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Systems Pathology 2 > Quiz 6 > Flashcards

Quiz 6 Flashcards

1
Q

Abnormal uterine bleeding

A

1) menorrhagia
2) metrorrhagia
3) postmenopausal
pg 35

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2
Q

Profuse/prolonged menstruation

A

menorrhagia

pg 35

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3
Q

Irregular, between periods

A

metrorrhagia

pg 35

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4
Q

Causes of abnormal uterine bleeding

A

endometritis, leiomyomas, leiomyosarcomas, endometrial hyperplasia, or endometrial carcinoma, anovulatory cycle, dysfunctional uterine bleeding
pg 35

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5
Q

Overgrowth of endometrial cells

A

endometrial hyperplasia

pg 36

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6
Q

MC female genital tract CA

A

endometrial carcinoma

pg 37

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7
Q

Types of endometrial carcinomas

A

1) endometrioid (80%)
2) serous (15%)
pg 37

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8
Q

Features of endometrioid endometrial carcinoma

A

endometrial hyperplasia, perimenopausal, increased estrogens, diabetes, HTN, infertility
pg 37

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9
Q

Features of serous endometrial carcinoma

A

endometrial atrophy, post-menopausal, aggressive

pg 37

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10
Q

Sessile/cystic mass .5-3 cm MC around menopause

A

endometrial polyps

pg 38

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11
Q

Smooth muscle tumors

A

1) leiomyoma
2) leiomyosarcoma
pg 38

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12
Q

Leiomyomas are ____(benign or malignant); leiomyosarcomas are ____(benign or malignant)

A

benign, malignant

pg 38

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13
Q

Leiomyosarcomas most commonly mets to…

A

lungs

pg 38

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14
Q

Inflammation of the fallopian tubes

A

salpingitis

pg 41

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15
Q

Features of salpingitis

A

pyrexia, lower abdomen pain, pelvic mass

pg 41

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16
Q

Causes of salpingitis

A

microbial infection, ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, tumor

pg 41

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17
Q

Fallopian tube carinomas are MC in what location

A

fimbriae

pg 41

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18
Q

Features of ovarian cysts

A

serous-filled, 1-4 cm, from graafian or ruptured follicles

pg 42

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19
Q

Multiple cystic follicles, enlargeing to ~2x size

A

polycystic ovarian disease

pg 44

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20
Q

Features of polycystic ovarian disease

A

oligomenorrhea, infertility, increase androgens, estrogens and LH, decreased FSH
pg 44

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21
Q

True or False: Both ovarian cysts and PCOD are familial

A

True

pg 44

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22
Q

8th MC CA in US women

A

ovarian tumors

pg 48

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23
Q

90% of ovarian cancers

A

surface epithelial tumors

pg 48

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24
Q

Types of surface epithelial tumors

A

1) serous tumors
2) endometrioid tumors
pg 50

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25
Q

Serous tumors are most commonly _____ (benign or malignant)

A

benign (60%)

pg 50

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26
Q

Features of serous tumors

A

large 40 cm, 25% bilateral, benign 30-40yrs, malignant 45-65yrs
pg 50

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27
Q

Endometrioid tumors are most commonly _____ (benign or malignant)

A

malignant

pg 50

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28
Q

Cancer of the GI tract that has spread to the ovaries

A

Krukenberg tumor

pg 51

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29
Q

Characteristic cell finding of Krukenberg tumor

A

Signet-ring cells

pg 51/52

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30
Q

Features of ovarian teratomas

A

2 or 3 germ cell layers, more common in the first 2 decades, 90% benign (younger = increased cancer risk)
pg 53

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31
Q

Diseases of pregnancy infections

A

ascending or transplacental

pg 55

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32
Q

Features of ascending infections

A

commonly from premature rupture of membranes, MC bacterial

pg 55

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33
Q

Features of transplaceental infections

A

placental villitis

pg 55

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34
Q

TORCH

A 
Toxoplasmosis
Rubella virus
Other; TB, T. pallidum, 
    HIV,HBV, P.falciparum
CMV
HSV
pg 55
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35
Q

Non-uterine implantation

A

ectopic pregnancy

pg 57

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36
Q

What is the location of 90% of ectopic pregnancies?

