Quiz Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following is a skeletal adverse reaction that can occur when taking cromoglycates

A

Joint pain

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2
Q

oral corticosteroids are secreted via

A

urine

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3
Q

when using beta-2 receptor agonists, patient should undergo periodic measurement of

A

IOP

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4
Q

When prescribing an antibacterial agent for otitis externa, the healthcare practitioner must consider that certain agents have the potential for ototoxicity. Which agent has the greatest potential for it

A

neomycin/polymyxin B

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5
Q

A patient presents with a red, painful right eye and purulent drainage. Culture shows neisseria gonorrhea. NKDA. what opthalmic agent would be most effective

A

sulfacetamide opthalmic preparation

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6
Q

after 1 week of treatment for otitis externa with topical antibacterial there is no improvement, whats next

A

suspect overgrowth of nonsuceptible organism and obtain culture

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7
Q

Montelukast can be used to treat chronic asthma in which age group

A

1 and older

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8
Q

SABAs are metabolized via

A

liver

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9
Q

12 yo presents w/ mod left ear pain and serosanguineos drainage. tympanic membrane is perforated. Why should you NOT prescribe benzocaine

A

contraindicated with perforated eardrum

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10
Q

what decreases absorption of antihistamines

A

antacids

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11
Q

proper method for ear drop instillation in a child

A

down and back

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12
Q

when choosing a topical anti-infective, ointments are usually considered more potent, why?

A

they are more occlusive

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13
Q

patients should NOT take albuterol/ipratropium (Combivent) if they are allergic to

A

soy (peanuts)

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14
Q

What is the appropriate dose of spiriva when treating COPD

A

18mcg once daily

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15
Q

when using oral corticosteroids to treat asthma, which electrolyte should be monitores

A

potassium

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16
Q

what healthcare education should be given to a geriatric patient who is using sulfacetamide solution for his left eye that was prescribed 2 months ago

A

discard when it turns dark

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17
Q

LABA mechanism of action

A

stimulation of beta-2 adrenergic receptors in the lungs, resulting in the relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle

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18
Q

mechanism of action of an opthalmic topical anesthetic

A

acting locally, they block initiation and conduction of nerve impulses by decreasing the neuronal membrane’s sensitivity to sodium ions, thereby decreasing the sensation of pain

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19
Q

half-life of prednisone

A

2.5-3.5 hours

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20
Q

when salmeterol (Serevent) is used to treat exercise-induced asthma, how should it be dosed

A

1 inhalation 30 min prior to exercise

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21
Q

mechanism of action for demulcents

A

form a protective film on the ocular surface, allowing for epithelial repair

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22
Q

mechanism of action for polymers

A

bind to natural tears and the mucosal surface of the eye to form a protective, lubricant film

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23
Q

mechanism of action for hygroscopic agents

A

draw water into corneal cells to protect against hyperosmotic stress

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24
Q

mechanism of action for hypertonicity agents

A

placed in ocular lubricants to draw excess fluid from cornea into tears

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25
Q

LABAs interact with

A

beta blockers

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26
Q

anti-infective otic agent with a steroid preparation

A

ciprofloxacin with hydrocortisone

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27
Q

duration of action for all LABAs

A

12 hours

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28
Q

possible adverse effect of an anticholinergic

A

worsening glaucoma

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29
Q

A patient with dry eye was prescribed refresh lacri-lube ointment 3 weeks ago with no improvement. If there is no underlying cause, what is likely the problem

A

she puts it on in the morning before work

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30
Q

contact lense wearers are at greater risk for what type of infection

A

fungal

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31
Q

contraindicated for use of anticholinergics

A

prostate enlargement

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32
Q

what other med may need to be adjusted when a patient is taking oral corticosteroids

A

insulin

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33
Q

a patient has used Debrox for 7 days and now complains of hearing loss. Why

A

damage to tympanic membrane for use longer than 4 days

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34
Q

what interacts with opthalmic vasoconstrictors causing increased IOP

A

MAOIs

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35
Q

mechanism of action for bacitacin

A

inhibits the incorporation of amino acids and nucleotides into the bacterial cell wall

