Quiz 3 - Pathophysiology and Medication Administration

Question 1

Foreign material such as bacteria and other microorganisms are engulfed and destroyed by:

A. phagocytes.

B. basophils.

C. lymphocytes.

D. eosinophils

Answer 1

A. phagocytes.

Question 2

Aspirin and NSAIDs reduce inflammation and pain by:

A. thinning the blood and reducing platelets.

B. promoting mast cell synthesis of prostaglandins.

C. decreasing circulating pyrogen levels.

D. inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis.

Answer 2

D. inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis.

Question 3

Cerebrospinal fluid and synovial fluid are MOST appropriately classified as ____________ fluids.

A. interstitial

B. extracellular

C. intracellular

D. intravascular

Answer 3

A. interstitial

Question 4

Cations are electrolytes that have an overall __________ charge, and anions are electrolytes that have an overall ___________ charge.

A. positive, negative

B. negative, neutral

C. negative, positive

D. neutral, positive

Answer 4

A. positive, negative

Question 5

Gross distortions of reality, withdrawal from social contacts, and bizarre behavior are MOST characteristic
of:

A. schizophrenia.

B. bipolar disorder.

C. depression.

D. obsessive-compulsive disorder

Answer 5

A. schizophrenia.

Question 6

Apoptosis is defined as:

A. premature cell death.

B. hypoxic cell death.

C. normal cell death.

D. pathologic cell death.

Answer 6

C. normal cell death.

Question 7

Approximately 20 minutes after starting an IV on a 40-year-old man, he begins complaining of a backache
and chills. You should be MOST suspicious of:

A. an air embolus.

B. circulatory overload.

C. a pyrogenic reaction.

D. an allergic reaction.

Answer 7

C. a pyrogenic reaction.

Question 8

Enlargement of the left ventricle due to chronically elevated blood pressure is called:

A. atrophy.

B. dysplasia.

C. hyperplasia.

D. hypertrophy.

Answer 8

D. hypertrophy.

Question 9

The MOST important point to remember about IV therapy is to:

A. keep the IV equipment sterile.

B. locate the largest vein.

C. wear two pairs of gloves.

D. prepare all supplies ahead of time.

Answer 9

A. keep the IV equipment sterile.

Question 10

Administering large amounts of an isotonic crystalloid solution to a patient with internal bleeding would MOST likely:

A. expand the vascular space and improve systemic perfusion.

B. increase the severity of internal bleeding by interfering with hemostasis.

C. cause acute hypotension as fluid is drawn from the vascular space.

D. change the ratio of hemoglobin and red blood cells.

Answer 10

B. increase the severity of internal bleeding by interfering with hemostasis.

Question 11

The induction phase of the immune response begins when:

A. the body is initially exposed to a foreign substance.

B. an antibody binds to a specific antigen and destroys it.

C. biologic mediators release histamine and other chemicals.

D. part of the immune system recognizes an antigen.

Answer 11

D. part of the immune system recognizes an antigen.

Question 12

Colloid solutions:

A. include solutions such as lactated Ringer’s and normal saline and rapidly expand the intravascular compartment.

B. do not contain large molecules and are therefore ineffective in expanding the intravascular compartment.

C. are safe to use in the prehospital setting because they rapidly and effectively expand the intravascular compartment.

D. contain proteins that are too large to pass out of the capillary membranes, so the solutions remain in the vascular compartment.

Answer 12

D. contain proteins that are too large to pass out of the capillary membranes, so the solutions remain in the vascular compartment.

Question 13

What disease is characterized by erosions in the mucous membrane lining of the gastrointestinal tract, specifically the stomach?

