

What is the second most likely culprit to release Epinephrine?

A

Some CNS Neurons

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15
Q

What catalyzes the change from NE to Epinephrine?

A

PNMT

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16
Q

What are three common maladies that 5 HT is used to treat?

A
  1. Sleeping disorder, 2. Depression and 3. Migraines
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17
Q

Which AA is used as a back bone to create 5 HT?

A

Tryptophan

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18
Q

Once the AA is taken up for the creation of 5 HT, what is the first enzyme that modifies it?

A

Tryptophan Hydroxylase

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19
Q

What is the AA for the creation of 5 HT turned into first?

A

5 HTP

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20
Q

What two autoreceptors exist for 5 HT?

A

5 HT alpha 1 and 5 HT beta

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21
Q

What is the AA that is used to start construction of ACh?

A

Choline

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22
Q

What is combined to form ACh?

A

Acetyl CoA and Choline

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23
Q

What is the name of the enzyme that creates ACh?

A

Choline Acetyl Transferase

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24
Q

What does the ACh signaling use instead of VMAT?

A

Vesicular Acetylcholine Transferase

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25
Q

What type of receptor is the ACh autoreceptor?

A

Maxurinic receptor (Muscarinic?)

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26
Q

What type of signals receive ACh signals?

A

Muscarinic or Nicotinic

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27
Q

What happens to free ACh floating around extracellularly?

A

It is degraded via Acetylcholinesterase to Choline

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28
Q

What type of receptor does NE interact with postsynaptically?

A

Alpha or Beta receptor

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29
Q

Which AA is used to create GABA?

A

Glutamine

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30
Q

What enzyme transforms an AA to make GABA?

A

Glutamate Decarboxylase

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31
Q

What transporter moves GABA into vesicles?

A

Vesicular GABA Transporter

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32
Q

What two receptors exist for the post-synaptic reception of GABA?

A

GABA alpha and GABA beta receptors

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33
Q

What type of receptor is the autoreceptor for GABA?

A

GABA beta

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34
Q

What brings GABA back into the cell?

A

GABA transporter

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35
Q

What enzyme transforms GABA in astrocytes?

A

GABA transaminase

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36
Q

What pathway is always excitatory?

A

Glutamate signaling

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37
Q

What is the starting AA in the glutamate signaling pathway?

A

Glutamine

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38
Q

Glutamine tranforms into _?

A

Alpah Keto glutarate

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39
Q

What transforms alpha keto glutarate into glutamate?

A

Aminotransferase

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40
Q

What packages glutamate?

A

Vesicular glutamate transporter

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41
Q

What two types of post-synaptic receptors exist for glutamate?

A
  1. NMDA and 2. AMPA
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42
Q

What do Astrocytes do with Glutamate?

A

They transform it into glutamine and ship it back to the pre-synaptic neuron

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43
Q

What enzyme is used to transform Glutamate into glutamine?

A

Glutamine synthase

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44
Q

What affect do endorphins have on neurotranmitters?

A

GABA decreases

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45
Q

What type of receptor do endorphins target?

A

Mew opioids

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46
Q

How does Histamine act?

A

On the H3 receptor as an inhibitory heteroreceptor

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47
Q

What does neurotensin do?

A

Regulates DA system - inhibitory feedback

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48
Q

Where is neurotensin found?

A

GI tract - inhibits motility and circulation

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49
Q

How does amphetamine work?

A

Increases DA release

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50
Q

How does cocaine work?

A

Blocks DA reuptake

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51
Q

How does methylpenidate work?

A

Blocks DA reuptake

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52
Q

How does Tricyclic work?

A

Blocks reuptake of NE and 5 HT

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53
Q

What do endocannabinoids target?

A

Anandamides

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54
Q

What type of receptor turns off DA release?

A

D2

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55
Q

What do kainate receptors respond to?

A

Glutamate

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56
Q

What transforms Alpha-keto-glutarate into Glutamate?

A

Glutamate dehydrogenase

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57
Q

What four structures tend to be targeted by parasympathetic innervation?

A
  1. Smooth muscles, 2. Gland cells, 3. Cardiac muscles and 4. Nerve terminals
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58
Q

Name the neurotransmitter route for parasympathetic innervation?

A

Medulla -> ACh to Nicotinic receptor -> ACh Muscarinic receptor

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59
Q

Name the neurotransmitter route for sympathetic sweat gland innervation?

A

Spinal cord -> ACh to Nicotinic receptor in Sympathetic chain -> ACh on Muscarinic receptors in sweat glands

60
Q

Name the neurotransmitter route for sympathetic cardiac, smooth muscle, gland cells, and nerve terminal innervation?

A

Spinal cord -> ACh to Nicotinic receptor in Sympathetic chain -> NE on alpha and beta receptors in target cells

61
Q

Name the neurotransmitter route for sympathetic renal vascular smooth muscle innervation?

A

Spinal cord -> ACh to Nicotinic receptor in Sympathetic chain -> DA on D1 receptors in target cells

62
Q

Name the neurotransmitter route for sympathetic release of Epinephrine and NE?

