Quiz Answers Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

The blood brain barrier is most permeable to what kind of molecule?

A

small, lipid-soluble

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2
Q

The central nervous system (CNS) is comprised of

A

the brain and the spine

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3
Q

Which of the following is NOT a part of the “reward circuit”?
A. frontal lobe
B. tectum
C. ventral tegmental area (VTA)
D. nucleus accumbens

A

B. tectum

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4
Q

Which division of the nervous system controls bodily organs, glands, ducts, and pupils?
A. somatic
B. enteric
C. central
D. autonomic

A

D. autonomic

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5
Q

What division of the nervous system controls the gut?
A. enteric
B. central
C. somatic
D. autonomic

A

A. enteric

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6
Q

What ionic movement begins an action potential?
A. exit of sodium ions
B. exit of potassium ions
C. entrance of sodium ions
D. entrance of potassium ions

A

C. entrance of sodium ions

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7
Q

An ion channel that contains a receptor site is called

A

an ionotropic receptor

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8
Q

Which of the following is NOT a monoamine?
A. dopamine
B. glutamate
C. norepinephrine
D. serotonin

A

B. glutamate

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9
Q

Which neurotransmitter is particularly important for mood, appetite, and sleep?
A. serotonin
B. GABA
C. glutamate
D. dopamine

A

A. serotonin

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10
Q

Drugs administered “sublingually” (under the tongue) and drugs administered orally are absorbed mostly in the ____ and ____ respectively.
A. mouth; stomach
B. small intestine; large intestine
C. stomach; small intestine
D. mouth; small intestine

A

D. mouth; small intestine

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11
Q

Which route of administration is characterized as “enteral”?
A. topical
B. inhalation
C. injection
D. oral

A

D. oral

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12
Q

All of the following drug attributes decrease the likelihood of drug absorption EXCEPT:
A. small size
B. low lipid-solubility
C. high water-solubility
D. large size

A

A. small size

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13
Q

What are the two main differences between capillaries in the periphery and capillaries in the brain?

A

capillaries in the brain have tighter junctions & are surrounded by membranes of astrocyte cells

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14
Q

Of the following, which is the most dangerous mode of drug administration?
A. subcutaneous
B. topical
C. intramuscular
D. intravenous

A

D. intravenous

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15
Q

The degradation of drugs by enzymes present in the gastrointestinal tract and liver is known as:

A

first-pass metabolism

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16
Q

Most drugs are excreted via the

A

kidneys

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17
Q

The time for the plasma level of a drug to fall by 50% is called the

A

elimination half-life

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18
Q

The “steady-state” concentration of a drug (the stable level achieved in blood with repeated, regular dosing) is

A

achieved when the amount of drug administered per unit time equals the amount eliminated per unit time

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19
Q

The ability of liver enzymes to degrade a drug more efficiently in the continued presence of the drug is termed

A

metabolic tolerance

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20
Q

“Pharmacodynamic” tolerance occurs in the ____; “metabolic” tolerance occurs in the _____.

A

synapse/neuron; liver

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21
Q

The term placebo is best described as

A

A pharmacologically inactive substance that elicits a significant therapeutic response

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22
Q

A drug that is more potent than another drug has

A

a smaller ED50

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23
Q

Most side effects are:
A. predictable and serious
B. predictable and mild
C. unpredictable and mild
D. unpredictable and serious