A. Crohn’s disease

B. Cholecystitis

C. Peptic ulcer disease

D. Cholethiasis

Answer 13

C. Peptic ulcer disease

Question 14

The site on a patient’s forearm that has been cleaned with iodine and alcohol before starting an IV is said to be:

A. sterile.

B. medically clean.

C. disinfected.

D. autoclaved.

Answer 14

B. medically clean.

Question 15

A patient with kidney or liver failure would MOST likely develop:

A. cellular shrinkage and death.

B. severe dehydration.

C. an increase in isotonic fluid.

D. excessive hypertonic fluid levels.

Answer 15

C. an increase in isotonic fluid.

Question 16

After administering Fentanyl, a controlled medication, to a patient for severe pain, you should:

A. properly dispose of any remaining medication and ask your partner to sign as the person who wasted the medication.

B. discard any medication that was not used and document the amount you wasted on the patient care report.

C. ensure that any unused medication is disposed of properly and then have the patient’s family member sign as a witness.

D. have your partner or a supervisor witness you properly disposing of any of the unused medication and then sign as a witness.

Answer 16

D. have your partner or a supervisor witness you properly disposing of any of the unused medication and then sign as a witness.

Question 17

While consulting with the attending physician at the receiving facility about a patient with symptomatic bradycardia, the physician orders you to administer 0.5mg/kg of atropine to the patient. After recognizing that this is an inappropriate dose of atropine, you should:

A. ask the physician to repeat the order.

B. confirm the correct dose in your field guide.

C. refuse to administer the ordered dose.

D. contact your medical director at once.

Answer 17

A. ask the physician to repeat the order.

Question 18

Which of the following processes occurs during multiple organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)?

A. MODS activates the kallikrein-kinin system, which stimulates the release of bradykinin, a potent vasoconstrictor

B. Vascular endothelial damage causes depression of the coagulation system, which causes the blood to clot

C. The liver produces too little of the enzymes aspartate aminotransferase and alanine aminotransferase

D. The ischemic pancreas releases myocardial depressant factor, which impairs cardiac contractility

Answer 18

D. The ischemic pancreas releases myocardial depressant factor, which impairs cardiac contractility

Question 19

Which of the following disease processes would MOST likely cause delayed or dysfunctional wound healing?

A. Diabetes

B. Hypertension

C. Heart disease

D. Hypothyroidism

Answer 19

A. Diabetes

Question 20

Which of the following conditions would be the LEAST likely to cause hyperventilation?

A. Metabolic alkalosis

B. Ketoacidosis

C. Aspirin overdose

D. Severe infection

Answer 20

A. Metabolic alkalosis

Question 21

Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus

A. need exogenous insulin to survive.

B. are less likely to develop ketoacidosis.

C. experience excessive cellular uptake of glucose.

D. control their disease with dietary modification.

Answer 21

A. need exogenous insulin to survive.

Question 22

The paramedic is in the BEST position to formulate an appropriate treatment plan for an ill patient if the paramedic:

A. performs a head-to-toe exam to detect all abnormalities.

B. is able to identify the etiology of the patient’s illness.

C. gathers a reliable medical history from the patient’s family.

D. obtains a complete list of all the patient’s medications.

Answer 22

B. is able to identify the etiology of the patient’s illness.

Question 23

Immediately after administering intramuscular epinephrine to a patient with an allergic reaction, you should:

A. dispose of the needle and syringe in a sharps container.

B. reassess the patient for signs of clinical improvement.

C. monitor the patient and obtain another set of vital signs.

D. document the medication name and time of administration.

Answer 23

A. dispose of the needle and syringe in a sharps container.

Question 24

An elderly man with congestive heart failure and shortness of breath requires an IV line in case medication administration is necessary. Which of the following IV catheters is MOST appropriate to use when starting the IV?

A. 14 gauge, 2 ¼″

B. 16 gauge, 1 ¼″

C. 20 gauge, 1 ¼″

D. 18 gauge, 2 ¼″

Answer 24

C. 20 gauge, 1 ¼″

Question 25

What part of the cell produces the body’s major energy source in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP)?

