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Human Disease and Therapeutics > Final Material and Drugs > Flashcards

Final Material and Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Which molecule has two rings?

A

Serotonin

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2
Q

What molecule has two HO groups?

A

Dopamine

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3
Q

What molecule has the most nitrogens (3)?

A

Histamine

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4
Q

What molecule does not have a monoamine group?

A

Acetylcholine

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5
Q

What would a dopamine beta hydroxylase insufficiency cause?

A

Less DA in the system

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6
Q

What would a tryptophan hydroxylase insufficiency cause?

A

Less 5HT in the system

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7
Q

What would a Pheochromocytoma cause symptom-wise?

A

Increased blood pressure, severe headaches, tremors, paleness and shortness of breath

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8
Q

What would administration of propranolol cause?

A

Decreased Beta Sympathetics

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9
Q

What degrades DA, NE and 5HT?

A

MAO

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10
Q

What effect would an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor have in the body?

A

ACh increase

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11
Q

What effect would a muscarinic antagonist have on the body?

A

ACh decrease

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12
Q

What acts upon nicotinic receptors in the adrenal medulla?

A

Sympathetic preganglionic neurons

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13
Q

What type of receptors do motor neurons act on in the body?

A

Nicotinic receptors

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14
Q

What neurons release DA?

A

Postganglionic Sympathetic neurons

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15
Q

What do preganglionic and parasympathetic fibers release?

A

ACh

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16
Q

Postganglionic sympathetics fibers release?

A

NE

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17
Q

Postganglionic parasympathetic fibers release?

A

ACh

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18
Q

What does Bethanechol administration cause?

A

Increased acid secretion, decreased HR, GI contraction and Increased secretions (parasympathetic agonist effects)

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19
Q

What is the effect of propranolol?

A

Beta 1 and 2 antagonist

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20
Q

What is the effect of prazosin?

A

Alpha 1 antagonist

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21
Q

What is the effect of pilocarpine?

A

Muscarinic agonist

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22
Q

What is the effect of phenylephrine?

A

Alpha 1 agonist

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23
Q

What is the effect of clonidine?

A

Alpha 2 agonist

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24
Q

What is the effect of isoproterenol?

A

Beta 1 and Beta 2 agonist

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25
Q

What is used to treat bronchospasm, anaphylaxis, restores function in cardiac arrest, treats open-angle glaucomas and prolongs the action of local anesthetics?

A

Epinephrine

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26
Q

What is the best drug to treat chronic asthma?

A

Albuterol

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27
Q

What drug is a non-selective alpha antagonist that is used to treat pheochromocytomas and hypertensive emergencies?

A

Phentolamine

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28
Q

What is the effect of atenolol?

A

Beta 1 blocker

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29
Q

What is the effect of albuterol?

A

Beta 2 agonist

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30
Q

What would an alpha 1 agonist do in the body?

A

Contracts radial muscles, constricts GI sphincters and constricts vasculature (decongestant)

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31
Q

What would a beta 1 agonist do in the body?

A

Increase HR and conduction

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32
Q

What two types of drug would a doctor use for an eye exam?

A
  1. Alpha 1 agonist or 2. Muscarinic antagonist
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33
Q

What drug is best used for uncomplicated abscence seizures, has a long half life, and is the best treatment for abscence seizures?

A

Ethosuximide

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34
Q

What anti-epileptic drug is a non-competitive antagonist of AMPA receptors?

A

Perampanel

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35
Q

What drug is best for treating partial seizures and bipolar disorder?

A

Carbamazepine

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36
Q

What drug is used to treat generalized tonic-clonic seizures, uncomplicated absence seizures, atypical absence seizures and simple/complex partial seizures?

A

Valproic Acid

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37
Q

What seizure type is associated with localized focus, minimal spread, short duration, and maintenance of normal awareness, conciousness and memory?

A

Simple Partial

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38
Q

What seizure type is associated with localized focus, minimal spread, short duration, and a loss of one or more of normal awareness, conciousness and memory?

A

Complex Partial

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39
Q

What seizure type is associated with generalized focus, possible spread, short duration, and loss of normal awareness, conciousness and memory and has tonic-clonic cycles?

A

Generalized Tonic-Clonic seizure

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40
Q

What seizure type is associated with children playing baseball or in class?

A

Generalized Absence

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41
Q

Sedative or ethanol withdrawal, metabolic and/or electrolyte imbalance and myoclonic seizures are all what?