A

tubal

pg 57

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37
Q

Group of tumors resulting from abnormal fertilization

A

gestational trophoblastic disease

pg 58

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38
Q

Types of gestational trophoblastic disease

A

1) hydatidiform mole
2) invasive mole
3) choriocarcinoma
pg 58/59

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39
Q

Complete hydatidiform mole

A

2 sperm, no fetal parts

pg 58

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40
Q

Partial hydatidiform mole

A

1 egg + 2 sperm, early fetal parts

pg 58

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41
Q

Invasive moles come from…

A

complete moles

pg 59

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42
Q

Choriocarcinomas come from…

A 
complete mole (50%), pregnancy (25%), abortion (25%)
pg 59
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43
Q

What is the cure rate with chemotherapy of choriocarcinomas?

A

~100%

pg 59

44
Q

Choriocarcinomas most commonly mets to what location?

A

lungs
CANNONBALL METASTASIS
pg 60

45
Q

Toxemia of pregnancy

A

preeclampsia

pg 61

46
Q

Features of preeclampsia

A

1) HTN
2) proteinuria
3) edema in face or periphery
pg 61

47
Q

Cause of preeclampsia

A

maternal endothelial dysfunction

pg 61

48
Q

Risks for preeclampsia

A

1st pregnancy, maternal age >35

49
Q

The worsening of preeclampsia, onset of seizures and possible coma

A

eclampsia

pg 64

50
Q

10% of eclampsia cases develop HELLP syndrome; what does HELLP stand for?

A

Hemolysis, Elevated Liver enzymes, Low Platelets

pg 64

51
Q

Extra nipples located along the embryonic ridge

A

supernumerary nipple

pg 65/66

52
Q

Obstructed mammary gland duct in the later stages of nursing

A

galactocele

pg 65

53
Q

Categories of fibrocystic changes

A

1) nonproliferative
2) proliferative
pg 69

54
Q

Most common cause of fibrocystic changes in the breast

A

menstrual hormonal fluctuations

pg 69

55
Q

Most common location of fibrocystic changes in the breast

A

superolateral quadrant

pg 69

56
Q

Features of non-proliferative fibrocystic changes in the breast

A

ducts are dilated, cysts are multiple/bilateral, <5cm, calcific densities on mammography
pg 70

57
Q

Features of proliferative fibrocystic changes in the breast

A

ductal epithelial hyperplasia

pg 70

58
Q

Inflammatory breast lesions

A

1) fat necrosis
2) acute mastitis
3) mammary duct ectasia
pg 71

59
Q

Bacterial infection via ducts early in nursing

A

acute mastitis

pg 71

60
Q

Features of mammary duct ectasia

A

Ductal dehydration, chronic inflammation, periareolar mass

pg 71

61
Q

Age group most commonly affected by mammary duct ectasia

A

40-60 years

pg 71

62
Q

Types of tumors of the breast

A

1) fibroadenoma
2) phyllodes tumor
pg 73

63
Q

MC breast tumor

A

fibroadenoma

pg 73

64
Q

Features of a phyllodes tumor

A

85% are benign, leaf-like cellular appearance

pg 73

65
Q

Risk for breast cancer

A

age >50, Caucasians, family history, nulliparous, chest irradiation, increased estrogens, benign lesions, BRCA1/BRCA2, obesity, high fat diet, alcohol, smoking
pg 77

