Quiz 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Cancer of myeloblasts, fill marrow, “pre-leukemia”

A

myelodysplastic syndromes

pg 121

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Features of myelodyplastic syndromes

A

hypercellular marrow, megaloblasts, irregular ratios(RBCs, granulocytes, platelets), >1 cytopenia
pg 121/122

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

~40% of myelodysplastic syndromes turn into…

A

AML

pg 121

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Population affected by myelodysplastic syndromes

A
older adults (50-70)
pg 121
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Risks for myelodysplastic syndromes

A

history of chemotherapy or irradiation, monosomy and trisomy

pg 122

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Prognosis of myelodysplastic syndromes

A

poor, median survival(1-2years)

pg 122

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Group of indolent tumors

A

chronic myeloproliferative disorders

pg 123

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Categories of chronic myeloproliferative disorders

A

1) chronic myelogenous leukemia
2) polycythemia vera
3) primary myelofibrosis
pg 123

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

20% of all leukemia cases, leukocytosis >100,000cell/microL

A

chronic myelogenous leukemia

pg 124

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Population of those affect by chronic myelogenous leukemia

A

25-60 years

pg 124

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Features of chronic myelogenous leukemia

A

fatigue, weakness, cachexia, extreme splenomegaly, “red pulp” spleen, Philadelphia chromosome (t(9;22))
pg 124/125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What % of cases of chronic myelogenous leukemia enter an accelerated phase?

A

50%

pg 125

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Treatment of chronic myelogenous leukemia

A
marrow transplant (70% curative), tyrosine kinase inhibitors
pg 125
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Increased concentration of RBCs

A

Polycythemia

pg 128

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Relative polycythemia

A

decrease of plasma (fluid)

pg 128

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Absolute polycythemia

A

increase total RBC mass

pg 128

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cause of primary absolute polycythemia

A

cancerous growth of myeloid stem cells

pg 128

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

cause of secondary absolute polycythemia

A

after increase EPO

pg 128

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Too many RBCs, WBCs, and platelets

A

panmyelosis

pg 129

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Features of polycythemia vera

A

itching, hepatosplenomegaly, dysfunctional platelets, blood is viscous, JAK2 point mutations
pg 131

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

MC population with polycythemia vera

A
older adults (MC 60)
pg 131
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Treatment for polycythemia vera

A

marrow transplant, chemotherapy

pg 131

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cancer of myeloblasts causing diffuse marrow fibrosis

A

primary myelofibrosis

pg 132

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Features of primary myelofibrosis

A

extramedullary hematopoiesis, disordered/inefficient hematopoiesis
pg 132

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

MC population effected by primary myelofibrosis

A

elderly (MC 65)

pg 132

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What microscopic red blood cell feature is common in primary myelofibrosis?

A

dacrocytes

pg 132/133

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Histiocytes

A

macrophages or dendritic cells

pg 136

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Birbeck granules

A

“tennis racket” organelle

pg 136

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

How common are histiocytic neoplasms?

A

rare ~1,000 cases a year in the US

pg 136

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

2 categories of histiocytic neoplasms

A

1) unisystem Langerhans cells histiocytosis
2) multisystem Langerhans cell histiocytosis
pg 136

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Population most affected by unisystem Langerhans cell histocytosis

A

children and adolescents

pg 137

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Osseous involvement of unisystem Langerhans cell histocytosis effects which bones?

A

calvaria, ribs, femur

pg 137

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Population affected by multisystem Langerhans cell histiocytosis

A

young children <2yrs

pg 138

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Features of multisystem Langerhans cell histiocytosis

A

multifocal skin lesions and fever, hepatosplenomegaly and lymphadenopathy(may invade lungs and bone)
pg 138

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Bleeding disorders

A

1) disseminated intravascular coagulation
2) immune thrombocytopenia purpura
3) von Willebrand disease
4) hemophilia A
5) hemophilia B
pg 140

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Systemic coagulation causing widespread thrombi

A

Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

pg 141

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Features of Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC)

A

widespread thrombi, may deplete platelets and clotting factors
pg 141

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Acute DIC

A

obstetric complications, crush injuries

pg 142

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Chronic DIC

A

thrombi, widespread CA mets

pg 142

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Decreased platelets leading to bleeding tendency

A

thrombocytopenia

pg 143

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Antibodies (IgG) attack platelets

A

immune thrombocytopenic purpura

pg 145

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Features of Acute ITP

A

children, self-limited, secondary to viral infection

pg 145

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Features of chronic ITP

A

insidious; ADRs lymphomas, idiopathic; reproductive age females, petechiae, epistaxis, bleeding gums, easy bruising
pg 145

44
Q

MC inherited bleeding disorder

A

von Willebrand disease

pg 148

45
Q

Features of von Willebrand disease

A

decrease in von Willebrand factor, dysfunctional platelet adherence, bleeding gum, easy bruising, epistaxis, heavy menstruation
pg 148

46
Q

Features of hemophilia A

A

spontaneous bleeding and poor wound healing , x-linked recessive, MC in males, bruising/hemorrhage
pg 150

47
Q

Mutated in those with hemophilia A

A

coagulation factor VIII (8)

pg 150

48
Q

Clinically identical to hemophilia A also known as Christmas disease

A

hemophilia B

pg 151

49
Q

Mutated in those with hemophilia B

A

coagulation factor IX

pg 151

50
Q

Features of thymic hyperplasia

A

autoreactive B cells in the thymus

pg 152

51
Q

Conditions with thymic hyperplasia

A

Myasthenia gravis, SLE, RA

pg 152

52
Q

Tumor of the thymus

A

Thymoma

pg 152

53
Q

MC condition of the vulva

A

inflammation

pg 4

54
Q

Inflammation of the vulva

A

vulvitis

pg 4

55
Q

Causes of vulvitis

A

1) allergic contact dermatitis
2) infections
pg 4

56
Q

Obstruction or dilation of a Bartholin gland

A

Bartholin cyst

pg 5

57
Q

Features of lichen sclerosus

A

atrophy; autoimmune, smooth, white, near minora, dermal fibrosis, ages 8 and 60, ~5% risk of SCC
pg 9