A

Seizure precipitants

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42
Q

What antiseizure drug is associated with a non-dose dependent risk of gingival hyperplasia?

A

Phenytoin

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43
Q

What drug is used to treat partial seizures in combination with other drugs and is an anticonvulsant?

A

Tigabine

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44
Q

What is least likely to cause a degenerative CNS disorder?

A

Enhanced GABA receptor activity

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45
Q

What is enhanced NMDA receptor activity associated with?

A

Huntington’s Disease

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46
Q

What does does the combo of L-dopa + carbidopa treat?

A

Parkinson’s Disease

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47
Q

What drug is used for treating Schizophrenia, blocks D2 receptors and is inexpensive?

A

Haloperidol

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48
Q

What drug treats Parkinson’s Disease and also restless Leg syndrome?

A

Pramipexole

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49
Q

What disease is associated with excess DA and less GABA activity?

A

Huntington’s Disease

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50
Q

What disease is associated with damage to myelin sheaths around nerves?

A

Multiple Sclerosis

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51
Q

What disease is linked to 5HT and DA release and has a high genetic component?

A

Bipolar disorder

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52
Q

What disease is caused by extra stimulation of the fear and anxiety centers of the brain?

A

Major Anxiety disorder

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53
Q

What disease is associated with abnormal amyloid precursor protein, beta amyloid plaques, and neurofibrillary tangles?

A

Alzheimer’s Disease

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54
Q

What disease is associated with Alpha Synuclein Lewy Bodies?

A

Parkinson’s Disease

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55
Q

What disease is a mild disease of mood swings?

A

Cyclothymia

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56
Q

What types of diseases are considered Axis I?

A

Major psychological disorders like Schizophrenia

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57
Q

What types of diseases are considered Axis II?

A

Personality disorders and mental retardations

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58
Q

What types of diseases are considered Axis III?

A

Medical problems caused by trauma, accident, etc. that interfere with a patient’s mental capacity.

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59
Q

What types of diseases are considered Axis IV?

A

Stresses from death, loss of job, etc. changes mental state.

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60
Q

What four things make a good prognosis for Shizophrenia?

A
  1. Female, 2. Older, 3. No family history and 4. Positive symptoms
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61
Q

What drug is used to treat Parkinson’s Disease and functions through COMT inhibition?

A

Entacapone

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62
Q

What drug treats Shizophrenia and is an atypical D2 and 5HT2A antagonist?

A

Clozapine

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63
Q

What drug treats Schizophrenia and is a phenothiazine that is a D2 antagonist?

A

Clorpromazine

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64
Q

What drug treats Bulimia and is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor drug?

A

Fluoxetine

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65
Q

What drug treats Multiple Sclerosis and is an anti-inflammatory steroid?

A

Prednisone

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66
Q

What drug treats Bipolar mania and also functions as an antiseizure medication?

A

Carbamazepine

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67
Q

What drug treats Bipolar mania and functions by altering G proteins?

A

Lithium Carbonate

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68
Q

What drug treats severe anxiety and acts as an agonist at benzodiazepine receptors?

A

Alprazolam

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69
Q

What drug treats severe anxiety and is a non-addicting substitute for sedatives?

A

Bupropion

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70
Q

What drug treats ADHD and is a DAT and/or NET blocker but mostly a non-stimulant?

A

Modafinil

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71
Q

What drug treats Alzheimer’s disease and is a cholinesterase inhibitor?

A

Donepezil

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72
Q

What drug is SSRI that treats depression, anxiety and other mood disorders?

A

Sertraline

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73
Q

What anti Alzheimer’s drug eventually worsens the patient’s memory instead of improving it?

A

Benztropine

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74
Q

How does an Alzheimer’s drug worsen a patient’s memory?

A

From its anticholinergic activity

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75
Q

What drug of abuse is most likely to be neurotoxic due to its ability to dramatically alter the intracellular and extracellular release patterns of DA?

A

Methamphetamine

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76
Q

What illegal drug functions by hijacking opioid receptors in the brain, releasing DA, and functioning as an analgesic to the body?

A

Heroin

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77
Q

What drug functions by releasing DA, attaches to acetylcholine receptors and mimicks the effects of ACh?

A

Nicotine

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78
Q

What drug treats ADHD and Narcolepsy and is a stimulant?

A

Methylphenidate

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79
Q

What genetic factor can predispose individuals to Cocaine addiction?

