Quiz 6 (CH 17, 18, 19A) Flashcards

1
Q

Methods of identifying unknown microbes

A

Phenotypic: micro, macro, physiological
Genotypic: PCR, FISH, gel electrophoresis, Ribosomal RNA sequencing
Immunologic: serology

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2
Q

What do you look for in micro and macro scopic morphology

A

Micro: size, shape, structures (fimbria, glycocalyx, flagella, cilia, endospores, appendages)
Macro: colony appearances, texture, size, shape (margin, color, elevation)

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3
Q

What are the different stains used in phenotypic methods

A

Gram stain, acid-fast stain (used for TB), direct immunofluorescent antibody, and direct antigen testing

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4
Q

What are the two phenotypic methods for the cultivation of specimen

A

Isolation media: enrichment, selective or differential
Biochemical testing API: physiological rxn to nutrients and other substrates

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5
Q

What are the miscellaneous phenotypic tests

A

Phage typing: plaque formation will be present if you identified the bacteria
Antimicrobial sensitivity: used to determine treatment drugs

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6
Q

Explain FISH

A

with a blood culture do a gram stain, there is a genetic probe that will bind the nucleotides to their targets on the sample. If they bind they will stay bound and be able to see the fluorescent stage.
The probe has pre-set nucleotides on it to bind to the sample

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7
Q

Explain Pulse-field gel electrophoresis

A

With the ladder examine the samples and see which matches more closely to the ladder.
Cut DNA at specific positions to look for DNA matches to ID it

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8
Q

Explain Polymerase chain rxn (PCR)

A

amplification of DNA, or a forced DNA replication over and over
sensitive and specific, detect HIV, Lyme disease, HPV, TB, and hepatitis

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9
Q

Explain Ribosomal RNA sequencing

A

There are more differences in ribosomal DNA, it is used to study the phylogeny and taxonomy of samples.

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10
Q

What are the serological methods

A

In vivo testing, testing patient serum, test culture colony with known antibodies, card test, and streak plate

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11
Q

Describe in vivo testing and give an example

A

Antigens are introduced into the body to determine the +/- of antibodies
allergy and tuberculin skin test

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12
Q

Describe what happens in the patient serum and prepared antigen test

A

when the antigen and antibody come together there is a visible change or clumping when positive, if negative there is no rxn

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13
Q

Describe what happens in the patient serum and prepared antigen test

A

when the antigen and antibody come together there is a visible change or clumping when positive, if negative there is no rxn

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14
Q

Describe what happens in the culture colony with known antibodies

A

once the patient sample is cultured, it is placed on a slide with antiserum with antibodies to a pathogen. If it contains the antigen it will clump and will be positive, if neg there is no rxn

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15
Q

Describe the card and streak plate

A

Serum card: different known antigens are on the card along with control if an rxn there is clumping
Streak plate: colonies mixed with Neisseria meningitides antiserum (+ rxn will have clumping)
all is visualized

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16
Q

Describe Agglutination tests

A

The antibody cross-links whole-cell antigens, from visible insoluble clumps
if binding occurs see the large precipitate on the bottom of the tube, if not bound they will stay throughout the tube
has a threshold of when it turns from + agglutinated cells to - unagglutinated cells
as you go through the tubes the more diluted the patient sample becomes

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17
Q

Describe the precipitation tests

A

the soluble antigen is made insoluble by an antibody
Ouchterlony double diffusion: samples are in wells and if a precipitation band is seen it is a + result (the antibodies are present)
VDRL: when bind together they will form a specific precipitated

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18
Q

Describe the Western Blot test

A

Electrophoretic separation of proteins, followed by an immunoassay to detect
uses to look at something over time, looking for the formation of antibodies against infection (from the same bands as control) Bands intensifying over days show the patient is showing stronger and stronger response to the infection (bad since has to fight harder against infection)

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19
Q

Describe the Complement fixation test

A

Lysins red blood cells not bound to antibodies - result (where there is a rxn there is no antibody, hemolysis happens)
lysins fail to lyse in the + rxn and can bind to antibodies and hemolysis doesn’t happen

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20
Q

Describe Direct immunofluorescent testing (add more if you would like)

A

an unknown antigen is fixed and exposed to a fluorescent known antibody solution.
the antibody is binding directly onto the bacterial cell which is casing the rxn
and identifies antigens on the surfaces of cells/tissues
ex. syphilis, gonorrhea, chlamydiosis, whooping cough

