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Quiz 3 Flashcards

1
Q

describe the vascularation of cartilage

A

avascular

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2
Q

what three things does cartilage lack?

A

1.AVASCULAR
2.Lacks sensation
3.Lacks lymphatic vessels

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3
Q

what is the primary tissue in the fetal skeleton and growing bones

A

cartilage

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4
Q

camarativly what is the water content of cartilage

A

↑ Intracellular water
content to bear
mechanical stress

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5
Q

Chondroblasts

A

Cells that produce cartilage matrix

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6
Q

Chondrocytes

A

Mature cartilage cells that reside in lacunae

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7
Q

Perichondrium

A

Dense sheet-like connective tissue surrounding cartilage

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8
Q

lacunae

A

provide a home for a cell in bone and cartilage,the cell are osteocytes in bone and chondrocytes in cartilage

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9
Q

what are the two ways carilage grow?

A

appositional and interstital

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10
Q

Appositional cartilage growth

A

new cartilage forms at the surface of existing cartilage

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11
Q

define Interstitial growth cartilage growth

A
  • new cell forms within an existing cartilage mass by
    mitotic
    -make isogenous groups
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12
Q

Territorial matrix

A

surrounds isogenous groups

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13
Q

Interterritorial matrix

A

found in the space between groups of chondrocytes (identify in lab)

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14
Q

what is in the extracellular matrix of cartilage?

A

collagen(type II)
proteoglycans
multiadhesive glycoproteins

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15
Q

What causes the staining to vary between the territorial and interterritorial matrices?

A

The matrix directlyaround them
has alot of glycosaminoglycans. Stains darker b/c flycosaminoglycans have high negative charges which attracts Na and water

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16
Q

what happens to water and flexability when you decrease GAGs in cartilage?

A

↓ GAGS
↓ water
↓ flexibility

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17
Q

what percent of intercellular water is bound tightly to aggrecan in cartilage?

A

60% to 80% of the net weight of cartilage

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18
Q

how is cartilages consisitancy good for its fuction?

A

-The firm consistency of the cartilage ECM allows the tissue to accommodate mechanical stress
- The high water content makes cartilage a very effective shock absorber
-It also facilitates smooth gliding motions in joint cavities

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19
Q

how does the cartilage get nurtients if its avasculature

A

-The perichondrium is highly vascularized
-Cartilage is surrounding by connective tissue which is highly vascularized the nutrients from perichondrium diffuse and nurish cartilage

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20
Q

how does vascularization affect healing in cartilagee?

A

Very poor ability to heal

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21
Q

Osteoarthritis

A

*degenerative joint disease
* Pathogenesis usually unknown
* Related to aging and trauma
* Decrease proteoglycan content
* Type II collagen production inhibited
* Superficial layer affected first and may eventually extend to the bone

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22
Q

which catilage does not have a perichondrium?

A

articular cartilage and fibrocartilag

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23
Q

label

A
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24
Q

properties of hyaline cartilage

A
  • Flexible but resilient
  • Respiratory system (larynx, trachea, bronchi), costal cartilage, nose, articular cartilage, epiphyseal plate, fetal skeleton
  • template cartilage
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25
Q

properties of elastic cartilage

A

-Contains elastic fibers
-Provides flexibility
-Epiglottis and external ear
-add on to hyline

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26
Q

properties of fibrocartilage

A

*Contains thick collagen fibers
* Shock absorber
* Intervertebral discs, menisci of knee and jaw, pubic symphysis
*add on the hyline

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27
Q

what type of collage in is hyaline?

A

Type II collagen

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28
Q

what type of cartilage is this?

A

Hyaline

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29
Q

what type of cartilage is this and what is the stain?

A

elastic
ver hoff stain

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30
Q

what type of cartilage is this?

A

fibrocartilage

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31
Q

what type of collagen is in fibrocartilage?

A

both type I and type II

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32
Q

what is the Chondrocyte arrangement in Fibro-cartilage

A

Parallel rows

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33
Q

Organic component of extracellular matrix in bone

A

is called osteoid and
contains Type I collagen and other proteins

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34
Q

inorganic component of extracellular matrix in bone

A

is called hydroxyapatite gets added to organic commponent and stregthens it

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35
Q

how is the blood supply and innervation in bone?