A

Diminished activity of D2 receptors

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80
Q

What drug treats nerve and muscle pain created by diabetes?

A

Pregabalin (Lyrica)

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81
Q

What NSAID is associated with stomach discomfort and bleeding?

A

Aspirin

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82
Q

What drug is a NSAID that is a selective COX 2 inhibitor?

A

Celecoxib

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83
Q

What is considered to be a modulating receptor on the free endings of sensory nerves?

A

Prostaglandin Receptors

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84
Q

What type of pain occurs without the activation of receptors on free endings of sensory nerve terminals?

A

Neuropathic Pain

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85
Q

What type of pain typically responds to NSAIDs?

A

Somatic Pain

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86
Q

What type of pain typically responds to Opioid narcotic analgesics?

A

Visceral pain

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87
Q

Where is the plexus of Rashchkow located?

A

Dental pulp

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88
Q

What nerve fibers are small, myelinated and are associated with sharp localized pain?

A

A (delta) fibers

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89
Q

What nerve fibers are small and non-myelinated and are associated with dull, diffuse pain?

A

C fibers

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90
Q

Which fiber, A (delta) or C, conducts pain impulses faster?

A

A (delta)

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91
Q

Nociceptors on the free endings of nerves are associated with which process of nociception?

A

Transduction

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92
Q

What type of COX is associated with prostaglandin-mediated inflammation/pain?

A

COX 2

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93
Q

What is the natural opioid peptides that activate kappa opioid receptors?

A

Dynorphins

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94
Q

What type of drug is Indomethacin?

A

NSAID analgesic

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95
Q

What type of drug is Diflunisal?

A

NSAID analgesic

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96
Q

What type of drug is Naprosyn?

A

NSAID analgesic

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97
Q

What type of drug is Meperidine?

A

Narcotic Pain reliever

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98
Q

What is the most potent narcotic analgesic?

A

Fentanyl

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99
Q

What are four common side effects to taking potent narcotic analgesics?

A
  1. Constipation, 2. Reduced pulmonary reflex, 3. Additive/synergistic with CNS depressants and 4. Euphoria
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100
Q

What term describes disordered, unregulated cell proliferation without maturation?

A

Dysplasia

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101
Q

What term describes replacement of one cell type with another?

A

Metaplasia

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102
Q

When a patient experiences breathing problems associated with pulmonary edema, dyspnea while laying down and has a normal sized liver, what heat condition is the most likely cause?

A

Left-sided heart failure

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103
Q

What condition is associated with shortness of breath, swelling of the feet/hands, urinating, weakness, fatigue and prominent neck veins?

A

Right-sided heart failure

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104
Q

What is the term that describes squeezing feeling, tightness and pain in the chest?

A

Angina Pectoralis

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105
Q

The facts that 10-20% of patients experience no pain, the majority of these patients experience pulmonary edema, and that this symptom is often associated with a mural thrombus describe which pathology?

A

Myocardial Infarction

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106
Q

What term describes cardiac contraction rates above 100 bpm?

A

Tachy-arrhythmias

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107
Q

What is the most common ineffective cardiac contraction?

A

Atrial fibrillation

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108
Q

What is elevated blood pressure due to a pheochromocytoma referred to as?

A

Secondary hypertension

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109
Q

What four things are compensations for congestive heart failure?

A
  1. Cardiohypertrophy, 2. Increase in stroke volume, 3. Increased catecholamine activity and 4. Tachycardia
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110
Q

Retrosternal chest pain that occurs during exertion and resolves 2-5 minutes afterwards and last for over six months describes what condition?

A

Fixed (stable) atherosclerotic stenosis of a coronary artery

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111
Q

What coronary pathology is usually asymptomatic until it ruptures and can cause death?

A

Coronary thrombosis

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112
Q

What pathology is associated with anxiety and feelings of doom, fainting, sweating, nausea, pallor, rapid weak pulse, and orthopnea (trouble breathing while laying down)?

A

Aortic Dissection

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113
Q

What pathology is associated with shortness of breath, sharp chest pain, rapid heart rate, rapid breathing, coughing up blood/pink foamy mucus and heart palpitations?

A

Pulmonary embolus

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114
Q

What pathology is associated with palpitations, weakness, reduced ability to exercise, lightheadedness and confusion and often does not have symptoms?

A

Atrial Fibrillation

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115
Q

What type of infection is related to valvular heart disease?

A

Streptococcal infections

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116
Q

What is the danger of endocarditis?