58
Q

Features of lichen simplex chronicus

A

hyperplasia and hyperkeratosis, chronic irritation, no cancer risk
pg 9

59
Q

Types of condylomas

A

1) condylomata lata
2) condylomata acuminata
pg 13

60
Q

Features of condylomata lata

A

flat, moist, painless; secondary syphilis

pg 13

61
Q

Virus(es) causing condylomata acuminata

A

HPV 6 and HPV 11

pg 13

62
Q

90% of vulvar carcinoma

A

squamous cell carcinoma

pg 13

63
Q

Types of vulvar carcinoma

A

1) HPV- related SCC
2) Non-HPV-related SCC
pg 13

64
Q

MC type of vulvar carcinoma

A

non-HPV-related SCC

pg 13

65
Q

Age group affected by vulvar carcinoma

A

> 60 years

pg 13

66
Q

Features of HPV- related SCC

A

vulvar intraepithelial neoplasia(early), middle-aged smokers, immunodeficiency, HPV 16 and HPV 18
pg13

67
Q

Features of non-HPV-related SCC

A

older women, lichen sclerosus

pg 13

68
Q

Vaginal malformations

A

1) agenesis
2) atresia
3) septate vagina
pg 16

69
Q

Inflammation of the vagina

A

vaginitis

pg 16

70
Q

Features of vaginitis

A

leukorrhea, pain, itching, MCly benign and transient

pg 16

71
Q

Causes of vaginitis

A

infections

pg 16

72
Q

Types of vaginal cancer

A

1) squamous cell carcinoma
2) clear cell adenocarcinoma
3) sarcoma botryodies
pg 17

73
Q

Age affected by squamous cell carcinoma

A

MC in elderly(>60yrs)

pg 17

74
Q

Risks for squamous cell carcinoma

A

precancerous vaginal intraepithelial neoplasia, HPV

pg 17

75
Q

Features of clear cell adenocarcinoma

A

re/granular foci

pg 17

76
Q

Risk for clear cell adenocarcinoma

A

mothers took diethlstillbestrol

pg 17

77
Q

Features of sarcoma botryodies

A

MC <5 yrs, soft/polypoid mass

pg 17

78
Q

Another name for sarcoma botryodies

A

embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

pg 17

79
Q

MC pediatric soft tissue sarcoma

A

sarcoma botryodies/embryonal rhabdomyosarcoma

pg 18

80
Q

Inflammation of the cervix

A

cervicitis

pg 19

81
Q

Features of cervicitis

A

leucorrhea, pain, itching, bleeding, fever, MC benign

pg 19

82
Q

Causes of cervicitis

A

infections; chlamydia, trichomoniasis, candidiasis, gonorrhea, genital herpes or HPV
non-infectious; postpartum, estrogen fluctuations, trauma
pg 21

83
Q

Risk factors for cancer of the cervix

A

early 1st intercourse, multiple sex partners, male partner with several past partners, high-risk HPV infection (16 or 18)
pg 22

84
Q

What % of cases of cervical cancer are cause by HPV 16 or 18?

A

70%

pg 22

85
Q

MC location of cervical cancer

A
transformation zone (external os)
pg 22
86
Q

Neoplasia of the cervix

A

cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)

pg 24

87
Q

MC age of diagnosis of CIN

A

30 years

pg 24

88
Q

Treatment of low grade CIN(I)

A

observation (60% regress)

pg 24

89
Q

Treatment of high grade CIN (II or III)

A

excision (10% turn into cancer)

pg 24

90
Q

Koilocytosis

A

cellular changes from HPV

pg 25

91
Q

Why is screening important for the diagnosis of CIN?

A

CIN is asymptomatic

pg 27

92
Q

CIN may progress into…

A

invasive carcinoma of the cervix

pg 27

93
Q

Cause of invasive carcinoma of the cervix

A

HPV infections

pg 27

94
Q

LEEP

A

loop electrosurgical excision procedure

pg 28

95
Q

Features of cervical cancer

A

early = asymptomatic
leukorrhea, bleeding, dysuria, painful sex
transformation zone
pg 29

96
Q

Likelihood of mets for cervical cancer <3 mm

A

1%

pg 29

97
Q

Likelihood of mets for cervical cancer >3 mm

A

10%

pg 29

98
Q

MC cause of death for those with cervical cancer

A

renal failure

pg 29

99
Q

Endometrial inflammation

A

endometritis

pg 32

100
Q

Features of endometritis

A

fever, abdominal pain, menstrual abnormalities, infertility or ectopic pregnancy
pg 32

101
Q

Common causes of endometritis

A

1) pelvic inflammatory disease
2) retained products
pg 32

102
Q

Functional extrauterine endometrial tissue

A

endometriosis

pg 33

103
Q

Features of endometriosis

A

dysmenorrhea, dysuria, pelvic pain, sterility, painful BMs or intercourse
pg 33

104
Q

Common locations of extrauterine endometrial tissue

A

ovaries, peritoneum, pouch of Douglas, uterine ligaments fallopian tubes
pg 33

105
Q

Theories on the causes of endometriosis

A

regurgitation, metaplasia, vascular/lymphatic dissemination

pg 34