Quiz 24 - Special Operations

Question 1

When parking the ambulance off the side of the highway in dry weather:

A. you should place safety cones at all four points of the vehicle.

B. the heat from underneath the vehicle could start a grass fire.

C. the entire ambulance should be positioned off of the gravel.

D. it is generally considered safe to turn off your warning lights.

Answer 1

B. the heat from underneath the vehicle could start a grass fire.

Question 2

Which of the following biologic agents is highly transmittable from person to person?

A. Smallpox

B. Botulinum

C. Bubonic plague

D. Yellow fever virus

Answer 2

A. Smallpox

Question 3

Which of the following statements regarding cold water submersion is NOT correct?

A. Bradycardia occurs after falling in cold water and lowers the basal metabolic rate.

B. The cold protective response secondary to hypothermia can protect vital organs.

C. Patients submerged in cold water are often dehydrated secondary to cold diuresis.

D. Water that is colder than 70°F will cause a marked increase in oxygen demand.

Answer 3

D. Water that is colder than 70°F will cause a marked increase in oxygen demand.

Question 4

Department of Transportation (DOT) Class 8 chemicals are:

A. radioactive.

B. flammable.

C. explosive.

D. corrosive.

Answer 4

D. corrosive.

Question 5

After ensuring your own safety, which of the following is your next priority at the scene of a hazardous materials incident?

A. Immediately move patients to a safe place.

B. Begin decontaminating all involved patients.

C. Identify the hazardous material involved.

D. Evacuate residents within a 3-mile radius.

Answer 5

C. Identify the hazardous material involved.

Question 6

The key to any disaster response is:

A. execution.

B. triage.

C. recovery.

D. planning.

Answer 6

D. planning.

Question 7

All of the following are examples of domestic terrorism, EXCEPT the:

A. Oklahoma City bombing.

B. World Trade Center attack.

C. Centennial Park bombing.

D. Atlanta abortion clinic attacks.

Answer 7

B. World Trade Center attack.

Question 8

In contrast to the lethal concentration of a chemical, the lethal dose is:

A. a single dose that causes death when exposure occurs by any route other than inhalation.

B. the dose expected to cause death when administered by any route other than absorption.

C. a single dose that causes death when exposure occurs exclusively via the inhalation route.

D. the dose expected to cause death when administered over a specified period of time.

Answer 8

A. a single dose that causes death when exposure occurs by any route other than inhalation.

Question 9

Which of the following statements regarding body armor is correct?

A. Body armor effectively protects your neck, which is a common target for someone who tries to kill you.

B. Soft body armor offers six levels of protection and will stop a bullet fired from any weapon.

C. Federal regulations mandate that EMS providers working in urban areas are provided body armor.

D. Sound survival skills to avoid dangerous situations provide more protection than body armor.

Answer 9

D. Sound survival skills to avoid dangerous situations provide more protection than body armor.

Question 10

According to the JumpSTART triage system, if an infant or child is not breathing, you should:

A. categorize the patient as expectant.

B. deliver five rescue breaths.

C. manually open the patient’s airway.

D. immediately assess for a pulse.

Answer 10

D. immediately assess for a pulse.

Question 11

A blue placard specifically indicates that a chemical is a _________ hazard.

A. reactivity

B. fire

C. health

D. explosive

Answer 11

C. health

Question 12

You are caring for a patient with non-life-threatening injuries in the treatment section of a multiple-casualty incident when you are approached by several TV reporters who are seeking details regarding the incident. You should:

A. ignore the reporters’ questions and continue patient care.

B. direct the reporters to the public information officer.

C. firmly tell the reporters to leave the scene immediately.

D. provide a brief overview of the current situation.

Answer 12

B. direct the reporters to the public information officer.

Question 13

You are assessing an injured hiker and determine that his pelvis is unstable and painful to palpation. The patient is located at the top of a large mountain, and the local rescue helicopter is on another mission and is unable to respond. Assuming you have the appropriate equipment, the MOST effective way of moving this patient is to:

A. place the patient in a Stokes basket, pad around his pelvic area with blankets, and use at least six people to carefully move him down the mountain.

B. apply full spinal motion restriction precautions, establish an IV and administer 15 mg of morphine, and carefully move him in 5-minute increments.

C. secure the patient in a full-body vacuum mattress, place the mattress in a Stokes basket, and utilize at least four people to move him down the mountain.

D. fully immobilize him on a scoop stretcher, apply a commercial pelvic binder to stabilize his pelvis, and then coordinate each move down the mountain.

Answer 13

C. secure the patient in a full-body vacuum mattress, place the mattress in a Stokes basket, and utilize at least four people to move him down the mountain.