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21
Q

Describe indirect immunofluorescent testing (add more if you would like)

A

the antibody binds onto the cell, but to see that it has bound a second fluorescently labeled antibody binds to the first antibody and shows the tag
used to diagnose syphilis and various viral infections

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22
Q

What is radioimmunoassay (RIA)

A

antigens or antibodies labeled with radioactive isotopes

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23
Q

Describe indirect ELSA

A

Start with the antigen bound to the well, add the patient sample serum which may or may not contain antibodies, if it does those antibodies will bind to the antigen, rinse out the well only the antibodies bound to the antigen will stay. Add another antibody (like a tag) to the sample and if the original antibody is bound then the second antibody will bind, rinse again. order should be antigen, antibody, antibody. Add a substrate which if both antibodies are present will cause a rxn and change the well color to yellow. If no antibodies present no color change

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24
Q

describe capture or sandwich ELSA

A

the antibody is bound to the well, the solution potentially containing the antigen is added to the well (if present will bind to the antibody). Then the enzyme-linked antibody is added if the antigen is present it will bind to the antigen, and rinse well. Then the enzyme substrate is added and if the enzyme is present the color will change. Antibody, antigen, enzyme

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25
Q

Staphylococci general characteristic

A

A common inhabitant of the skin and mucous membranes, spherical cells arranged in irregular clusters, gram +, lack spores and flagella, may have capsules

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26
Q

Types of ways to identify staphylococcus

A

pus, tissue, sputum, urine, blood
API test, catalase test, coagulase test, antibody/antigen

27
Q

What are the coagulase-negative staphylococci (4 types)

A

S. epidermidis, S. hominis, S. capitis, S. saprophyticus

28
Q

What do the coagulase-negative staphylococci have in common

A

all live on the skin
epi: skin and mucous membranes
hominis: sweat glands
capitis: scalp, face, eternal ear
saprophyticus: skin, intestine, vagina

29
Q

What are some general characteristics of Staphylococcus aureus

A

grows in large, round, opaque colonies
temp 37
facultative anaerobe
withstands high salt, extremes in pH, high temps
produces many virulence factors
coagulase positive

30
Q

What are some of the virulence factors of S. aureus

A

coagulates blood plasma, digests connective tissues, digests blood clots, lyse red blood cells, induces fever, vomiting rash, organ damage

31
Q

What are folliculitis

A

Superficial inflammation of hair follicle; usually resolves easily

32
Q

What are furuncles

A

boil; inflammation of hair follicle or sebaceous gland, may progress

33
Q

What is a carbuncle

A

larger and deeper lesion created by aggregation and interconnection of a cluster of furuncles, more likely to progress

34
Q

What does impetigo mean

A

bubble-like swellings that can break and peel away; most common in newborns

35
Q

Based on the table what does S. aureus affect?

A

Cardiovascular, lymphatic system: endocarditis, toxic shock syndrome
Gastrointestinal: food intoxication
Respiratory: Pneumonia

36
Q

What are the toxigenic disease from S. aureus
and give a brief description

A

Food intoxication: ingestion fo heat-stable enterotoxins (gastrointestinal distress)
staphylococcal scaled skin syndrome: toxin induces bright red flush, blisters then peeling
Toxic shock syndrome: toxemia leading to shock and organ failure

37
Q

What is the current treatment for S. aureus

A

Resistant forms can generally be treated with cephalexin, sulfa drugs, tetracyclines, or clindamycin

38
Q

What can treat MRSA

A

vancomycin, ceftaroline, linezolid, and daptomycin

39
Q

What are the general characteristic of straptococci

A

gram + spherical arranged in long chains or pairs, non-spore-forming, nonmotile, can form capsules and slime layers, facultative anaerobes, do no form catalase but have peroxidase, most parasitic forms are fastidious and require to enrich media, small, non-pigmented, sensitive to drying, heat and disinfectants

40
Q

Describe Lancefield groups

A

17 groups that are based on polysaccharides, or teichoic acids that are found on the bacterial cell wall that contains antigens
Has beta-hemolytic and alpha hemolytic

41
Q

What kind of tests can be done after the gram stain to differentiate (Streptococcal)

A

Quellung test: looking to see the level or amount of lysis that occurs (beta complete hemolysis, alpha partial hemolysis)
Bile solubility: cloudy neg, clear pos
inulin fermentation: positive fermentation if it was able to use the starch or if not