A

Fatal Thromboemboli

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117
Q

What type of premature beat is less dangerous?

A

Atrial

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118
Q

What can cause Bradycardia?

A

Cardiac conduction blocks

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119
Q

What causes tachy-arrhythmias?

A

Multiple ectopic foci

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120
Q

What is the major risk of atrial fibrillation?

A

Stroke-causing emboli

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121
Q

What are cardiac arrhythmias often associated with?

A

Congestive Heart Failure

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122
Q

What anti-arrhythmia drug is not the first choice for treatment due to having a short half-life and potential toxicity?

A

Procainamide

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123
Q

What is the drug of choice for ventricular arrhythmias?

A

Amiodarone

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124
Q

What drug treats heart failure due to its ability to reduce heart rate and block sympathetic nervous system activity?

A

Metoprolol

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125
Q

What drug treats heart failure and helps the heart to pump blood?

A

Dobutamine

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126
Q

What drug treats high blood pressure, treats heart failure, is used after heart attacks and protects the kidneys from diabetic problems?

A

Captopril

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127
Q

What drug treats high blood pressure, treats heart failure and is a vasodilator?

A

Hydralazine

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128
Q

What drug treats congestive heart failure and heart arrhythmias?

A

Digitalis

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129
Q

What drug is a more potent loop diuretic than hydrochlorthiazide?

A

Furosemide

130
Q

What drug is known as an osmotic diuretic?

A

Mannitol

131
Q

What drug is known as a Calcium channel blocker?

A

Diltiazem

132
Q

What drug is known for being an ACE inhibitor?

A

Captopril

133
Q

If a patient has a high cholesterol and high triglyceride level, what drug is most likely prescribed to treat this condition?

A

Lovastatin

134
Q

What drug treats high cholesterol and high triglycerides with a good diet (its slow)?

A

Fenofibrate (Fenobrate)

135
Q

What drug treats high cholesterol levels and relieves severe itching caused by liver disease?

A

Cholesteramine

136
Q

What drug lowers high cholesterol levels in the blood and is often prescribed with statins?

A

Exetimibe

137
Q

What condition is associated with smooth muscle hypertrophy and hyper-inflated lungs?

A

Asthma

138
Q

What is fibrosing lung disease often associated with?

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

139
Q

What is associated with the destruction of elastin and muscles of the pulmonary bronchial walls?

A

Cystic fibrosis

140
Q

What drug is described as a “controller” agent and is most likely to be prescribed as the primary drug for regular use to treat long-term stable moderate to severe asthma?

A

Fluticasone

141
Q

What drug is used to treat asthma and other lung problems such as emphysema and on-going bronchitis and is a bronco-dilator?

A

Theophylline

142
Q

What drug prevents asthma attacks and treats allergies?

A

Mentelukast

143
Q

What drug prevents asthma attacks, reduces lung inflammation and is used right before exposure to inducers of bronchospasms?

A

Cromolyn

144
Q

What drug treats asthma, brochitis, other breathing problems and is a bronchodilator?

A

Albuterol

145
Q

What is responsible for the majority of renal/ureter stones?

A

Calcium Oxalate

146
Q

What is the most common cause of kidney stones?

A

Not drinking enough water

147
Q

Flank pain, 10-20% result in kidney failure, and often results in kidney scarring are all symptoms of what pathology?

A

Pyelonephritis

148
Q

What is the most frequent drug treatment of bacterial cystitis or urethritis?

A

Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole

149
Q

What are the majority of renal cancers?

A

Renal Cell carcinomas

150
Q

What time period of complete urinary tract obstruction by a stone typically causes permanent kidney damage?

A

3 weeks

151
Q

Which gender has more trouble with bladder infections?

A

Females

152
Q

Which thrombi treatment drug is a platelet aggregate inhibitor?

A

Clopidagrel

153
Q

Which thrombi treatment drug dissolves an established clot?

A

Streptokinase

154
Q

Which thrombi treatment drug is used to treat a heparin overdose?

A

Protamine

155
Q

Which thrombi treatment drug is antagonized by vitamin K?

A

Warfarin

156
Q

Which thrombi treatment drug has actions similar to heparin?

A

Enoxaparin

157
Q

What type of stone is related to magnesium ammonium phosphate?

A

Struvite

158
Q

The second most common kidney stone (10-15%), must acidify urine pH to treat, TMP-SMX is given as a treatment and higher commonality in females than males all describes what condition?