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36
Q

mechanism of action for sulfacetamide

A

inhibits bacterial dihydrofolate

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37
Q

mechanism of action for fluoroquinolones

A

inhibits DNA synthesis in invading bacteria

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38
Q

mechanism of action for sulfa drugs

A

blocks synthesis of folic acid in susceptible bacteria

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39
Q

mechanism of action for erythromycin

A

prevents protein synthesis in bacteria

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40
Q

common dermatological side effect of long term use of oral prednisone

A

acne

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41
Q

why are CCBs effective for treating HTN

A

generally produce no significant CNS side effects and can treat co=existing conditions like angina

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42
Q

one advantage of treating a patient with irbesartan (avapro) instead of enalapril (vasotec)

A

does not produce dry cough

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43
Q

HTN patients with migraines, ischemic heart disease, or CHF would benefit most form which medication

A

beta blockers

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44
Q

what drug causes hypotension, dizziness, and death when mixed with nitrates

A

sildenafil (Viagra)

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45
Q

mechanism of action of which drug reduces preload (through vasodilation) and afterload (through arterial dilation) thus helping to treat both HTN and CHF

A

captopril

(ACE inhibitor)

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46
Q

patient c/o syncope, postural hypotension, tachycardia, throbbing headaches, and hot flushes. These are common side effects of which medication

A

nitro patch

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47
Q

a lupus like syndrome occurs with high dosages of which drug

A

hydralazine

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48
Q

a patient with digoxin toxicity will most likely report what symptom

A

blurry vision

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49
Q

what is the drug type of choice for prinzmental angina as well as for patients with stable angina, HTN, and supraventricular arrythmias

A

CCBs

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50
Q

what should NOT be used in a HTN patient who has gout

A

diuretic

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51
Q

ACE inhibitors increase circulating levels of what

A

bradykinin

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52
Q

most common side effect of thiazide diuretics

A

potassium depletion

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53
Q

in addition to nausea, dizziness, and fatigue, what is another possible side effect of CCBs

A

apoplexy

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54
Q

which drug is best for a black woman with HTN who becomes pregnant

A

HCTZ

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55
Q

quinidine is an example of which type of antiarrhythmic

A

sodium channel blocker

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56
Q

black oatient with HTN tend to respond better to

A

CCBs

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57
Q

80 yo patient with hx of glaucoma presents with hypertensive emergency. Which drug is contraindicated

A

losartan/HCTS (Hyzaar)

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58
Q

what is a class 1C medication that stabilizes membranes and depresses the action potential phase

A

flecainide (Tambocor)

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59
Q

what drug is a potassium sparing diuretic

A

spironolactone

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60
Q

potassium channel blockers are in which class of antiarrhythmic drugs

A

3

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61
Q

what should NOT be used to treat HTN in pregnant female

A

losartan

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62
Q

rebound HTN can occur with abrupt withdrawal of

A

clonidine

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63
Q

because CCBs undergo extensive first pas metabolism what would you expect to see in a patient with cirrhosis

A

the drug’s half-life is altered

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64
Q

patient is on a BP med but can’t remember the name. c/o skin rash and cough. What is she likely taking

A

captopril

(ACE inhibitor)

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65
Q

what drug should be avoided when treating a patient with HTN and asthma

A

metoprolol

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66
Q

what food increases depletion of potassium, thereby increasing risk for digoxin toxicity

A

licorice

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67
Q

thiazide diuretics act on the distal convoluted tubule where they block transport of what

A

sodium and chloride

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68
Q

what is the mechanism of action of thiazide diuretics that causes reduced BP

A

decrease in sodium and water retention which decreases blood volume which decreases cardiac output

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69
Q

what is both an alpha and beta adrenergic blocker

A

carvedilol

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70
Q

what is the most common side effect of thiazide diuretics

A

potsddium depletion

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71
Q

a patient experiencing supraventricular arrhythmia has no success with valsalvas maneuver. she has 90% bilat carotid stenosis. What do you do