42
Q

Describe Streptococcus pyogenes general

A

most serious streptococcal pathogen, inhabits throat, nasopharynx, occasionally skin
strict parasite that produce surface antigens

43
Q

Build a story of S. pyogenes
touch on C-carbohydrates, Fimbriae, M-protein, Hyaluronic acid capsule, and C5a protease

A

the cell itself on the outside is the C5a protease that hinders complement & neutrophil response, the fimbriae make it so they can attach better onto host cells, the hyaluronic acid capsule provokes no immune response, then M-protein contributes to resistance to phagocytosis, and C-carbohydrates prevents lysozymes from being able to properly bind or enter cells

44
Q

What are some of the Virulence factors of S. pyogenes

A

Extracellular toxins: streptolysins, erythrogenic toxins, superantigens
Extracellular enzymes: Streptokinase, hyaluronidase, DNase

45
Q

For S. pyogenes what are the scopes of clinical disease (non-systemic)

A

impetigo: superficial lesions, highly contagious
erysipelas: pathogen enters through broken skin and invades deeper layers
streptococcal pharyngitis: strep throat

46
Q

For S. pyogenes what are the scopes of clinical disease (systemic infections)

A

scarlet fever, septicemia, pneumonia, streptococcal toxic shock,

47
Q

General characteristics of Streptococcus pneumoniae

A

small, lancet-shaped cells, pairs, and short chains
requires blood or chocolate agar
lack of catalase and peroxidases
all pathogenic strains form capsules

48
Q

what is a pneumococcus disease

A

pneumonia occurs when cells are aspirated into the lungs of susceptible individuals, which then multiplies and induces an overwhelming inflammatory response

49
Q

What is the treatment for pneumococcal infections

A

treated with penicillin G or V

50
Q

general characteristics of Neisseria

A

gram neg, bean-shaped, diplococci, no flagella or spores (yes pili)
strict parasites do not survive long outside of the host
produce catalase
aerobic or microaerophilic

51
Q

General characteristics of Gonococcal infections

A

gram neg, diplococci form urethral, vaginal, cervical, or eye

52
Q

Factors contributing to gonococcal pathogenicity
epidemiology and pathology of gonorrhea
Neisseria gonorrhoeae

A

Factors: fimbriae, other surface molecules for attachment; slows phagocytosis
epidemiology: strictly a human infection in top 5 STDs

53
Q

Gonorrhea in males

A

urethritis, yellowish discharge, scarring, and infertility
10% of males are asymptomatic

54
Q

gonorrhea in female

A

vaginitis can cause inflammation in the vagina, and urethra other risks of sterility are scar tissue may build in the FT and not letting an egg pass or could, however, might not let an already fertilized egg pass.
50% of females are asymptomatic

55
Q

Gonorrhea in children

A

infants born to gonococcus carries are in danger of being infected as they pass through the birth canal
eye inflammation, blindness

56
Q

What are the three medically important gram + bacilli

A

Endospores-formers, non-endospores formers, irregular shaped and staining properties

57
Q

What are the general characteristics of bacillus

A

gram +, endospore-forming motile rods, mostly saprobic, aerobic, catalase positive, and source of antibiotics

58
Q

Describe bacillus anthracis

A

large block-shaped angular nonmotile rods
central spores that developed under all conditions except in the living body
virulence factors- polypeptide capsule and exotoxins

59
Q

where are the majority of anthrax cases from

A

livestock from africa, asia, and the middle east, vaccines used to protect animals

60
Q

How is anthrax treated?

A

with clindamycin, doxycycline, or ciprofloxacin each + raxibacumab

61
Q

General characteristics of Bacillus cereus

A

Gram+ rod, variety of environments (anaerobic), spreads through the air or dust, spores, grows in foods
Food poisoning

62
Q

Tell the story of Bacillus cereus

A

is air-borne or dust-borne and when in the kitchen it lands on food exposed to the air since it has spores those spores do not cook away and then they will grow and infect whoever eats it.
the second story is if the cooked food was left out with no cover then spores have time to line germinate and produce toxins

63
Q

Give the general characteristics of the genus Clostridium

A

Gram +, spore-forming rods, anaerobic and catalase neg, a common genus in and out of the body, in our gut (ferment nutrients), can produce a variety of acids, alcohols, exotoxins

64
Q

General overview of Clostridium perfringens

A

Most frequent clostridia involved in soft tissue an dwond infections
spores found in soil, human skin, intestine, and vagina
Virulence factors: Alpha toxin, collagenase, hyaluronidase, DNase