A

Struvite kidney stones

159
Q

What disease is associated with chronic nervousness, weight loss, hot and sweaty, heart beats rapidly, thyroid enlargement and a high free T4 score?

A

Graves disease

160
Q

What disease is caused by viral infection, causes hyperthyroidism first, then hypothyroidism, is self-limited and is treated with NSAIDs?

A

DeQuervain Disease

161
Q

What disease is an autoimmune disease, is the number one cause of hypothyroidism in the US, and usually affects middle-aged women?

A

Hashimoto disease

162
Q

What disease is associated with slow growth (over decades), is related to iodine deficiency and can be treated with radioactive iodine therapy?

A

Nodular goiter

163
Q

What disease is caused by an autonomous thyroid, causes hyperthyroidism and is the 2nd most common cause of hyperthyroidism in the US?

A

Toxic nodule

164
Q

What is the best treatment of Graves disease?

A

Beta blocker and radioactive iodine

165
Q

If there is less Calcium in the blood than there should be, what is likely not functioning?

A

Parathyroid glands

166
Q

What is the most common cause of hypercalcemia in the blood?

A

Parathyroid adenoma

167
Q

What causes a patient to develop a large tongue and jaws, have space between mandibular teeth, a low voice, failing eyesight and large hands?

A

Anterior pituitary adenoma

168
Q

What pathology is associated with a fractured bone and plasma cells becoming cancerous?

A

Multiple myeloma

169
Q

What pathology is associated with a lowered body temperature, mental deterioration, seizures, stupor and hypoglycema?

A

Hypothalamic infarct

170
Q

What pathology results in far less hormone production and is often related to brain trauma?

A

Posterior pituitary insufficiency

171
Q

What disease results in weight gain around the stomach, fat loss from the arms and legs, fat deposits on the neck, and results from too much steroid use/too much cortisol?

A

Cushing’s disease

172
Q

What pathology is associated with severe headaches, bouts of hypertension, high 24-hour catecholamines in the urine and a growth in the adrenal cortex?

A

Adrenal cortical adenoma

173
Q

What pathology is associated with darkening of the skin, reduced sex drive, stomach pain and results from the adrenal glands not producing enough hormones?

A

Addison’s disease

174
Q

What three things are associated with insulin activity?

A
  1. Reduce HbA1c, 2 .Connected with C-peptide in its presursor form and prevents glucosuria
175
Q

What type of diabetes has diuresis, severe abnormal lipid metabolism, no insulin, long-term increased risk of atherosclerosis and hypertension, and has increased risk of periodontal disease?

A

Type I

176
Q

What type of diabetes has insulin receptors that are resistant to activation, diuresis, increased thirst, long-term increased risk for atherosclerosis and hypertension and increased risk of periodontal disease?

A

Type II

177
Q

What type of diabetes are insulin receptors resistant, diuresis and increased thirst?

A

Gestational diabetes

178
Q

What type of diabetes has diuresis and increased thirst?

A

Diabetes Insipidus

179
Q

What drug is a sulfonylurea that increases the release of insulin from Beta cells?

A

Todbutamide

180
Q

What drug diminishes fat absorption in intestines?

A

Orlistat

181
Q

What drug helps with rapid onset and early peak action insulin?

A

Lispro

182
Q

What drug reduces insulin resistance in muscle cells?

A

Rosiglitazone

183
Q

What drug is a biguanide that decreases glucose production in the liver?

A

Metformin

184
Q

What drug slows digestion and absorption of starch and disaccharides from intestines?

A

Acarbose

185
Q

What drug is a weight-reduction drug that is thought to suppress appetite by stimulating the 5HT2c receptors in the hypothalamus?

A

Lorcaserin

186
Q

What drug is used in diet plans to reduce weight?

A

Phentermine

187
Q

What disease is associated with hyper-pigmentation of the skin, is associated with weight loss, is often associated with a deficiency in aldosterone, is frequently treated with prednisone and is worsened by the administration of mifepristone?

A

Addison’s disease

188
Q

What drug is a monoclonal antibody used to treat excessive bone loss?

A

Denosumab

189
Q

What drug treats/prevents osteoporosis/Paget’s disease?

A

Alendronate

190
Q

What drug is used to treat motion sickness, nausea, vomiting, dizziness, allergies and to relieve stress before a surgery?

A

Promethazine

191
Q

What drug treats inflammation in many medical situations and is a corticosteroid?