A

Spinal cord -> ACh to Nicotinic receptor in adrenal medulla -> releases Epi and NE

63
Q

Name the neurotransmitter route for somatic innervation?

A

Ach to Nicotinic receptor in skeletal muscle

64
Q

What four structures tend to be targeted by parasympathetic innervation?

A
  1. Smooth muscles, 2. Gland cells, 3. Cardiac muscles and 4. Nerve terminals
65
Q

Name the neurotransmitter route for parasympathetic innervation?

A

Medulla -> ACh to Nicotinic receptor -> ACh Muscarinic receptor

66
Q

Name the neurotransmitter route for sympathetic sweat gland innervation?

A

Spinal cord -> ACh to Nicotinic receptor in Sympathetic chain -> ACh on Muscarinic receptors in sweat glands

67
Q

Name the neurotransmitter route for sympathetic cardiac, smooth muscle, gland cells, and nerve terminal innervation?

A

Spinal cord -> ACh to Nicotinic receptor in Sympathetic chain -> NE on alpha and beta receptors in target cells

68
Q

Name the neurotransmitter route for sympathetic renal vascular smooth muscle innervation?

A

Spinal cord -> ACh to Nicotinic receptor in Sympathetic chain -> DA on D1 receptors in target cells

69
Q

Name the neurotransmitter route for sympathetic release of Epinephrine and NE?

A

Spinal cord -> ACh to Nicotinic receptor in adrenal medulla -> releases Epi and NE

70
Q

Name the neurotransmitter route for somatic innervation?

A

Ach to Nicotinic receptor in skeletal muscle

71
Q

Cell bodies located in the thoracolumbar region with axons that extend to para- and pre-vertebral ganglia that, in the ganglia, have synapses with post-ganglionic neurons all describes which type of nervous system?

A

Pre-ganglionic Sympathetic System

72
Q

Cell bodies are in para- and pre-vertebral ganglia, axons/fibers extend to effector tissues/organs, and pre-ganglionic nerves also innervate adrenal medulla all describe what nervous system?

A

Post-ganglionic Sympathetic nervous system

73
Q

Cell bodies are craniosacral, axons extend to ganglia located near or in effector tissues/organs, and in the ganglia, axon terminals synapse ont other neurons all describes which nervous system?

A

Pre-ganglionic Parasympathetic Nervous System

74
Q

Cell bodies are near effector tissues/organs and axons innervate effector tissue both describe which nervous system?

A

Post-ganglionic Parasympathetic Nervous System

75
Q

What signaling is used in pre-ganglionic signaling?

A

ACh to nicotinic receptors

76
Q

What is the most common post-ganglionic sympathetic receptor?

A

NE

77
Q

Which receptors are activated by DA?

A

D1, (other D’s as well), Alpha and Beta

78
Q

What neurotransmitter is used on post-ganglionic parasympathetic neurons?

A

ACh on muscarinic receptors in effector tissues or nicotinic receptors in somatic muscles

79
Q

What percentage of people in the US develop epilepsy? How about in the world?

A

1:26 in US, 1:100 in the world

80
Q

What percentage of epileptic patients are therapy-resistant?

A

25-40%

81
Q

What is epileptogenesis?

A

A sequence of events that converts a normal neuronal network into a hyperexcitable network

82
Q

What is the lifetime prevalence of seizures?

A

9-10% of the population

83
Q

What is the largest cause of epilepsy?

A

Ion Channel mutations

84
Q

What are the four criteria of a simple partial seizure?

A
  1. Localized focus, 2. Minimal spread, 3. Normal awareness/memory/conciousness and 4. Short duration
85
Q

What are the three signs of a complex partial seizure?

A
  1. Localized, 2. Awareness/memory/conciousness are lost, and 3. duration is short
86
Q

What is an “aura” in regards to seizures?

A

When there is a disturbance of higher cerebral function

87
Q

What are the three characteristics of a secondary generalized seizure?

A
  1. Begin as simple/complex partial, 2. phases of tonic and clonic phases and 3. postictal phase - confusion afterwards
88
Q

What type of seizure is an absence seizure?

A

A generalized seizure

89
Q

What tends to make new ASDs safer than old ones?

A

Fewer drug-drug interactions

90
Q

What are the three primary MOA for ASDs?

A
  1. Enhancement of GABA inhibition, 2. Reduction of excitatory (usually glutamate) and 3. Modification of ionic conductances
91
Q

What is currently the only ASD for Absence seizures?

A

Ethosuximide

92
Q

What is the drug of choice for partial and generalized T/C seizures?

A

Carbamazepine

93
Q

What is the MOA for carbamazepine?

A

Blocks Na channels

94
Q

What disease can result from medication, causes severe rashes, and is most common in Chinese?

A

Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

95
Q

What is concerning about grapefruit juice and carbamazepine?

A

It raises the amount of drug in the system

96
Q

What is the MOA for ethosuximide?

A

Reduces T-type Ca2+ channel currents

97
Q

What is the name of the ASD that was commonly used in the US, but was found to have risks outweighing the benefits and is still frequently used in other countries today?

A

Phenolbarbital

98
Q

What type of patient should absolutely never use Phenolbarbital?