A

Bone is richly vascularized and innervated
* Blood vessels and nerves enter through nutrient foramina

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36
Q

periosteum

bone

A

-outer sheet of connective tissue
-outer fibrous layer of dense connective tissue
o Inner cellular layer with cells (osteoblasts, bone lining cells, osteoprogenitor cells)

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37
Q

endosteum

A

Bone cavities are covered by endosteum
One layer of cells lines the cavity

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38
Q

macroscopic classifications of bone

A

Compact/cortical bone: Thicker
Spongy/trabecular/cancellousbone

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39
Q

microscopic classifications of bone

A

woven bone: no nice rings
lamellar bone: looks like a tree truck

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40
Q

interstitial lamellae

A

Between the osteons are remnants of previous concentric lamellae

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41
Q

Outer circumferential lamellae

A

outer surface of the shaft of a long bone

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42
Q

Inner circumferential lamellae

A

inner circumference of the shaft of a long bone

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43
Q

Haversian (central) canals

A

small canals containing blood vessels and nerves travel which lamellae are organized concentrically around

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44
Q

Volkmann’s (perforating) canals

A

small canals containing blood vessels and and nerves that travel between osteons, run at right angles to the long axis of the osteon

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45
Q

Trabeculae

A

crisscrossing beams and plates of spongy bone

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46
Q

Compact/cortical bone structure

A

Lined by periosteum and endosteum
Composed of lamellae organized in
osteons

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47
Q

Spongy/cancellous/trabecular
bone structure

A

Lined by endosteum
Composed of lamellae organized in
trabeculae

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48
Q

Woven Bone structure

A
  • More cells, randomly arranged
  • Interlacing arrangement of collagen fibers
  • More ground substance
    (stains more basophilic)o
  • immature
  • no lamellae
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49
Q

lamellar bone structure

A

*Less ground substance (stains intensely eosinophilic)
* Less cells, organized in circular fashion in lamellae
* Incompactbone:composed of cylindrical units called osteons
* Long axis of osteon parallel to long axis of bone
* In trabecular bone: composed of trabeculae

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50
Q

how long does it take to put down woven bone?

A

Woven bone is deposited rapidly.

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51
Q

what type of bone is this

A

Woven Bone

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52
Q

What type of bone is this?

A

lamellar bone

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53
Q

Tendon

A

Fibrous connective tissue sheath that attaches muscle to bone and other structures, functions to move bone or structure

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54
Q

Ligament

A

Attaches bone to bone and functions
to stabilize

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55
Q

Joint

A

Site where two skeletal components come together. Two general categories:
o Synovial- skeletal elements separated by cavity
o Solid- no cavity, skeletal components held together by connective tissue

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56
Q

what type of joint is this?

A

synovial joint

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57
Q

what are the three components of a synovial joint?

A

Articular cartilaage, articular capsule, joint cavity

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58
Q

where is Articular cartilage located?

A

at the ends of epiphyses

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59
Q

where is synovial fluid located in a synovial joint?

A

in the joint cavity

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60
Q

what are the two layers of the articular capsule?

A

-Fibrous layer continuous with a ligament Type/ inserting into the periosteum of both bones
-Synovial membrane lining the capsule and producing synovial fluid

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61
Q

how do synovial joints get nutrients?

A
  • Articular surfaces of synovial joints lack a perichondrium
  • Synovial fluid lubricates the joint and supplies nutrients and oxygen to the articular cartilage
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62
Q

what are they key charcteristics of the fibrous layer of the articular capsule?

A

o Dense connective tissue
o Surrounds and stabilizes joint
o Parts may become thickened to form ligaments that further stabilize the joint

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63
Q

what are they key charcteristics of the synovial membrane layer of the articular capsule?

A

o Attaches to the margins of joint surfaces at the interface of cartilage and bone to enclose cavity
o Highly vascular
o Produces synovial fluid that lubricates the articulating surfaces and nourish the cells of the joint cavity

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64
Q

what two cell types (synoviocytes) are found in the synovial membrane?

A

Type A cells and Type B cells

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65
Q

what are type A cells in the Synovial Membrane?

A

o Macrophage-like cells
o Derived from blood monocytes to monitor the synovial fluid
o ~25% of the cells lining the synovium

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66
Q

what are type B cells in the synovial membrane?

A

o Fibroblastic synovial cells
o Produce hyaluronan and proteoglycans o Transported along with water into the
joint cavity to form the synovial fluid o Majority cell lining the synovium

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67
Q

what is the organic component of bone?

A

osteoid and contains Type I collagen and other proteins

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68
Q

what is the inorganic component of bone?

A

hydroxyapatite and contains calcium phosphate and calcium carbonate

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69
Q

which bone cells are derived from mesenchymal stem cells?

A

The osteoprogenitor cell, osteoblast, osteocyte, and bone lining cell

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70
Q

which bone cell originate from the hematopoietic stem cell?

A

The osteoclast

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71
Q

what is the structure, funtion, and location of the Osteoprogenitor Cells?