A

administer adenosine

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72
Q

what is the drug of choice for pregnancy induced HTN

A

methyldopa (Aldomet)

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73
Q

why should high doses of short acting CCBs be avoided

A

increased risk of MI

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74
Q

beta blockers are used in the treatment of CHF because theyr educe heart muscle oxygen demand by

A

reducing the force of heart muscle contractions

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75
Q

which medication has a side effect profile of dry cough, hyperkalemia, dizziness

A

captopril

(ACE inhibitor)

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76
Q

absorption of fibric acid deriviatives is reduced by the presence of

A
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77
Q

levothyroxine is contraindicated in which scenario

A

patient with recent MI

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78
Q

what is the half-life of PTU

A

1.5-5 hours

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79
Q

which patient newly diagnosed with T2DM would respond best to sulfonylureas

A

mild to moderate fasting hyperglycemia

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80
Q

which sulfonylurea causes the most side effects

A

chlorpropamide (Diabinese)

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81
Q

what is the mechanism of action for sulfonylureas

A

increasing insulin secretion from pancreatic B cells

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82
Q

contraindication for the use of PTU

A

pregnancy

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83
Q

levothyroxine is secreted in what

A

feces

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84
Q

patients taking methimazole (Tapazole) should avoid what

A

shellfish (iodine)

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85
Q

reversible side effect in children started on T3/T4 combo (liothyronine/levothyroxine)

A

hair loss

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86
Q

55 y.o man who is 5’9 and 225lbs with T2DM

no comorbidities or medication

recent A1C 6.7%

A

begin oral hypoglycemic metformin

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87
Q

hold levothyroxine for HR>?

A

100

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88
Q

vasopressin is used to treat what

A

diabetes insipidus

89
Q

prolonged infusion of oxytocin can cause what

A

seizures (water intoxication)

90
Q

50-80% of synthroid is absorbed by the

A

GI tract

91
Q

what can impair the absorption of liothyronine

A

cholestryramine (bile acid sequestrant)

92
Q

what is the main reason that metformin does NOT usually cause hypoglycemia

A

decreases glucose production in the liver

93
Q

hematologic side effect of PTU

A

agranulocytosis

94
Q

teaching for:

35y/o female with T2DM on oral contraceptives and taking pioglitazone (Actos) and does not want to become pregnant

A

increase oral contraceptive dose

95
Q

what can increase absorption of liothyronine

A

fasting

96
Q

what drug interferes with parathyroid hormone secretion

A

cinacalcet

97
Q

typical starting dose of levothyroxine

A

50mcg

98
Q

common side effect of sulfonylureas

A

weight gain

99
Q

primary mechanism of action for alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

A

decreased absorption of carbs in GI tract

100
Q

most common adverse effect of thiazolidinediones (TZDs) are weight gain and

A

fluid retention

101
Q

what is considered glycemic control for a 55y/o male diagnosed with DM 9 months ago

A

6%

102
Q

ADA algorhythm for insulin in T2DM

A1C is not around 7% at the end of 3 months of therapy

A

continue insulin dose and recheck in 3 months

103
Q

why is it important to titrate up dosage of acarbose (Precose)

A

to minimize GI side effects

104
Q

59y/0 female previously controlled on repaglinide (Prandin) with recent A1C of 9%

what do you do

A

increase dose to 3mg daily in divided doses

105
Q

primary difference between sulfonylureas and meglitinides

A

meglitinides are shorter acting than sulfonylureas

106
Q

advice for patient regarding her repaglinide (Prandin) who will have to skip lunch

A

do not take lunch dose and continue therapy at dinner

107
Q

when is Novolog, Apidra, or Humalog recommended for a diabetic patient

A

when patient eats at the same time insulin is given

108
Q

advice to a newly diagnosed diabetic started on insulin

A

BG BID and report back weekly

109
Q

short acting steroid

A

cortisone

110
Q

what does growth hormone do

A

affects cartilaginous areas of long bones

111
Q

most important therapeutic intervention for a patient with diabetes

A

lifestyle modification

112
Q

which medication class produces GI discomfort to the point that patient’s may discontinue therapy