A. Endoplasmic reticulum

B. Mitochondria

C. Golgi complex

D. Nucleus

Answer 25

B. Mitochondria

Question 26

After inserting an 18-gauge over-the-needle catheter into the hand vein of a 30-year-old woman and securing the IV line in place, you note edema at the catheter site despite continued flow of the IV. The woman complains of pain and tightness around the IV site. You should:

A. reapply the proximal constricting band to reduce edema at the catheter site.

B. recognize that infiltration has occurred and immediately discontinue the IV.

C. apply direct pressure to the venipuncture site and elevate her extremity.

D. discontinue the IV and circumferentially wrap a dressing around the extremity

Answer 26

B. recognize that infiltration has occurred and immediately discontinue the IV.

Question 27

In contrast to an antiseptic, a disinfectant is:

A. toxic to living tissues and should never be used on a patient.

B. not intended to be used on nondisposable patient care equipment.

C. used to cleanse an area before performing an invasive procedure.

D. capable of destroying pathogens but is not toxic to living tissues.

Answer 27

A. toxic to living tissues and should never be used on a patient.

Question 28

Homeostasis is MOST accurately defined as:

A. the inability of the body to maintain a constant internal environment.

B. cellular oxygen delivery and carbon dioxide removal from the body.

C. a constant effort to preserve a degree of stability or equilibrium.

D. the balance of water or hydration in the cells and body of an organism.

Answer 28

C. a constant effort to preserve a degree of stability or equilibrium.

Question 29

How does the body respond to hypoperfusion?

A. A compensatory decrease in cardiac output and cardiac oxygen demand

B. Decreased preload, stroke volume, and heart rate

C. Splenic retention of red blood cells secondary to systemic hypoxia

D. Catecholamine release and increased systemic vascular resistance

Answer 29

D. Catecholamine release and increased systemic vascular resistance

Question 30

The MOST prevalent cation of the extracellular fluid is:

A. chloride.

B. potassium.

C. bicarbonate.

D. sodium.

Answer 30

D. sodium.

Question 31

A loss of normal sympathetic nervous system tone causes:

A. neurogenic shock.

B. profound vasoconstriction.

C. a reduced absolute blood volume.

D. obstructive shock.

Answer 31

A. neurogenic shock.

Question 32

If an Rh-negative person receives Rh-positive blood:

A. antibodies will not be released.

B. hemolysis and anemia can result.

C. thrombocytopenia will occur.

D. a transfusion reaction will not occur.

Answer 32

B. hemolysis and anemia can result.

Question 33

Acidosis is characterized by a(n):

A. increase in hydrogen ions and a decrease in pH.

B. increase in hydrogen ions and an increase in pH.

C. decrease in hydrogen ions and a decrease in pH.

D. decrease in hydrogen ions and an increase in pH.

Answer 33

A. increase in hydrogen ions and a decrease in pH.

Question 34

Which of the following statements regarding IO cannulation and infusion is correct?

A. The IO space remains patent, even when peripheral veins have collapsed.

B. IO infusion should only be attempted in children younger than 6 years of age.

C. The IO route is reserved for select medications and certain blood products.

D. Medication absorption occurs more slowly through the IO space than through the IV route.

Answer 34

A. The IO space remains patent, even when peripheral veins have collapsed.

Question 35

Overhydration occurs when:

A. the left side of the heart fails and blood backs up into the systemic circulation.

B. the intracellular compartment becomes engorged due to a decrease in vascular volume.

C. a patient experiences prolonged periods of severe hyperventilation.

D. fluid is forced from the engorged interstitial compartment into the intracellular compartment.

Answer 35

D. fluid is forced from the engorged interstitial compartment into the intracellular compartment.

Question 36

The __________, which are found within the cell’s cytoplasm, operate in a cooperative and organized fashion to maintain the life of the cell

A. ribosomes

B. microfilaments

C. nuclear pores

D. organelles

Answer 36

D. organelles

Question 37

If you receive orders to administer more than one drug to the same patient, it is MOST important to:

A. wait 10 minutes before giving the second drug.

B. start a second IV line.

C. give a 100-mL saline bolus between drugs.

D. make sure the drugs are compatible.

Answer 37

D. make sure the drugs are compatible.

Question 38

A solution of water with 0.9% sodium chloride is:

A. capable of carrying oxygen when it is infused.

B. of minimal value in expanding the vascular space.

C. hypotonic until it is introduced into the body.

D. also called normal saline and is an isotonic solution.

Answer 38

D. also called normal saline and is an isotonic solution.

Question 39

When comparing two solutions, the solution that has a higher solute concentration and a higher osmotic pressure is referred to as a(n) __________ solution.

