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Micro > Quiz 5 (CH 13,14,15) > Flashcards

Quiz 5 (CH 13,14,15) Flashcards

1
Q

What is drug resistance

A

it is an adaptive response, in which microorganisms begin to tolerate an amount of drug that would ordinarily be inhibitory

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2
Q

Drug inactivation is…

A

this happens when an enzyme cleaves a portion of the molecule and renders it inactive

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3
Q

Decreased permeability (Drug resistance)

A

When the receptor that transports the drug is altered, so that the drug cannot enter the cell

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4
Q

Decreased permeability (Drug resistance)

A

When the receptor that transports the drug is altered, so that the drug cannot enter the cell

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5
Q

Activation of drug pumps

A

Is when specialized membrane proteins are activated and continually pump the drug out of the cell

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6
Q

Change in drug binding site

A

the binding site on target ribosome is altered so the drug has no effect

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7
Q

use of alternate metabolic pathway

A

The drug has blocked the usual metabolic pathway, but the microbe uses an alternate unblocked pathway that archives the required outcome

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8
Q

What happens in drug resistance

A

The drug resistance cells that used to be few (recessive) become dominant after the use of an antibiotic since the nondrug-resistant cell all die off leaving only the resistant cells.

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9
Q

What percentage of people taking antimicrobials will experience side effects

A

5%

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10
Q

When using antibodies it requires what is specifically for the best outcome for the patient

A

Accurate diagnosis, correct drug therapy, patient compliance, patient history

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11
Q

the future in drug research will include

A

short term, high-dose antimicrobials that are effective, have few side effects and are not inactivated by other microbes

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12
Q

What is the Kirby-Bauer test

A

In this test, there is a plate with different antimicrobials with a specimen (done before the antimicrobial). The best drug is the one with more space surrounding it, which means it is the most effective

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13
Q

Antimicrobial resistance is

A

makes a bad treatment

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14
Q

antimicrobial intermediate

A

can provide a treatment but not the best

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15
Q

antimicrobial susceptible

A

is most likely to provide a good treatment

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16
Q

E-Test diffusion

A

used to determine the sensitivity
as the concentration increases should see less until no inhibition of the microbes

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17
Q

E-test Dilution

A

as the test tubes get more and more diluted see at what point the drug is still working at what concentration (MIC)

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18
Q

Transient microbes are described as

A

temporary microbes (on the table-top)

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19
Q

Resident microbes are described as

A

Established microbes (skin, upper respiratory, GI tract, external urethral opening, vagina)

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20
Q

What are some sterile sites in the human body

A

Heart, blood, bones, liver, ovaries/testes, kidneys/bladder, lungs, sinuses, brain/spinal cord

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21
Q

Explain the microbes of the skin

A

house a lot of different microbes
transient: cling to the surface by do not grow there (influenced by hygiene)
Resident: stable (bacteria & yeasts)

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22
Q

Microbes in the GI Tract

A

The tube is exposed to the environment, microbes change with the shifting conditions of the GI tract (Oxygen, pH, anatomy)

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23
Q

Microbes of the mouth

A

Most diverse and unique flora of the body
The most common residents are Streptococcus
Different microbes live here since different habitats are possible (anaerobic, aerobic)

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24
Q

Microbes of the large intestine

A

favors anaerobic bacteria like Bacteroides, bifidobacterium, fusobacterium, clostridium
also, aid in digestion and absorption, make materials that help digest and absorb

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25
Q

microbes of the respiratory tract

A

more external, they are in the nasal entrance, nasal cavity, trachea, epiglottis, internal naris
most common is staphylococcus aureus, but others include Neisseria species, and haemophilus

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26
Q

microbes of the Genitourial tract

A

Female: in the vagina and urethral opening,j can get yeast and bladder infections, and urination helps clear microbes out from the urethra.
Male: Anterior urethra
internal reproductive organs kept sterile for both

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27
Q

Define infection

A

Pathogenic microbes penetrate defenses, enter tissues, multiply

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28
Q

Define infectious disease

A

the infection causes damage/disruption to tissues & organs

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29
Q

Define pathogen

A

microbe acting as an infectious agent

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30
Q

What are the steps/ flow of infection

A

Contact: microbes adhere to exposed body surfaces
Colonization with microbiota
Invasion: Microbes cross lines of defense and enter sterile tissues
Infection: pathogenic microbes multiply the tissues

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31
Q

What is a true pathogen

A

true pathogens are capable of causing disease in healthy persons with normal immune defenses (influenza virus, plague bacillus, malarial protozoan)

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32
Q

What is opportunistic pathogens

A

they cause disease when the hot’s defenses are compromised or when they grow in a part of the body that is not natural to them

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33
Q

What are the different portals of entry?
Phase 1

A

Exogenous: outside the body
Endogenous: already exist on or in the body
STORCH: microbes that can make transplacetal movement