A

Dexamethasone

192
Q

What disease is associated with slow closure of the draining canals of the aqueous humor, accounts for 90% of its cases, has a predilection in African Americans and has diabetes and high blood pressure as risk factors?

A

Open-angle Glaucoma

193
Q

Being a diabetic, aging and being a construction worker all predispose you for what disease?

A

Cataracts

194
Q

What disease almost never occurs before 50 years of age, has fast progression if hemorrhage and fluid buildup are associated with it, has bevacizumab as a treatment of its “wet” form and is the most common cause of severe loss of sight in patients over 60 years of age?

A

Age-related macular degeneration of the eye

195
Q

What percentage of breast cancer is found with a mammograph?

A

85%

196
Q

What disease is more likely to occur in women with a history of breast cysts, has no apparent racial link and has BRCA 1 and 2 as the most common genes associated with this condition?

A

Breast carcinoma

197
Q

What are the survival rates of stage 0 breast cancer vs. stage IV?

A

92% and 13%

198
Q

Endometrial polyps and endometrial adenocarcinomas are both linked to which pre-disposing factor?

A

Obesity

199
Q

What drug is a nonsteroidal estrogen that causes increased CNS excitability, maintains skin elasticity and increases pigmentation around the eyes?

A

Diethylstilbesterol

200
Q

What drug is associated with multiple birth pregnancies?

A

Clomiphene

201
Q

What autoimmune disease is associated with ulcers and carditis?

A

Rheumatoid Arthritis

202
Q

What disease results from pyogenic infections often caused by staph aureus?

A

Osteomyelitis

203
Q

TB + Osteomyelitis is called what?

A

Pott disease

204
Q

What term describes abnormal keratinization deep within the skin?

A

Dyskeratosis

205
Q

What term describes elevated dome or flat topped

A

Papule

206
Q

What term describes flat and circumscribed discolored area

A

Macule

207
Q

What term describes fluid-filled raised area >5 mm?

A

Bulla

208
Q

What term describes diffuse epidermal hyperplasia?

A

Acanthosis

209
Q

What term describes elevated dome >5 mm?

A

Nodule

210
Q

What term describes traumatic breakage of the skin?

A

Excoriation

211
Q

What term describes hypersensitivity-related hives in response to antigens?

A

Uticaria

212
Q

What disease is treated with immunosuppressant drugs, is associated with well-marked pink to salmon colored plaques and can be accompanied by increased heart attacks?

A

Psoriasis

213
Q

What are four side effects to taking lots of COX 1/2 inhibitors?

A
  1. Hypertension, 2. Altered liver function, 3. Asthma and 4. Renal insufficiency
214
Q

What drug is a muscle relaxant that is classified as a desensitizing nicotinic ganglionic blocker?

A

Succinylcholine

215
Q

What drug treats muscle spasms, brain/spinal cord injuries, and symptoms of malignant hyperthermia?

A

Dantrolene

216
Q

What drug treats muscle spasms related to MS, cerebral palsy and damage to brain/spinal cord?

A

Baclofen

217
Q

What medication is used to treat resistant VZV in shingles should the first drug not work and can be used to prevent CMV in HIV patients?

A

Foscarnet

218
Q

What medication treats HSV, shingles and VZV, but is usually used for HSV during prodrome?

A

Acyclovir

219
Q

What drug treats many viruses, but also results in quick resistance?

A

Famcyclovir

220
Q

What serious side effect can isotretinoin treatment lead to?

A

Birth defects

221
Q

What is an Ames test?

A

Determines how carcinogenic a chemical is

222
Q

What disease is typically found in younger patients and is associated with Reed-Sternberg cells?

A

Hodgkin’s lymphoma

223
Q

What disease is a very aggressive non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma of B lymphocytes with a poor prognosis?

A

Burkitt’s Lymphoma

224
Q

What disease is associated with elevated HCG?

A

Choriocarcinoma

225
Q

What disease is a mesenchymal cancer typically found in AIDS patients?

A

Kaposi’s sarcoma

226
Q

What disease is a malignant tumor of columnar cells and is able to form glands?

A

Adenoid carcinoma

227
Q

What disease is the leading cause of cancer-induced deaths in the US?

A

Lung cancer

228
Q

What drug is a tyrosine hydroxylase inhibitor used to treat multiple types of cancer such as myelogenous leukemia?

A

Imatinib

229
Q

What type of drugs can pass through the BBB?