A

Structure:
* Squamous shaped cells (not responsible for identifying in lab)
waiting
Function:
* Derived from mesenchymal stem cells
osteoblasts
* Osteoprogenitor cells are responsive to stimuli - they then differentiate into bone-forming cells called osteoblasts
* Retain their ability to undergo mitotic division
Location:
* Found in the cellular periosteum and endosteum

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72
Q

what cells are these?

A

osteoblasts

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73
Q

what is the structure of osteoblasts?

A

o Cuboidal shaped cell in single sheet along surface of bone o (Bound to the bone surface via integrins)
o (Joined to neighboring cells via adhering and gap junctions)

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74
Q

what is the fuction of osteoblasts?

A

o Differentiated cell that secretes the organic bone matrix
o Capable of cell division
o Secrete type I collagen and bone matrix proteins which form unmineralized bone/osteoid

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75
Q

where are osteoblasts located?

A

Exclusively at the surface of where bone is actively being laid down

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76
Q

chemically how is the bone laid down?

A

-Osteoblasts release matrix vesicles containing alkaline phosphatase and other enzymes that help concentrate local PO43− ions
-High Ca2+ and PO4− ion concentrations cause calcified nanocrystals to form in and around the matrix vesicles
-These crystals grow and mineralize further with formation of small growing masses of calcium hydroxyapatite [Ca10(PO4)6(OH)2] that surround the collagen fibers and all other macromolecules
-Eventually, the masses of hydroxyapatite merge as a confluent solid bony matrix

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77
Q

what cells are the dots in the bone?

A

ostocytes

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78
Q

how do osteocytes form and what do they form from?

A

-As osteoblasts secrete the products required for bone formation, they become surround by the bone matrix
- Once surrounded by the matrix, the osteoblast becomes an osteocyte

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79
Q

what is the struture of an osteocyte?

A

o Round-ish/flattened cell residing in a lacuna and
surrounded by bone matrix
o Canaliculi often visible in ground bone sections

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80
Q

what is the fuction of an osteocyte?

A

-Responsible for maintaining the matrix of bone
-Respond to mechanical stimuli

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81
Q

what are canaliculi and what is their role?

A

-Each osteocyte occupies a lacuna and extends a cytoplasmic processes through canaliculi (small canal ) to contact the processes of other osteocytes and bone cells
-The dendritic processes of the osteocytes in the
Canaliculi with osteocyte process
canaliculi allows for nutrients from blood
vessels to diffuse and pass from cell to cell

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82
Q

what kind of cell is this

A

osteocyte

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83
Q

what type of cell is this?

A

Bone Lining Cells

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84
Q

what is the structure and location of a bone lining cell?

A

Structure:
o Flat, squamous-looking cells
Location:
o Surface of bone

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85
Q

what is the fuction of a bone lining cell?

A

o Derived from osteoblasts that are not actively producing bone
o Incapable of mitotic division, but may be able to differentiate into osteoid secreting cells as needed
o Communicates via gap junctions with osteoblasts and osteocytes

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86
Q

what kind of cell is A and what kind of cell is B?

A

A. osteoclast
B. osteoblast

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87
Q

what is the structure and location of osteoclasts?

A

Structure:
-Large, multinucleated cell that has a “polarity”
Location:
-Found at the surface of bone where bone is actively beingremoved/reabsorbed

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88
Q

what is the function of osteoclasts?

A

Break down bone
and control circulating Ca levels

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89
Q

what region of the cell is the arrow pointing to?

A

Shallow bays known as resorption bays/lacunae or Howship’s lacunae represent cellular activity

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90
Q

what is a ruffled border is osteoclasts?

A

Numerous plasma membrane infoldings to increase surface area for exocytosis of hydrolytic enzymes and secretion of protons

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91
Q

what is the sealing/clear zone in osteoclasts?

A

Actin filaments and extracellular adhesion molecules tightly bind the cell to the bone surface and provide a tight seal between the plasma membrane and prevent leakage

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92
Q

what is the Basolateral zone in osteoclasts?

A

-Functions in exocytosis of digested material
-Transport vesicles with degraded bone material that was endocytosed at ruffled border fuse and release contents

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93
Q

phsiologically what happens during bone resorption?

A
  • ↑ osteoclast activity
  • PTH produced when circulating Ca2+ is low
  • PTH stimulates osteoblasts and osteocytes to secrete RANKL
  • RANKL binds to RANK on osteoclast precursors
  • Osteoclast activity activated and increase in
    circulating Ca2+
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94
Q

phsiologically what happens during bone formation?

A
  • ↓ osteoclast activity
  • Osteoblasts secrete osteoprotegrin (OPG)
  • OPG binds RANKL (prevents RANK/RANKL binding)
  • Osteoclast activity inhibited and decrease in circulating Ca2+
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95
Q

what is osteomalacia?