Question 14

Anthrax is a bacterium that:

A. is generally not responsive to antibiotic therapy, even if the therapy is begun immediately.

B. results in death more than 90% of the time, regardless of how the bacterium enters a person’s body.

C. is highly communicable and would most likely be disseminated by a terrorist via a liquid medium.

D. lies dormant in a spore and is released when exposed to the optimal temperature and moisture.

Answer 14

D. lies dormant in a spore and is released when exposed to the optimal temperature and moisture.

Question 15

According to the dose effect principle:

A. the greater the length of time or the greater the concentration of the material, the greater the effect will be on the body.

B. the effects of a hazardous material will be more severe if it is ingested rather than inhaled or absorbed through the skin.

C. an extremely toxic hazardous material will have the same effect on the body, regardless of the length of the exposure.

D. biotransformation and elimination of a chemical is not possible if the exposure involved a large or concentrated dose.

Answer 15

A. the greater the length of time or the greater the concentration of the material, the greater the effect will be on the body.

Question 16

Which of the following duties is NOT a responsibility of the incident commander?

A. Establishing strategic objectives and priorities

B. Developing a plan to manage the incident

C. Authorizing medical treatment interventions

D. Assessing the entire incident scene

Answer 16

C. Authorizing medical treatment interventions

Question 17

According to the START triage system, a nonbreathing patient should be triaged as immediate if:

A. a manual airway maneuver restores breathing.

B. he or she is in need of immediate intubation.

C. the airway is completely blocked by swelling.

D. he or she does not respond to two rescue breaths.

Answer 17

A. a manual airway maneuver restores breathing.

Question 18

When approaching a parked vehicle that is occupied by an apparently sick person, you should:

A. immediately retreat to your ambulance if you see an object such as a baseball bat inside the vehicle.

B. position yourself in front of the vehicle’s B column if there are any people in the rear seat of the vehicle.

C. determine how many people are in the vehicle, paying particular attention to the location of their hands.

D. stop at the left rear of the vehicle first and firmly tug on the hood to determine if it is closed.

Answer 18

C. determine how many people are in the vehicle, paying particular attention to the location of their hands.

Question 19

Air ambulances are advantageous for all of the following reasons, EXCEPT:

A. faster transport to definitive care.

B. the ability to access remote areas.

C. the availability of specialized equipment.

D. more experience of the flight paramedics.

Answer 19

D. more experience of the flight paramedics.

Question 20

Proper documentation of an incident in which a patient was injured during a crime should include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. your estimate of when the injury occurred.

B. the disposition of any evidence at the scene.

C. any incriminating statements made by others.

D. the position of the patient upon your arrival

Answer 20

A. your estimate of when the injury occurred.

Question 21

When personnel from other jurisdictions arrive at the scene of a disaster, they should:

A. report to the staging area.

B. notify the incident commander.

C. turn their portable radios off.

D. begin secondary triage.

Answer 21

A. report to the staging area.

Question 22

It is MOST important to park your ambulance upwind and uphill from a hazardous materials incident scene because:

A. the vapor density of many chemicals is less than that of the air, causing the vapor to rise and dissipate as it travels with the wind.

B. the risk of being contaminated is minimal if the chemical travels, and you will have greater visibility of the entire incident scene.

C. if the chemical ignites and explodes, the fallout from the blast will most likely sink into valleys and ditches instead of rising.

D. hazardous chemicals that turn to gas rarely have a vapor density that is heavier than the air, regardless of the amount of chemical.

Answer 22

A. the vapor density of many chemicals is less than that of the air, causing the vapor to rise and dissipate as it travels with the wind.

Question 23

Cyanide is a chemical asphyxiant, which means that it:

A. binds to hemoglobin and prevents oxygen transport to the cells.

B. interferes with the utilization of oxygen at the cellular level.

C. destroys red blood cells and prevents red blood cell production.

D. impairs pulmonary respiration by causing pulmonary edema.

Answer 23

B. interferes with the utilization of oxygen at the cellular level.

Question 24

If you are trained in hazardous materials at the awareness level, you should be able to:

A. care for patients who may present a risk of secondary contamination.

B. coordinate activities at the scene of a hazardous materials incident.

C. recognize potential hazards and the need for additional resources.

D. perform patient care activities in the command and support center.

Answer 24

C. recognize potential hazards and the need for additional resources.

Question 25

Which of the following statements regarding an EMS provider’s role during a trench rescue is correct?

A. Due to a lack of proper training, EMS providers should remain at least 50 yards away from the trench at all times.

B. It is crucial for the EMS provider to be in the trench to provide emergency care during the rescue attempt.

C. Trench rescue is a part of a paramedic’s training, so he or she is properly trained to enter a trench safely.

D. EMS providers should attempt to make contact with the patient, but should not enter the trench and attempt rescue.

Answer 25

D. EMS providers should attempt to make contact with the patient, but should not enter the trench and attempt rescue.

Question 26

Level A personal protective equipment:

A. is required when a technician needs protection from splashes and inhaled toxins but does not need to be fully encapsulated.