A

B. predictable and mild

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24
Q

The therapeutic index (TI) refers to the

A

relative safety of a drug

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25
A drug that blocks the effect of the naturally occurring (endogenous) compound is called:
an antagonist
26
The dose of a drug that produces the desired effect in half of the subject is called the drug's
ED50
27
The study of the effects a drug has when it binds to its target/receptor is termed
pharmacodynamics
28
Compared to males, most females: A. have increased intestinal motility B. have more intestinal enzymatic activity C. have more water D. have more fat
D. have more fat
29
Which of the following drug names are capitalized? A. trade B. none of these drug names are capitalized C. generic D. chemical
A. trade
30
Affinity refers to
the strength of attraction between a molecule (ligand) and its target (receptor)
31
The observation that caffeine cannot exert as much central nervous system stimulation as amphetamine indicates that caffeine
is less efficacious than amphetamine
32
A drug that is more efficacious than another drug has
a larger maximum effect
33
During pregnancy, intestinal motility ___
decreases
34
According to the DEA, the most dangerous drugs are typically scheduled as
Schedule I
35
In general, antipsychotics have a _____ potential for dependence, and a ____ potential for tolerance. A. strong; weak B. strong; strong C. weak; weak D. weak; strong
C. weak; weak
36
The word tardive in tardive dyskinesia indicates that the symptoms A. appear later in treatment B. can be reduced by lowering the dose of antipsychotic drug C. are permanent D. affect the upper parts of the body first
A. appear later in treatment
37
Carprazine should not be used by A. patients with schizophrenia B. elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis C. male patients D. patients with bipolar disorder
B. elderly patients with dementia-related psychosis
38
The single best predictor of antipsychotic efficacy in a drug is an affinity for ____ receptors.
D2
39
Loxapine is the only antipsychotic that A. does not produce EPS B. is administered via inhalation C. does not induce weight gain D. does not bind to D2 receptors
B. is administered via inhalation
40
The most problematic side effect caused by clozapine is
agranulocytosis
41
The percentage of the world's population suffering from schizophrenia is
1%
42
Chlorpromazine was originally developed to be a A. sedative B. soporific C. stimulant D. pain reliever
A. sedative
43
An off-label use for risperidone is A. nausea B. OCD C. schizophrenia D. narcolepsy
B. OCD
44
What is the most common side effect of treatment with olanzapine? A. weight gain B. blurred vision C. seizures D. nausea
A. weight gain
45
Which of the following is NOT a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
disorganized behavior
46
Phenothiazines are in the class of antipsychotics known as
first-generation antipsychotics
47
What is the primary indication of haloperidol?
psychosis
48
amisulpride is a good choice of antipsychotic for patients who have a high risk for
diabetes
49
Which of the following is NOT a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
Flat affect
50
The uncontrollable movements of muscles commonly in the limbs, face, and tongue produced by ACUTE treatment with antipsychotics are called
dystonia
51
The major side effect of the first-generation antipsychotics is
motor impairment
52
Compared to SSRIs, TCAs are:
equally effective, but have different side effects
53
Impairment of memory is a side effect clearly associated with the use of
TCAs
54
First-generation tricyclic antidepressants are defined by a commonality in basic
molecular structure
55
What type of antidepressant is amitriptyline? A. SNRI B. TCA C. SSRI D. MAOI
B. TCA
56
The tricyclic antidepressants differ from Prozac and Zoloft in that they also have major effects on _______. A. serotonin B. GABA C. norepinephrine D. glutamate
norepinephrine
57
Venlafaxine is a/an A. TCA B. SNRI C. SSRI D. MAOI
B. SNRI
58
An SNRI would be a good treatment choice for someone A. with GAD B. with OCD C. with MDD and pain D. with anorexia
C. with MDD and pain
59
Which neurotransmitters are affected by amitriptyline? A. 5-HT, NE, DA B. GABA, NE, ACh C. NE, ACH, DA D. NE, ACh, 5-HT
D. NE, ACh, 5-HT
60
The neurogenic theory of depression stems from recent findings that in the mature brain
neurons are capable of being repaired and produced
61
Of the following classes of antidepressant drugs, the one associated with the highest incidence of sexual dysfunction is A. TCAs B. SSRIs C. SNRIs D. MAOIs
B. SSRIs
62
Orthostatic hypotension is a common side effect of
TCAs and MAOIs
63
Which statement best describes the pharmacodynamics of escitalopram?
It primarily effects 5-HT systems with minimal effects on NE/DA/ACh systems
64
What is the pharmacodynamic mechanism of bupropion?
it blocks DA and NE reuptake
65
If an SSRI is taken in conjunction with an MAOI, the levels of 5-HT can become dangerously high leading to
serotonin syndrome
66
Electro-convulsive therapy (ECT) is sometimes used to treat Bipolar Disorder because
it has rapid effects
67
The rate of suicide for bipolar patients is approximately ___ times that of the general population.
10
68
The classic drug for treating bipolar disorder is
lithium
69
Atypical antipsychotics are often used as a first-time treatment for Bipolar Disorder because