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34
Q

What does STORCH represent

A

Syphilis
Toxoplasmosis
Other
Rubella
Cytomegalovirus
Herpes

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35
Q

Define infectious dose (ID)

A

minimum number of microbes required for infection to proceed

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36
Q

Phase 2 of infection is… (and describe it)

A

Attaching to the host
Adhesion: microbes gain a stable foothold at the portal of entry; dependent on binding between specific molecules on host and pathogen
(fimbrae, flagella, glycocalyx, spikes, suckers)

37
Q

Describe the process of salmonella invading the body

A
  1. adhesion by fimbriae
  2. release of proteins (secretion system) that will allow them to anchor to deeper tissue
  3. disruption of actin filaments (microvilli lose their distinct figures, then get swallowed into the tissues
  4. cell gets pulled into the vacuole
  5. over time gets pulled deeper into the tissue and multiples and will reach the bloodstream
38
Q

What are exoenzymes (what phase, and what does it do?)

A

are extracellular enzymes that dissolve barriers and penetrate through or between cells to invade underlying tissues.
Phases 3 and 4 avoid host defenses, causing damage

39
Q

What are toxins (what phase, and what does it do?)

A

primary exotoxins secreted to damage target cells, which die and begin to slough off
Phase 3 and 4 avoiding host defenses, causing damage

40
Q

What are blocked phagocytic response (what phase, and what does it do?)

A

escape phagocytosis and continue to grow and cause further infections, ignored by the immune system since receptors are covered up by capsules
Phase 3 and 4 avoiding host defenses, causing damage

41
Q

Endotoxin can be described as

A

Released after the host cell is damaged. Broad effects
attracts LPS that are part of Gram - cell wall
toxic at high quantities (bomb)

42
Q

Exotoxins can be described as

A

small proteins secreted by living bacteria into infected tissue
strongly specificity, toxic at low quantities (sniper)

43
Q

What are the stages of clinical infections? IPPC

A

Incubation: inital contact to first symptoms
Prodromal: feelings of discomfort
Period of invasion: multiplies at high levels, well-established
Convalescent period: respond to the infection, symptoms decline

44
Q

explain localized infection, systemic infection and focal infection

A

localized: confined to a specific tissue
systemic: whole-body, spreads to several sites through the bloodstream
Focal: breaks loose and is carried to other tissues (A-B)

45
Q

Explain mixed, primary, secondary, Acute and chronic infections

A

Mixed: several microbes
- primary: 1st infection
- secondary: 2nd infection (different microbe)
Acute: comes on rapidly, severe but short-lived
Chronic: progress and persist over long period of time

46
Q

What is the difference between a symptom and a sign

A

Symptom: subjective evidence of disease as sensed by patent (fever, pain, soreness, swelling, feeling sick)
Sign: objective evidence of disease (Edema, fever of 103, Abscesses, increased white blood cells

47
Q

What are the portals of exit

A

respiratory and salivary, epithelial cells, fecal, urogenital, removal of blood or bleeding

48
Q

What would classify someone as a chronic carrier

A

a person with a latent infection who sheds the infectious agent

49
Q

What is epidemiology

A

the study of the frequency and distribution of disease and other health-related factors in defined human populations

50
Q

A reservoir is ….

A

the primary habitat of pathogens in nature
(human or animal carrier, soil, water, plants)

51
Q

a source is described as

A

individual or object infection comes from

52
Q

A carrier is (and what are the different carries)

A

an individual who carries a pathogen and spreads it to others
Asymptomatic: shows no symptoms
Passive: contaminated healthcare provider transfers them to other patients

53
Q

What are incubation, convalescent, and chronic carriers

A

Incubation: spread the infectious agent during the incubation period
Convalescent: recuperating without symptoms (but still transmitting)
Chronic: individual who shelters the infectious agent for a long period

54
Q

What is a vector

A

A live animal (flea, mosquito, or fly) that transmits an infectious agent from one host to another
biological (active in pathogen’s life) or mechanical (not necessary to life cycle)

55
Q

What makes the infection communicable

A

when an infected host can trasmit the infectious agent to another host and establish infection in that host

56
Q

Non-communicable

A

infectious disease does not arise through transmission from host to host

57
Q

What is direct transmission?

A

from A to B
Contact, respiratory, vertical (mother child), biological vector

58
Q

What is indirect transmission?

A

A to B to C
Contaminated objects
food, water
airborne droplets
Airborne animal wastes

59
Q

Prevalence is

A

percentage of the population affected at a given time

60
Q

Incidence is

A

new cases over a given time

61
Q

Mortality rate is

A

the number of deaths in a population from 1 disease

62
Q

Morbidity rate is

A

the number of people in a populaiton that become ill

63
Q

What are the patterns of infectious disease occurrence?