A

alpha-glucosidase inhibitors

113
Q

45y/o female with T2DM who has achieved glycemic control with diet/exercise after 2 months

A
114
Q

patients with a lack of serotonin can suffer from what

A

depression

115
Q

Of these drugs, which is not pregnancy category D:

Ergot w/ caffeine (Cafergor)

phenytoin (Dilantin)

fosphenytoin (Cerebyx)

oxcarbazepine (Trileptil)

A

Ergot w/ caffeine

116
Q

Schedule of benzos

A

IV

117
Q

Triptans should NOT be administered with which:

SSRIs

PPIs

PCN

NSAIDs

A

SSRIs

118
Q

which is a tricyclic antidepressant used for treatment in severely depressed patients specifically for sedating effect

Effexor

Nardil

Sertraline

silenor

A

silenor

119
Q

prescription slep aides should be used no longer than

A

10 days

120
Q

what canacer has been associated with levodopa/carbidopa

A

malignant melanoma

121
Q

peak effect of diazepam

A

0.5-2 hours

122
Q

which should be adminisgtered immediately when treating status epilepticus:

Trileptal

Tegretol

Ativan

Dilatin

A

Ativan because it is a benzo

123
Q

which anti-parkinson medication class relaxes smooth muscle both directly and indirectly

A

anticholinergics

124
Q

Max amount of immetrex in one day

A

300mg

125
Q

which Parkinson medication requires monitoring of IOP

A

benztropine (Cogentin)

126
Q

common side effect of MAOIs, TCAs, and SSRIs

A

weight gain

127
Q

which is a selective MAO-B inhibitor:

pramipexole (Mirapex)

benztropine (Cogentin)

entacapone (Comtan)

selegiline (Eldypryl, Carbex)

A

selegiline

128
Q

which triptan can be given PO, SQ, and nasally

A

imitrex (sumatriptan)

129
Q

how how prescription sleeo aides excreted

A

kidney

130
Q

atypical antipsychotics are associated with

A

weight gain

131
Q

patients taking nortriptyline and amitriptyline should be monitored for all of the following except:

mental status change

cardiac disturbances

confusion

weight loss

A

weight loss

132
Q

alprazolam is contraindicated with which medication

A

ketoconazole

133
Q

how long does it take to see the effects of TCAs

A

up to 8 weeks

134
Q

which benzo is metabolized in the liver and contraindicated in liver disease:

temazepam

oxazepam

midazolam

lorazepam

A

Midazolam

135
Q

which disease is charachterized by a dopamine deficiency

A

Parkinsons

136
Q

which Parkinson medication is used to treat restless leg stndrome

A

ropinirole

137
Q

drugs that affect acetylcholine are useful in treating what

A

Alzheimers

138
Q

pregnancy category of ergotamines

A

X

139
Q

black box warning on all antipsychotics

A

may cause increased mortality in elderly with Alzheimers induced psychosis

140
Q

which antidepressant helps with smoking cessation

A

wellbutrin

141
Q

which drug can cause EPS:

amitriptyline

fluphenazine

bupropion

fluoxetine

A

fluphenazine

142
Q

what is lithium

A

light alkaline metal

143
Q

prescription sleep aides act on which receptors

A

GABA

144
Q

when taking MAOIs, patients should avoid foods high in

A

tyramine

145
Q

5% of patients taking lithium for over a year develop symptoms of what

A

hypothyroidism

146
Q

which is an act of endorphins:

slowed HR

elevated BP

increased respiration

increased pain

A

slowed HR

147
Q

what is the most abundant major inhibitory neuron in the CNS

A

GABA

148
Q

what are adverse effect of acetylcholinesterase inhibitors

A

bradycardia

abnormal dreams

HTN

149
Q

which medication requires CBC monitoring to check for aplastic anemia

A
150
Q

35 y/o female taking diflucan for yeast infection should be told to

A

dont drink alcohol

wear sunscreen

report rashes

151
Q

adverse reaction associated with septra that can be fatal

A

stevens-johnson syndrome

152
Q

which drug shortens flu duration by several days

A

tamiflu

153
Q

when giving chloroquine you should know if the patient has

A

G6PD deficiency

154
Q

which does not need to be avoided when taking doxycycline:

