Quiz 8 - Burns & Face and Neck Trauma Flashcards
The onset of ___________ soon after exposure to radiation is a predictor of poor outcomes.
A. vomiting
B. tachycardia
C. hair loss
D. confusion
A. vomiting
During an explosion, a 42-year-old construction worker sustained a large laceration to the lateral aspect of his neck when he was struck by a piece of flying debris. The patient is conscious, but complains of difficulty hearing. In addition to protecting his spine, you should be MOST concerned with:
A. administering high-flow oxygen via nonrebreathing mask as soon as possible.
B. applying a bulky dressing to the laceration and securing it firmly with a bandage.
C. covering the laceration with an occlusive dressing and controlling the bleeding.
D. carefully examining his ear to determine if his tympanic membrane is ruptured
C. covering the laceration with an occlusive dressing and controlling the bleeding.
The progression of a chemical burn is MOSTLY dependent on:
A. whether the corrosive substance is a strong acid or alkali.
B. the surface area of the body exposed to a corrosive chemical.
C. the length of time the corrosive chemical remains on the skin.
D. the patient’s general health and the thickness of his or her skin
C. the length of time the corrosive chemical remains on the skin.
The two MOST common causes of death from an electrical injury are:
A. full-thickness burns and respiratory arrest.
B. asphyxia and cardiopulmonary arrest.
C. myoglobinuria and diaphragmatic paralysis.
D. nervous system damage and massive sepsis.
B. asphyxia and cardiopulmonary arrest.
If an acutely burned patient is in shock in the prehospital setting:
A. it is likely that he or she is experiencing burn shock.
B. administer a 250-mL bolus of normal saline and reassess.
C. you should look for another injury as the source of shock.
D. avoid IV fluids unless the systolic BP is below 80 mm Hg.
C. you should look for another injury as the source of shock.
When considering analgesia for a burn patient who is in severe pain, you must remember that:
A. due to the risk of causing hemodynamic compromise, analgesia should be avoided in the field.
B. benzodiazepines are preferred over narcotics because they are less likely to cause hypotension.
C. burns increase the metabolic rate, which may necessitate higher than normal doses of analgesics.
D. one half of the usual dose of narcotic analgesics should be given in order to avoid drug toxicity.
C. burns increase the metabolic rate, which may necessitate higher than normal doses of analgesics.
The secondary assessment of a severely burned patient is intended to:
A. locate and treat minor injuries after all serious injuries have been treated.
B. identify other injuries that may have a higher priority for treatment.
C. provide for a rapid means of assessing the patient for occult injuries.
D. focus on areas of the body that have sustained the most serious burns.
B. identify other injuries that may have a higher priority for treatment.
Bradycardia that occurs shortly after you have dressed and bandaged an open neck wound is MOST likely the result of:
A. parasympathetic nervous system stimulation due to excessive pressure on the carotid artery.
B. decreased venous return from the brain and an increase in intracranial pressure.
C. decreased vagal tone secondary to direct injury to the vagus nerve.
D. an acute pulmonary embolism due to the entrainment of air into one of the jugular veins.
A. parasympathetic nervous system stimulation due to excessive pressure on the carotid artery.
General care for an eye injury involves:
A. covering both eyes to minimize further injury.
B. irrigating the eye with sterile saline solution.
C. applying a cold compress to the eyeball.
D. applying direct pressure to the globe
A. covering both eyes to minimize further injury.
Supraglottic damage following a burn is MOST often caused by:
A. the inhalation of superheated gases.
B. direct flame exposure to the oropharynx.
C. the inhalation of hot particulate steam.
D. exposure to carbon monoxide or cyanide.
A. the inhalation of superheated gases.
What type of thermal burn is MOST commonly associated with inhalation injury?
A. Scald burns
B. Steam burns
C. Flame burns
D. Arc burns
B. Steam burns
Damage to the kidneys following an electrical injury:
answer.
A. is the result of electricity passing through the kidneys.
B. is caused by excess serum potassium levels.
C. occurs when damaged muscle produces myoglobin.
D. can be prevented with boluses of lactated Ringer’s
C. occurs when damaged muscle produces myoglobin.
Victims standing near an object that is struck by lightning:
A. most commonly experience blast-type injuries.
B. often have burns characterized by a feathering pattern.
C. experience full-thickness burns that require debridement.
D. typically experience intractable ventricular fibrillation.
B. often have burns characterized by a feathering pattern.
The appropriate treatment for MOST chemical burns is:
A. flushing with copious amounts of water.
B. neutralization with an alkaline substance.
C. application of a moist, sterile dressing.
D. application of a dry, sterile dressing.
A. flushing with copious amounts of water.
Which of the following statements regarding prehospital vascular access and fluid therapy in the severely burned patient is correct?
A. An IV line in a lower extremity is preferable to one in a burned upper extremity.
B. Intraosseous cannulation is absolutely contraindicated in severely burned patients.
C. At least one large-bore IV should be started while en route to the hospital.
D. Most burn patients will require at least 4 L of IV fluid immediately.
C. At least one large-bore IV should be started while en route to the hospital.