A. cigarette smoking and exposure to asbestos.

B. chewing tobacco use and a history of allergies.

C. frequent respiratory infections and asthma.

D. female sex and age over 40 years.

Answer 39

A. cigarette smoking and exposure to asbestos.

Question 40

Major risk factors for lung cancer include:

A. cigarette smoking and exposure to asbestos.

B. chewing tobacco use and a history of allergies.

C. frequent respiratory infections and asthma.

D. female sex and age over 40 years.

Answer 40

A. cigarette smoking and exposure to asbestos.

Question 41

Patients with congenital prolongation of the Q-T interval are at GREATEST risk for:

A. ventricular arrhythmias.

B. coronary artery disease.

C. acute myocardial infarction.

D. sudden asystole.

Answer 41

A. ventricular arrhythmias.

Question 42

Opsonization is a process in which:

A. antibodies bind to and inactivate toxins produced by bacteria.

B. antibodies cause antigens to clump together to facilitate phagocytosis.

C. a mother passes IgG and IgM antibodies to the fetus via breast milk.

D. an antibody coats an antigen to facilitate its recognition by immune cells.

Answer 42

D. an antibody coats an antigen to facilitate its recognition by immune cells.

Question 43

Sodium is a ________ cation and can react completely with _______.

A. bivalent, 2 mEq of a doubly charged cation

B. bivalent, 1 mEq of a doubly charged cation

C. monovalent, 2 mEq of a singly charged anion

D. monovalent, 1 mEq of a singly charged anion

Answer 43

D. monovalent, 1 mEq of a singly charged anion

Question 44

Once D5W is infused into the body:

A. it causes fluid to shift from the intracellular space into the vascular space.

B. cellular uptake of dextrose occurs and the solution quickly becomes isotonic.

C. the body metabolizes the dextrose quickly and the solution becomes hypotonic.

D. it rapidly expands the vascular space and effectively increases blood pressure.

Answer 44

C. the body metabolizes the dextrose quickly and the solution becomes hypotonic.

Question 45

After T lymphocytes leave the bone marrow, they mature in the:

A. thymus gland.

B. lymph nodes.

C. liver and spleen.

D. hypothalamus.

Answer 45

A. thymus gland.

Question 46

The chief white blood cell of the immune response is the:

A. monocyte.

B. eosinophil.

C. neutrophil.

D. lymphocyte.

Answer 46

D. lymphocyte.

Question 47

If the sodium potassium pump is impaired due to insufficient potassium in the body:

A. sodium accumulates and causes the cells to swell.

B. excess sodium fills the extracellular space.

C. water shifts from the cell and into the extracellular fluid.

D. the cells will shrink and eventually die.

Answer 47

A. sodium accumulates and causes the cells to swell.

Question 48

___________ nerves exit from between the spinal vertebrae and extend to various parts of the body.

A. Connecting

B. Peripheral

C. Cranial

D. Somatic

Answer 48

B. Peripheral

Question 49

Lactated Ringer’s (LR) solution may be beneficial to patients who have lost large amounts of blood because:

A. LR has the ability to carry oxygen and can maintain cellular perfusion until the patient receives definitive care.

B. it takes less LR to effectively expand the intravascular compartment than any other isotonic solution.

C. the likelihood of causing acute circulatory overload is minimal relative to other hypertonic solutions.

D. the lactate contained within LR is converted to bicarbonate in the liver and can help combat intracellular acidosis.

Answer 49

D. the lactate contained within LR is converted to bicarbonate in the liver and can help combat intracellular acidosis.

Question 50

1 cc is equal to _____ mL.

A. 10

B. 1

C. 1,000

D. 100

Answer 50

B. 1