A

Nitrosoureases

230
Q

What drug is a folic acid analog that interferes with formation of key DNA in cancer cells such as those associated with breast cancer?

A

Methyltrexate

231
Q

What drug is a natural product that interferes with tubulin polymerization and is used to treat cancer?

A

Vincristine

232
Q

What secondary cancer is most likely to occur from using alkylating agents?

A

Myelogenous leukemia

233
Q

What is the most common cancer in children?

A

Acute lymphoblast leukemia (ALL)

234
Q

What cannot be associated with reflux esophagitis?

A

Barrett esophagus

235
Q

What most often is the cause of chronic gastritis?

A

HSV

236
Q

What disease is a congenital defect associated with auto-immune gastritis?

A

Hirschsprung disease

237
Q

What is not associated with dental defects and delayed eruption of teeth?

A

Celiac disease

238
Q

What disease is associated with a more consistent expression in the intestines?

A

Ulcerative colitis

239
Q

What population is more likely to have reflux esophagitis?

A

Young adults

240
Q

Where do most hepatotoxic events occur?

A

Near the central hepatic vein

241
Q

Hep A and E are acute or chronic?

A

Acute

242
Q

What is fibrosis of the liver most likely to cause?

A

Cirrhosis

243
Q

What causes Wilson’s disease?

A

Copper metabolic defect

244
Q

What two drugs are OTC drugs used to treat acid reflux?

A
  1. Cimetidine and 2. Ranitidine
245
Q

What drug is ineffective at treating GERD?

A

Aluminum salts

246
Q

What proton pump inhibitor is combined with an H2 blocker to treat peptic ucler disease?

A

Omeprazole

247
Q

What is a fast acting smooth muscle stimulant used to treat constipation?

A

Bisacodyl

248
Q

What drug principally treats stomach cramps?

A

Loperamine

249
Q

What is an FDA-approved drug used to treat constipation associated with irritable bowel syndrome?

A

Linaclotide

250
Q

What drug would be used to treat constipation in a normal individual?

A

Docusate

251
Q

What three drugs could be used to treat excessive diarrhea?

A
  1. Atropine, 2. Loperamide and 3. Bismuth subsalicylate
252
Q

What is first order clearance?

A

When a drug is cleared from the body based on its concentration in the body rather than being constant

253
Q

What term describes the idea that toxins cannot be cleared faster than it collects in an organism?

A

Bioaccumulation

254
Q

What term describes the idea that toxins accumulate in higher organisms?

A

Biomagnification

255
Q

What are the four dangerous heavy metals?

A
  1. Pb, 2. Hg, 3. Arsenic and 4. Cadmium
256
Q

What percentage of lead do adults and children absorb of lead?

A

10-15% for adults and 50% for children

257
Q

What dictates the effectiveness of a chelator?

A

Its time to halflife - shorter = better

258
Q

What intraoral sign is indicative of lead poisoning?

A

Burtonian lines

259
Q

What chelating agent can be used for lead poisoning?

A

EDTA

260
Q

What causes mercury to be poisonous?

A

Its interactions with Selenium

261
Q

What intraoral symptom can indicate mercury exposure?

A

Gingivostomatitis

262
Q

Should Hg be inhaled, what would be the treatment?

A

IV hydrocortisone

263
Q

What is the acute chelating agent of Hg?

A

Dimercaprol

264
Q

What are the two long-term Hg chelating agents?

A
  1. Succimer and 2. unithiol
265
Q

Why is dimercaprol avoided in chronic cases?

A

Causes renal toxicity

266
Q

What causes fatigue, renal failure, anemia, hyperpigmentation, lung cancer, skin cancer, bladder cancer and is hemolytic to RBCs?

A

Arsenic

267
Q

How does arsenic poisoning work?

A

Blocks enzymes/transduction

268
Q

What is the treatment for acute arsenic intoxication?

A

Chelators for 4-6 hours if at all suspected

269
Q

What is the treatment for chronic arsenic intoxication?

A

Supportive care and folates - no use for chelators

270
Q

What is the treatment for acute arsine gas intoxication?

A

Hemodialysis - chelators ineffective

271
Q

What do chelators do to work on heavy metals?

A

Bind ions to make them unavailable for covalent interactions

272
Q

What makes chelators less effective?

A

Longer half lives

273
Q

What is used to treat both Arsenic and Hg poisoning, but not Pb poisoning?