B. provides the same degree of protection as a fire fighter’s turnout gear, and is typically worn in the cold zone.

C. fully encapsulates the hazardous materials technician, including his or her self-contained breathing apparatus.

D. is designed to protect the rescuer against a known agent and is worn with an air-purifying respirator.

Answer 26

C. fully encapsulates the hazardous materials technician, including his or her self-contained breathing apparatus.

Question 27

When sizing up the scene of a multiple-casualty incident, the LEAST of your initial concerns should be:

A. requesting additional help.

B. why the incident occurred.

C. how you will react initially.

D. the nature of the incident.

Answer 27

B. why the incident occurred.

Question 28

Level ___ personal protective equipment would MOST likely be worn during transport of patients with the potential of secondary contamination.

A. B

B. A

C. D

D. C

Answer 28

D. C

Question 29

A man stormed into a daycare center and opened fire with a semiautomatic rifle. The scene has been secured by law enforcement, and you are in the process of triaging the injured children. The first child you assess, a 4-year-old boy, is unresponsive and apneic but has a pulse. After manually opening his airway, he remains apneic. You should:

A. provide five rescue breaths and reassess his respiratory status.

B. consider him nonsalvageable and place a black tag on him.

C. assist his ventilations while closely monitoring his pulse rate.

D. categorize him as an immediate patient and continue triaging.

Answer 29

A. provide five rescue breaths and reassess his respiratory status.

Question 30

A patient would MOST likely become trapped between the driver’s seat and steering wheel following a:

A. rollover crash.

B. T-bone collision.

C. frontal crash.

D. lateral collision

Answer 30

C. frontal crash.

Question 31

Decontaminating a patient with copious amounts of water:

A. should involve the use of a brush to maximize decontamination.

B. decreases the dose effect of the hazardous material on the patient.

C. should not include the eyes, as this often causes further injury.

D. is generally discouraged, as this may cause runoff of the material.

Answer 31

B. decreases the dose effect of the hazardous material on the patient.

Question 32

Which of the following statements regarding utility hazards at the scene of a rescue operation is correct?

A. Live power lines usually arc or produce sparks.

B. Natural gas displaces carbon dioxide in the air.

C. You should park at least 10 feet away from downed power lines.

D. Utility hazards can be above or below the ground.

Answer 32

D. Utility hazards can be above or below the ground.

Question 33

If you must break a window to gain access to a patient trapped in his or her vehicle, you should:

A. ensure that the patient and all rescuers are protected properly.

B. try to lower the window as far as possible before breaking it.

C. break the windshield and approach the patient from the front.

D. break the safety glass of a side window with a center punch.

Answer 33

A. ensure that the patient and all rescuers are protected properly.

Question 34

The seizures associated with nerve agent exposure:

A. are often more severe in patients with a seizure history.

B. should be treated with large quantities of a benzodiazepine.

C. will continue until a MARK 1 antidote is administered.

D. cannot be reversed with any pharmacologic agent.

Answer 34

C. will continue until a MARK 1 antidote is administered.

Question 35

It is MOST important to consider a clandestine drug lab to be a(n):

A. crime scene.

B. hazardous materials scene.

C. unsafe environment for children.

D. illegal operation.

Answer 35

B. hazardous materials scene.

Question 36

During an incident involving an explosion, you determine that two critically injured patients should be transported to a trauma center by air. After stabilizing the patients’ conditions to the best of your ability, you should:

A. request air transport immediately and determine where you will land the helicopter.

B. contact the incident commander and request permission to utilize air transport.

C. notify the transportation supervisor and request that he or she establish a landing zone.

D. call the receiving trauma center and update them on the patients’ conditions.

Answer 36

C. notify the transportation supervisor and request that he or she establish a landing zone.

Question 37

Safe practices when parking your emergency vehicle on a roadway at night include all of the following, EXCEPT:

A. leaving the headlights on.

B. using your emergency flashers.

C. turning off the strobe lights.

D. wearing a reflective vest.

Answer 37

A. leaving the headlights on.

Question 38

Upon entering the residence of a man with a supposed heart attack, you find that you have been taken hostage by a young man who has a deer rifle. He orders you to sit down in the corner of the room, where other people have been taken hostage as well. You should:

A. move slowly to your ordered location, wait for the captor to turn his back, and swiftly attempt to subdue and disarm him.