66
Q

Most common location of breast cancer

A

superolateral quadrant

pg 79

67
Q

Breast cancer stage 0; rarely palpable mixed cells, necrosis/calcification

A

ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS)

pg 79

68
Q

Extension of DCIS, manifests on the skin near the areola, eczema-like

A

Paget disease of the nipple

pg 81

69
Q

Breast cancer stage 0; uniform cells, mucon vacuoles, rarely calcific

A

lobular carcinoma in situ (LCIS)

pg 82

70
Q

Breast cancer beyond stage 0

A

invasive (infiltrating) carcinoma

pg 82

71
Q

Invasive (infiltrating) carcinoma mets via ____(blood or lymph)

A

lymphatic

pg 82

72
Q

Removal of the breast and associated lymph nodes

A

mastectomy

pg 83

73
Q

Types of invasive breast cancer

A

1) invasive ductal carcinoma
2) invasive lobular carcinoma
3) triple negative breast cancers
pg 84

74
Q

Invasive cancer from DCIS

A

invasive ductal carcinoma

pg 84

75
Q

75% of all breast cancers

A

invasive ductal carcinoma

pg 84

76
Q

Hormone receptors associated with invasive ductal carcinoma

A

2/3 + for estrogen/progestone
1/2 + for HER2
write in

77
Q

Features of invasive ductal carcinoma

A

heterogeneous cells, irregular boarders, firm/fibrotic

pg 84

78
Q

Invasive cancer from LCIS

A

invasive lobular carcinoma

pg 84

79
Q

Hormone receptors associated with invasive lobular carcinoma

A

100% + for estrogen/progesterone
rarely + for HER2
write in

80
Q

Features of invasive lobular carcinoma

A

multiple masses, palpable or occult, aggressive

pg 84

81
Q

Hormone receptors associated with triple negative breast cancers

A

NONE; negative for estrogen, progesterone and HER2

write in

82
Q

+ HER2/neu _____(improves or worsens) prognosis

A

worsens

pg 91

83
Q

enlargement of male breast tissue

A

gynecomastia

pg 91

84
Q

Features of gynecomastia

A

subareolar swelling, bilateral, “button-like”, increase in connective tissue, ductal hyperplasia
pg 92

85
Q

Anatomical position of the penis

A

erect

pg 3

86
Q

Occurrence of abnormal urethral orifice

A

1 in 300

pg 4

87
Q

Ventral abnormal urethral orifice

A

hypospadias

pg 4

88
Q

Dorsal abnormal urethral orifice

A

epispadias

pg 4

89
Q

Which is MC hypospadias

or epispadias?

A

hypospadias

pg 4

90
Q

Inflammation of the glans penis

A

balanitis

pg 8

91
Q

Inflammation of the prepuce

A

balanoposthitis

pg 8

92
Q

Inability to retract prepuce

A

phimosis

pg 8

93
Q

Entrapment of a retracted foreskin behind the coronal sulcus

A

paraphimosis

pg 9

94
Q

95% of penile neoplasms

A

squamous cell carcinoma

pg 10

95
Q

SCC In Situ on the shaft of the penis

A

Bowen disease

pg 10

96
Q

Risks for penile neoplasms

A

> 40 yrs, uncircumcised, poor hygiene, smoking, HPV 16 and 18, AIDS
pg 10

97
Q

Features of invasive SCC of the penis

A

on the glans or prepuce, gray, crusted, hardened, irregular boarders, raised or ulcerated
pg 10

98
Q

Removal of the penis

A

penectomy

pg 12

99
Q

Rerouting of the urethra

A

perineal urethrostomy

pg 12

100
Q

Increase of serous fluid in the tunica vaginalis

A

hydrocele

pg 13

101
Q

MC cause of scrotal enlargement

A

hydrocele

pg 13

102
Q

Blood in the tunica vaginalis

A

hematocele

pg 13

103
Q

Lymph in the tunica vaginalis

A

chylocele

pg 13

104
Q

Infection of wuchereria bancrofti

A

filariasis

pg 15

105
Q

Transmission of filariasis

A

flies, mosquitos, arthropods

pg 15

Systems Pathology 2 (8 decks)

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