A

Dimercaprol

274
Q

Why is dimercaprol not used as a monotherapy in chronic

A

It pulls Pb from the bone and travels to the brain and is toxic

275
Q

What is a safer, FDA-approved chelator that can be used for Pb, Hg and As?

A

Succimer

276
Q

What chelator is approved for Pb poisoning only?

A

EDTA

277
Q

What are the four ideals of biocompatibility for dental materials?

A
  1. Pulp safe, 2. No systemic toxins, 3. No allergies and 4. No carcinogenic potential
278
Q

What step in amalgam restoration releases the most Hg?

A

Dry polishing - its hardly done these days anyways

279
Q

What makes adequate ventilation and exhaust fans essential in the lab?

A

Working with Be or Ni

280
Q

What prevents O2 use and ATP production in cells by inhibiting cytochrome C?

A

Cyanide

281
Q

What is the antidote for cyanide?

A

Hydroxycobalamin

282
Q

What are the major five phases of drug testing?

A
  1. Animal testing, 2. Phase one - small healthy group, 3. Phase two - Small group with conditions to test safety, 4. Phase III extended clinical phase - large groups, double blind, etc. and 5. Marketing (phase four)
283
Q

What are the three non-prescription drug categories?

A
  1. I - safe and effective, 2. II - unsafe or ineffective and 3. III - not sure - needs more study
284
Q

What two types of OTC decongestants exist?

A

Topical and systemic

285
Q

What are the pros and cons of systemic decongestants?

A

Increase BP, but longer-acting

286
Q

What are the pros and cons of topical decongestants?

A

Less systemic problems, more likely to cause dependence-tolerance, shorter acting but more effective

287
Q

Diphenhydramine, Chlorpheniramine and Loratidine are all used to treat what?

A

Allergies

288
Q

Codeine, Diphenhydramine and Dextromethorphan are all used to treat what?

A

Coughs

289
Q

What is the one expectorant we need to know?

A

Guaifenesin

290
Q

What is a demulcent?

A

Cough drops/syrupy products - they coat the throat to reduce irritation

291
Q

What is an OTC for treating cold sores?

A

Docosanol

292
Q

What are the two caffeine products we need to know?

A
  1. Xanthine and 2. Vivarin
293
Q

What are the three effects of caffeine?

A
  1. Constrict cerebral vessels, 2. Gastric increased secretion and 3. mild diuretic
294
Q

What are Diphenhydramine and Doxylamine used for?

A

Antihistamines - used in sleep aid

295
Q

What drug is used for vaginal thrush?

A

Miconazole

296
Q

What is the medication we learned for bug bites and itches?

A

Hydrocortisone

297
Q

What is an anticholinergic for motion sickness that we learned without side effects?

A

Scopolamine

298
Q

What is an anticholinergic for motion sickness that we learned with dry mouth, constipation, blurred vision and reduced urinating?

A

Dimenhydrinate

299
Q

What hair growth drug also is a vasodilator that causes a rapid heart beat?

A

Minoxidil

300
Q

What type of ligand is marijuana?

A

Anandamide

301
Q

What marijuana analog is promoted as antiseizure, but is not as addicting has THC?

A

Cannabidiol

302
Q

What herb is supposed to help with depression?

A

St. John’s Wort

303
Q

What herb is supposed to help treat colds?

A

Echinacea

304
Q

What dietary supplement is supposed to aid in constipation?

A

Garlic

305
Q

What herb slowly lowers cholesterol?

A

Ginko

306
Q

What herb is supposed to promote memory?

A

Ginseng

307
Q

What does a.c. mean in a prescription form?

A

Before meals

308
Q

What does ad. lib. mean in a prescription form?

A

Use freely

309
Q

What does aq mean in a prescription form?

A

Water

310
Q

What does bis mean in a prescription form?

A

twice (bid means twice a day)

311
Q

What does c.f. mean in a prescription form?

A

With food

312
Q

What does dc mean in a prescription form?

A

Discontinue

313
Q

What does noct mean in a prescription form?

A

At night

314
Q

What does p.c. mean in a prescription form?

A

After meals

315
Q

What does p.o. mean in a prescription form?

A

By mouth

316
Q

What does prn mean in a prescription form?

A

As needed

317
Q

What does q mean in a prescription form?

A

Every

318
Q

What does s mean in a prescription form?

A

Without

319
Q

What does sig mean in a prescription form?

A

Write on the label

320
Q

What does stat mean in a prescription form?

A

Immediately

Human Disease and Therapeutics (9 decks)

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