A

Endemic: exhibits a steady frequency over time in a particular area
Sporadic: when occasional cases are in irregular intervals
Epidemic: when a disease is beyond what is expected (nationwide)
Pandemic: epidemic across continents

64
Q

Nosocomial infections are

A

are infections acquired or developed during a hospital stay (surgery, equipment, personnel, drug-resistant microorganisms)

65
Q

broad picture First line of defense and the three categories

A

Barriers and entry portals- nonspecific
Physical or anatomical barriers (skin)
Chemical defenses (stomach acid)
Genetic resistance (sickle cell, Malaria)

66
Q

Broad picture a second line of defense

A

protective cells and fluids; inflammation and phagocytosis- nonspecific

67
Q

Broad picture third line of defense

A

acquired with exposure to foreign substances; produces protective antibodies and creates memory cells- specific

68
Q

physical/ anatomical barriers (skin)
Describe what it does

A

The constant renewal of cells, the overlapping of layers make it difficult for an infection
flashing effect of sweat

69
Q

Physical barriers (mucous membranes)
Describe

A

have production of mucus fluid that is used to flush microbes away form that area
Coating of digestive, genitourinary, and respiratory tracts
blinking/ tears, flow of saliva, flushing effect of urination, defecation, vomiting

70
Q

What are some nonspecific chemical defenses

A

Sebaceous: oils things associated with skin/ hair
Antimicrobial: nose, different proteins and peptides that work together to destroy microbes
Others are tears, saliva, lactic acid/ electrolyte concentration in sweat, stomach acid

71
Q

What are genetic defenses

A

some hosts are genetically immune to the disease
ex. humans carrying a gene or genes for sickle-cell anemia are resistant to malaria

72
Q

What is the action of white blood cells (I have no idea how correct this is)

A

To find nonself or foreign materials
this is done using PAMPs and PRRs
White blood cells recognize PAMPs extended off the surface of the cell, the PRRs bind to the protein and signal they have found something foreign

73
Q

What are PAMPs

A

are molecules shared by microorganisms
Pathogen-associated molecular patterns (on the foreign body)

74
Q

What are PRRs

A

these are Pattern Recognition receptors located on white blood cells to detect PAMPs

75
Q

What is the inflammatory response

A

it responds to any traum and its goal is to use non-specific strategies to return to homeostasis
to clear away invading microbes and cellular debris

76
Q

What is associated with an inflammatory response

A

Redness: increased circulation
Warmth: heat from blood flow
Swelling: increased fluid
Pain: stimulation of nerve endings

77
Q

Pyrogens are…

A

reset the hypothalamus increasing body temp; signals muscles to increase heat production
Exogenous pyrogens: infectious agent product typically endotoxins

78
Q

What are the benefits of a fever?

A

inhibits temperature-sensitive microbes
reduces iron (nutrition of bacteria)
increases metabolism, immune reactions & protective processes

79
Q

Describe the lymphatic system

A

intertwined with the immune system
flows in one direction going to the heart to exchange fluid
plasma-like fluid, (WBC, fats, stuff)
source of immune cells (B,T)

80
Q

Describe the mechanism of phagocytosis

A

phagocytes migrate to inflammation following a gradient of stimulant products
Using TLRs they bind pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) receptors
The pathogen is then enclosed in a phagosome
lysosomes with antimicrobial substances fuse and become a phagolysosome and they kill the pathogen
release the debris

80
Q

Define antigens

A

molecules that stimulate an immune response by T and B cells

81
Q

Active Immunity vs passive

A

Creates/uses memory ( clinical, sub-clinical)
no memory (breast milk, placental)

82
Q

Natural immunity vs artificial

A

normal life
medical

83
Q

What are B cells and where are they made

A

make antibodies to defend our bodies by targeting individual antigens
made in bone marrow

84
Q

What are t cells and where are they made

A

have activating our immune systems or directly killing harmful cells
made in the thymus

85
Q

Describe the process of an APC and the three pathways

A

part of the APC will be presented by the B cell which calls T cell once activate can go three ways
1. The T cell is used to activate B cell production of antibodies
2. Can activate more T cells an macrophages
3. can activate killer T cells

86
Q

What are the different parts of an antibody

A

Y-shaped or T-shaped polypeptides
Variable (for antigen specificity) and constant region
heavy chain (inner), light chain (outer)
Five kinds of antibodies (IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, IgE)

87
Q

If picked the first pathway from APC what happenes

A

the antigen is presented on the antibody, the helper T cell binds to the B cell to become activated
Cytokines drive cell division to make more B cells
This splits into two paths
1. plasma cells: want to continue to make and express antibodies on the surface (have free antibodies to make more)
2. Memory B cells: some that will be stored away, and reactivated if encounter this bacteria again

88
Q

What are the different ways antibodies are used

A

Complement fixation
Opsonization
neutralization
antitoxin
precipitation
agglutination

Micro (7 decks)

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