they have a better safety profile than lithium
70
Oxcarbazepine is an improvement of the carbamazepine molecule, and has a better side-effect profile. Which of the following is NOT one of the improvements? A. lower rate of leucopenia B. no alternations in liver enzymes C. less weight gain D. fewer GI issues
C. less weight gain
71
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of lithium? A. EPS B. weight gain C. nystagmus D. goiter
A. EPS
72
Valproate appears to be more effective for patients who have _____, compared to lithium.
mixed episodes
73
Similarly to antidepressants, lithium appears to: A. increase neuroprotective factors B. block the SERT C. block DA receptors D. increase monamine production
A. increase neuroprotective factors
74
One of the biggest problems with carbamazepine is that it can induce
agranulocytosis
75
Topamaz is used in the treatment of bipolar disorder to decrease
weight gain
76
One of the most serious side effects associated with taking Lamictal is
rash
77
What is the original primary indication for lamotrigine?
seizure disorder/epilepsy
78
Bipolar patients spend most of their lives in a ____ state.
asymptomatic
79
The therapeutic index for lithium is ___; the antidote for overdose is ___.
low; unavailable
80
Antiepileptics include all of the following drugs except:
lithium
81
barbituates are in a class of drugs known as
sedative-hypnotics
82
Drugs that reduce the activity of the ____ seem to be particularly efficacious for treating Panic Disorder.
locus coeruleus
83
In addition to treating anxiety, Buspirone can be used to improve the ____ side effects caused by SSRIs. A. motor B. cognitive C. gastrointestinal D. sexual
D. sexual
84
Barbiturates and benzodiazepines bind to what kind of receptor?
GABA A
85
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of Buspirone? A. It has fewer side effects, compared to benzodiazepines. B. It is equally efficacious, compared to other anxiolytics. C. It is non-habit forming. D. It is immediately effective.
D. It is immediately effective
86
Which of the following neurotransmitters is NOT thought to be important to the etiology of anxiety? A. GABA B. norepinephrine C. dopamine D. serotonin
C. dopamine
87
The most common sub-type of anxiety disorder is: A. post-traumatic stress disorder B. social anxiety C. phobia D. generalized anxiety disorder
C. phobia
88
It is recommended that pharmacological treatment of anxiety disorders begins with: A. barbituates B. SSRIs C. beta blockers D. benzodiazepines
B. SSRIs
89
Benzodiazepines differ from one another mainly in terms of
pharmacokinetics
90
Compared to benzodiazepines, SSRIs seem to be particularly effective for treating: A. GAD B. Panic Disorder C. OCD D. Social Anxiety Disorder
C. OCD
91
Alprazolam is contraindicated in patients who
smoke
92
Compared to barbiturates, benzodiazepines are
safer
93
Of the following anxiety disorders, which one has equal gender ratios?
Social Anxiety
94
Propanolol is a
beta blocker
95
Venlafaxine is associated with a higher risk of _____ in young (<24) patients.
suicide
96
Which of the following is NOT a concern regarding barbiturates?
some have extremely long half-lives
97
The cortical hyperactivity seen in patients with anxiety disorders is thought to be due to all of the following EXCEPT:
DA hypofunction
98
Unlike other anxiolytics, beta-blockers primarily work
peripherally
99
The anticipatory anxiety experienced by people who have panic attacks can sometimes progress to
agoraphobia
100
The most common cause of death when combining benzodiazepines with another CNS depressant (like alcohol) is
respiratory depression
101
Stimulation of the GABAA1 receptor is thought to result in all of the following effects EXCEPT
anxiolysis
102
Ma huang should not be combined with caffeine, as this can increase the risk of
cardiac arrest
103
What is the ideal ratio of omega-3 to omega-6 fatty acids?
1:1
104
Pharmacodynamically, valerian is classified as a/n
GABA agonist
105
Valerian is best described as a/n: A. depressant B. sedative C. antipsychotic D. stimulant
B. sedative
106
Gingkgo biloba should not be combined with: A. SSRIs B. grapefruit juice C. tamoxifen D. aspirin
D. aspirin
107
What part of the kava plant is traditionally consumed? A. flowers B. roots C. leaves D. stems
B. roots
108
The pharmacodynamic mechanism of St. John's wort is very similar to that of: A. TCAs B. SSRIs C. MAOIs D. SNRIs
A. TCAs
109
Ginkgo bliboba is mainly used to improve: A. cognition B. insomnia C. mania D. ADHD
A. cognition
110
Valerian is commonly called "Nature's ____."
Valium
111
All of the following are active compounds found in kava EXCEPT: A. kavain B. terpene trilactones C. yangonin D. methysticin
B. terpene trilactones
112
Which of the following is ma huang used for?
asthma
113
Valerian is commonly used to treat all of the following EXCEPT
high blood pressure
114
Toxicity can result from the consumption of the ginkgo biloba
seeds
115
Which of the following plants is NOT used as an anxiolytic?
Ma huang
116
Kava grows naturally in what part of the world?
South Pacific
117
The active ingredient in St. John's wort is thought to be
hypericum perfortatum
118
An important property of omega-3 fatty acids is that they have ____ effects.
anti-inflammatory
119
An important pharmacodynamic effect of ginkgo biloba is
anticoagulation
120
Kava has pharmacodynamic effects very similar to
alcohol
121
In the past, use of kava has been linked to
hepatotoxicity