B. attempt to negotiate with the captor, and tell him that he can keep you hostage if he releases the other people.

C. follow the orders of your captor, but try to pass by a window in an attempt to attract someone’s attention.

D. do as your captor orders, try to remain calm, and avoid doing anything to attract attention to yourself.

Answer 38

D. do as your captor orders, try to remain calm, and avoid doing anything to attract attention to yourself.

Question 39

Which of the following injuries or conditions should be assigned the HIGHEST triage priority?

A. Full-thickness burns

B. Cardiopulmonary arrest

C. Multiple long bone fractures

D. Respiratory distress

Answer 39

D. Respiratory distress

Question 40

All of the following are indicators of the potential for violence, EXCEPT:

A. a large body build.

B. clenching of the fists.

C. uncontrollable pacing.

D. the use of profanity.

Answer 40

A. a large body build.

Question 41

According to the JumpSTART triage system for pediatric patients, infants or children not developed enough to walk or follow commands should be:

A. taken to the treatment sector as soon as possible for immediate secondary triage.

B. assigned the same triage category as the walking wounded and evaluated later.

C. quickly moved to a designated area of the triage section and monitored closely.

D. labeled with a red tag and transported immediately to a pediatric trauma center.

Answer 41

A. taken to the treatment sector as soon as possible for immediate secondary triage.

Question 42

While interviewing a severely depressed man, the patient suddenly lunges at you with his hands. It is not known if the patient has any weapons. Your MOST appropriate action should be to:

A. throw your patient care form directly at the patient’s nose and egress rapidly.

B. quickly move back until you are out of the man’s reach, and then subdue him.

C. block his hands with your arm and strike him in the face with your closed fist.

D. strike the patient in the face with your metal clipboard and leave the scene.

Answer 42

A. throw your patient care form directly at the patient’s nose and egress rapidly.

Question 43

Biologic agents are:

A. least preferred by terrorists because they are difficult to disseminate over a large population.

B. synthetically manufactured and weaponized by mixing the synthetic component with an organism.

C. naturally occurring organisms that are cultivated in a laboratory.

D. the ideal weapons of mass destruction if the terrorist’s objective is to affect a small geographic area.

Answer 43

C. naturally occurring organisms that are cultivated in a laboratory.

Question 44

When transporting a small child on the stretcher, you should:

A. use a pediatric transport securing device whenever possible.

B. place the child on a parent’s lap and secure them both with straps.

C. secure the child as usual, using the adult straps on the stretcher.

D. place the child on a backboard, even in the absence of trauma.

Answer 44

A. use a pediatric transport securing device whenever possible.

Question 45

A multiple-casualty incident is MOST accurately defined as an event in which:

A. there are at least 25 patients, more than half of whom are critically injured.

B. the number of patients exceeds the resources available to the initial responders.

C. mutual aid from other agencies is required to care for numerous patients.

D. there are more patients who require advanced life support than patients who do not.

Answer 45

B. the number of patients exceeds the resources available to the initial responders.

Question 46

The unified command system:

A. mandates that a single person will maintain command authority, even if multiple jurisdictions respond.

B. can deplete the resources of multiple jurisdictions and agencies and should only be used during large disasters.

C. allows representatives from multiple jurisdictions and agencies to share command authority and responsibility.

D. is a type of incident response in which command is established and maintained by the first agency on the scene.

Answer 46

C. allows representatives from multiple jurisdictions and agencies to share command authority and responsibility.

Question 47

In contrast to sarin, soman:

A. is much less persistent and is odorless.

B. is a clear, oily agent that looks like baby oil.

C. is five times as lethal and has a fruity odor.

D. enters the body exclusively through the skin.

Answer 47

C. is five times as lethal and has a fruity odor.

Question 48

Which of the following statements regarding the hot zone at a rescue scene is correct?

A. The hot zone is designated for the staging of vehicles and equipment and is also where the command post is located.

B. The hot zone immediately surrounds the dangers of the rescue site and is only accessible by entry and rescue teams.

C. The hot zone should be specifically designated for decontamination of rescue personnel and equipment.

D. The hot zone should be a large perimeter around the entire scene and should be cordoned off with yellow tape.

Answer 48

B. The hot zone immediately surrounds the dangers of the rescue site and is only accessible by entry and rescue teams.

Question 49

In contrast to a type II ambulance, a type III ambulance:

A. does not allow access from the cab to the patient compartment.

B. is a specialty van that usually has a modular ambulance body.

C. has an ambulance body that can be transferred to a new chassis.

D. is a standard van with a walk-through to the patient compartment.

Answer 49

B. is a specialty van that usually has a modular ambulance body.

Question 50

The goal of system status management is to:

A. ensure that every ambulance is staffed with at least one paramedic.

B. allow paramedics ample time to rest before going on another call.

C. post at least three ambulances in an area where most EMS calls occur.

D. minimize response times by deploying EMS resources strategically.

Answer 50

D. minimize response times by deploying EMS resources strategically.