A

Those with Absence seizsures

99
Q

What is the drug that causes gingival hyperplasia and has zero-order kinetics at high doses?

A

Phenytoin

100
Q

What is the MOA for Phenytoin?

A

Blockade of Na channels

101
Q

What drug has a nonlinear, dose-dependent kinetics?

A

Carbamazepine

102
Q

Which ASD is being investigated for its weight-loss effect and can cause the metabolism of estrogen (ineffective birth control)?

A

Topiramate

103
Q

What is topiramate’s MOA?

A

Blocks Na channels, inhibits Ca channels, inhibits AMPA/kainate receptors and potentiates GABA

104
Q

What ASD is strictly contraindicated in hepatic disease or in pregnancy?

A

Valproic Acid

105
Q

What are the three best drugs to prescribe for partial seizures?

A
  1. Carbamazepine, 2. Phenytoin and 3. Topiramate
106
Q

What are the two best drugs to treat generalized tonic-clonic seizures?

A
  1. Valproate and 2. Topiramate
107
Q

What are the two best ASD for treating Absence seizures?

A
  1. Ethosuximide and 2. Valproate
108
Q

Which ASDs cause dizziness, fatigue, ataxia and diplopia?

A

All ASDs

109
Q

Which ASD causes irritability?

A

Levetiracetam

110
Q

Which ASD causes word-finding difficulty?

A

Topiramate

111
Q

Which ASD causes weight loss?

A

Topiramate

112
Q

Which ASDs cause weight gain?

A

Everything but Topiramate

113
Q

What are the three agonists of the muscarinic receptors?

A
  1. ACh, 2. Bethanechol and 3. Pilocarpine
114
Q

What are the two antagonists of the muscarinic receptors?

A
  1. Atropine and 2. Scopolamine
115
Q

What is bathanechol typically used for?

A

GI motility

116
Q

What is Pilocarpine used for?

A

Glaucomas

117
Q

What is the agonist for Nicotinic receptors?

A

ACh

118
Q

What are the two antagonists of nicotinic muscle receptors?

A
  1. Succinylcholine and 2. D-tubocurarine
119
Q

What is the antagonist of nicotinic nerve receptors?

A
  1. Mecamylamine
120
Q

How does Succinylcholine act?

A

It keeps cells depolarized

121
Q

How does Tubocurare work?

A

It competes with ACh at Nicotinic receptors (non-depolarizing)

122
Q

How does Sarin (nerve gas) affect the body?

A

Causes cholinesterase inhibition and death

123
Q

What is the name of the anti-cholinesterase drug that has a short duration of action, is used for glaucomas and is an antidote for atropine?

A

Physostigmine

124
Q

What is the anti-cholinesterase drug that has an extended duration of action and is used to treat Alzheimer’s?

A

Donepezil

125
Q

What drug prevents the release of ACh and is used to treat muscle dystonia (spasms) and remove wrinkles?

A

Botulinim Toxin

126
Q

What drug is used in dentistry to treat xerostomia in Sjogren’s syndrome?

A

Cevimeline

127
Q

What drug is used to treat xerostomia after radiotherapy?

A

Pilocarpine

128
Q

What are the two agonists of Alpha one receptors?

A
  1. Epi > NE and 2. Phenylephrine
129
Q

What is the antagonist for Alpha one receptors?

A

Prazosin

130
Q

What are the three agonists for Alpha two receptors?

A
  1. Epi > NE, 2. Clonidine and 3. Guanfacine
131
Q

What are the two agonists for Beta one receptors?

A
  1. Epi = NE and 2. Isoproterenol
132
Q

What is the antagonist for Beta one receptors?

A

Propranolol

133
Q

What are the four agonists for Beta two receptors?

A
  1. Epi&raquo_space; NE, 2. Isoproterenol, 3. albuterol and 4. terbutaline
134
Q

What is the antagonist for Beta two receptors?

A

Propranolol

135
Q

What are the two agonists of D1 receptors?

A
  1. DA and 2. Fenoldapam
136
Q

What are three uses for Alpha one agonists?

A
  1. treat shock, .2 nasal decongestant and 3. mydriasis
137
Q

What are two uses for Alpha two agonists?

A
  1. Treatment of hypertension and 2. treatment of ADHD patients
138
Q

What are three uses for Beta one agonists?

A
  1. Asthma, 2. COPD and 3. relax muscles of uterus
139
Q

What are the three drugs that release NE?

A
  1. Ephedrine, 2. Ephedra and 3. Pseudoephedrine
140
Q

What are NE agonists used for?

A

Decongestants and Dietary supplements

141
Q

What are the two non-selective Alpha antagonists?

A
  1. Phenoxybenzamine and 2. Phentolamine
142
Q

What two reasons would you use a non-selective Alpha antagonist for?

A
  1. Pheocromocytoma and 2. hypertensive emergencies
143
Q

What are the two alpha one antigonists?

A
  1. Prazosin and 2. terazosin
144
Q

What is used to treat benign prostatic hypertrophy?

A

Tamsulosin

145
Q

What are antimuscarinic drugs used for (2)?

A
  1. Parkinson’s and 2. motion sickness