ASA, milk, antacids, sun exposure

A

ASA

155
Q

which antiviral can be used to treat herpes simplex 1 & 2

A

famciclovir

156
Q

first generation cephalosporins are best used against which organism

A

gram- cocci

157
Q

S. pneumoniae is difficult to treat because of growing resistance to what

A

PCNs and cephalosporins

158
Q

Which should patient taking doxyxyline be advised of:

stay out of direct sunlight,

watch for signs of blood dyscrasias,

check INR frequently if on digoxin,

drink 8-10 glasses of fluid daily

A

stay out of direct sunlight

159
Q

Zanamivir (Relenza) is not indicated for children younger than

A

5

160
Q

what antiparasitic drug is related to macrolide ABTs

A

ivermectin

161
Q

what drug is typically use to treat cryptococcal meningitis

A

amphotericin B

162
Q

Organisms that produce beta-lactamase have increased resistance to

A

PCN

163
Q

which macrolide has the longest half-life

A

azithromycin

164
Q

drug of choice for post=exposure prophylaxis against anthrax

A

cipro

165
Q

clinicians must remember that aminoglycosides have the potential to cause

A

ototoxicity

166
Q

Which is a side effect of clindamycin:

pseudomembranous colitis, hyperglycemia, ototoxicity, crystalluria

A

pseudomembranous colitis

167
Q

patients taking flagyl should be advised not to consume what

A

alcohol

168
Q

which is associated with fluroquinolones:

prolonged QT interval

serum sickness

increase in potassium

transient decrease in liver enzymes

A

prolonged QT interval

169
Q

which medication has serious interactions with digoxin that can cause death in the elderly

A

clarithromycin (Biaxin)

170
Q

Levofloxacin is likely to cause what adverse reaction in patients over 60

A

spontaneous tendon rupture

171
Q

which interferes with a viruses ability to synthesize its own DNA and finds great use in the treatment of recurrent genital herpes

A

acyclovir

172
Q

which drug is used for prophylaxis of malaria in areas resistant to chloroquine

A

primaquine

173
Q

antimalarials are contraindicated with which medication

A

beta-blockers

174
Q

most commonly used malarial drug

A

chloroquine

175
Q

what should be avoided when taking fluroquinolones because it can interfere with absorption

A

antacids

176
Q

ketoconazole is metabolized by

A

the liver

177
Q

which anti-depressant should be avoided with fluroquinolones

A

doxepine

178
Q

which is NOT associated with antivirals:

toxic epidermal necrosis, anemia, anaphylaxis, stevens-johnson syndrome

A

anemia

179
Q

antimalarials are excreted via

A

urine

180
Q

what is typically given to treat rocky mountain spotted fever and lyme disease

A

tetracycline

181
Q

who is NOT considered high risk for adverse reactions to bactrim:

6 month postpartum lactating mother, anyone over 65, anyone abusing alcohol, malnourished individuals

A

postpartum lactating mother

182
Q

what has been a life saving treatment for MRSA

A

vancomycin

183
Q

which should be used for a 21 y/o pregnant patient with pneumonia:

clindamycin, gentamycin, levofloxacin, doxycyxline

A

clindamycin

184
Q

what organism are aminoglycosides INEFFECTIVE against

A

anaerobic bacteria

185
Q

typical dosage of flagyl for bacterial vaginosis

A

500mg BID x 5 days

186
Q

what are sulfonamides used for in HIV patients

A

prevention of pneumocystitis

187
Q

which hepres medication is used topically ONLY

A

penciclovir

188
Q

half-life of fluconazole

A

30 hours

189
Q

which patient population is safest to prescribe oral contraceptives:

liver disease, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, clotting disorders, possible pregnancy, hypothyroidism

A

hypothyroidism

190
Q

ED drug prescriptions should be limited to

A

4-10 tablets per month

191
Q

which can be used to treat a 13y/o with the flue:

tamiflu, cleocin, famvir, zovirax

A

tamiflu

192
Q

what is the duration of effect for cialis

A

36 hours

193
Q

which medication for BPH is slow to show effect, taking up to 6 months

A

dutasteride (Avodart)

194
Q

what can be used to treat a patient with mono who has markedly edematous tonsils and no obvious abscess

A

dexamethasone

195
Q

which is an alpha-5 reductase inhibitor to treat BPH:

avodart, flomax, uroxatral, cardura

A

avodart

196
Q

which is NOT a major side effect of cholinesterase inhibitors:

diarrhea, bradycardia, nausea, bullous rash, anorexia

A

bullous rash

197
Q

possible adverse reaction of fluoroquinolones

A

adverse effects on the growth of immature cartilage, joints, and surrounding tissue

198
Q

mechanism of action for 5-alpha reductase inhibitors

A

inhibit the conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone (DHT)

199
Q

when should asthma therapy be stepped up in an adolscent patient

A

when SABA is used more than 2 days a week

200
Q

which drug carries a black box warning advising that its use in children under 2 can cause severe fatal respiratory depression

A

promethazine (Phenergan)

201
Q

which drug is approved for all 3 stages of Alzheimers

A

Aricept

202
Q

which is contraindicated in children under 8:

cephalexin, amoxicillin, tetracycline, penicillin

A

tetracyclines

203
Q

what is conjugated estrogen (Premarin) approved to treat

A

hot flashes, all vaginal symptoms of menopause, and to treat and prevent osteoporosis

204
Q

black box warning associated with the use of atypical antipsychotics in the elderly

A

increase the rate of MI, stroke, and vascular mortality

205
Q

what drug is used to treat infectious conjunctivitis in the pediatric population

A

polymyxin B + trimethoprim (Polytrim)

206
Q

what may occur if a patient is taking a CCB and is given a PDE5

A

small additive drop in BP

207
Q

how should levonorgestrel (Plan B) be prescribed

A

one 0.75mg tablet within 72 hours of sex and again in 12 hours

208
Q

what is the role of cGMP in erectile dysfunction

A

activates a specific protein kinase, leading to smooth muscle relaxation

209
Q

mechanism of action for biphosphonates

A

adhere tightly to bone surfaces and inhibit osteoclactic activity, thereby inhibiting both normal and abnormal bone reabsorption

210
Q

mechanism of action of racemic epinepherine

A

stimulates both alpha- and beta-adrenergic receptors, resulting in both relaxation of smooth muscles in the bronchial tree as well as a decrease in local airway edema with resultant decrease in the work of breathing

211
Q

which statement is false:

  1. absorption of orally adminitered meds is dramtically reduced in elderly patients
  2. water-soluble drugs have reduced distribution in elderly patients
  3. total body water and ECF decreases with age
  4. percentage of total body fat rises steadily with age, affecting lipid-soluble drugs
A
  1. Absorption of orally administered meds is dramatically reduced in elderly patients
212
Q

what is the least appropriate form of testosterone replacement therapy

A

oral tablets

213
Q

when is VitaminD contraindicated

parathyroidism, cushings syndrome, hyperthyroidism, skeletal cancer

A

parathyroidism

214
Q

administration routes of

  1. Boniva
  2. Zometa
  3. Aredia
  4. Actonel
A
  1. Oral and IV
  2. IV
  3. IV
  4. oral once a week
215
Q

how long should acute bacterial prostatitis be treated

A

30 days

216
Q

what medication has a black box warning that it can cause pseudomembranous colitis

A

clindamycin

217
Q

Which ED is the most selective PDE5:

Cialis, Muse, Viagra, Levitra

A

Cialis

218
Q
A