A
  • Lack of mineralization of bone results in low bone density
  • Caused by vitamin D or calcium deficiency
  • Called Rickets in children
  • Soft bones, bowed legs
    *decreased osteoblast activity
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96
Q

what is osteopetrosis?

A
  • Osteoclasts cannot digest/resorb bone minerals
  • ↓ Osteoclast activityy
  • Osteoblasts continue to build bone
  • Results in hyper-mineralization of bone and abnormally high bone density
  • Bones are brittle
  • Skull foramina close off, pinching nerves
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97
Q

what is Osteoporosis?

A
  • Excessive bone resorption
  • Aged and post-menopause
    *increased osteoclast activity
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98
Q

what are the steps in bone remodelling?

A

Steps:
1. Osteoclasts tunnel into existing bone matrix (the canal diameter determines the diameter of the osteon) (cutting cone)
2. Osteoprogenitor cells invade the newly formed tunnel and line the surface
3. Osteoblasts fill the canal by depositing the bone matrix (osteoid) in lamellae (closing cone)
4. Some cells get trapped in lacunae (osteocytes)
5. Lamellae are added from the periphery inward,
narrowing the diameter of the osteon
6. Osteoblasts differentiate to bone lining cells, osteoclasts undergo apoptosis

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99
Q

The bone-remodeling unit consists of:

A

o Cutting cone (resorption tunnel)
o Closing cone

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100
Q

what are the two processes for bone development?

A

Intramembranous ossification and Endochondral ossification

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101
Q

what is intramembranous ossification?

A

Osteoblasts differentiate directly from mesenchyme and begin secreting osteoid

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102
Q

what is endochondral ossification?

A

A preexisting matrix of hyaline cartilage is eroded and invaded by osteoblasts, which then begin osteoid production

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103
Q

what are the steps of intramembranous ossification?

A

Steps:
a) Ossification centers form within a condense sheet of mesenchyme, which will become the future periosteum. Here, osteoprogenitor cells arise and proliferate around a network of developing capillaries
b) Secreted osteoid traps osteoblasts, which become osteocytes. Osteoid becomes mineralized and forms woven bone
c) Neighboring ossification centers fuse. Trabecular matrix and periosteum form
d) Compact bone develops superficial to trabecular bone
e) Mesenchymal regions that do not undergo ossification give rise to the endosteum and the periosteum of the new bone.

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104
Q

what process is taking place?

A

Intramembranous Ossification

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105
Q

what kind of bone does endochondral ossification form?

A

Forms most bones in body, including long bones

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106
Q

what is the long bone anatomy?

A
  • Diaphysis: long shaft
  • Epiphysis: end of bone
  • Metaphysis: what connects the 2
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107
Q

what is interstitial growth in bones?

A

-increase in length
-Growth at growth plates happens in development

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108
Q

what is appositional growth?

of bone

A

getting thicker

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109
Q

what are the steps of enochondral ossification?

A
  1. Fetal hyaline cartilage model develops
  2. Cartilage calcifies and periosteal bone collar forms around diaphysis
  3. Primary ossification center forms in the diaphysis
  4. Secondary ossification centers form in epiphyses
  5. Bone replaces cartilage, except the articular cartilage and epiphyseal plates
  6. Epiphyseal plates ossify and form epiphyseal lines
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110
Q

what phase of bone development is this and what are the charateristics?

A

Zone of Resting/Reserve Cartilage: typical hyaline cartilage with chondrocytes

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111
Q

what phase of bone development is this and what are the charateristics?

A

Zone of proliferation: chondrocytes divide rapidly and form colums of cells parallel to the long axis of bone; cells produce collagen fiber and cartilage matrix

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112
Q

what phase of bone development is this and what are the charateristics?

A

zone of maturation and hypertrophy: elarged, swollen cells producing type I and X collagen

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113
Q

what phase of bone development is this and what are the charateristics?

A

Zone of degeneration: loss of chondrocyte, calcification of cartilage matrix, turning into a scaffold

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114
Q

what phase of bone development is this and what are the charateristics?

A

Zone of ossification: bone tissue appears, osteoblasts lay doen primary bone on the calcified cartilage matrix, the cartilage is resorbed leaving only the primary bone

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115
Q

what kind of bone formation is this?

A

Endochondral Ossification

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116
Q

what are the steps of Bone Fracture Repair

A

o Hemorrhage: neutrophils are the first cells to arrive, then macrophages
o Fibroblasts and capillaries proliferate into to site of the injury and form new loose connective tissue and cartilage (procallus formation)
o The procallus helps to stabilize the fractured bone
o The procallus is invaded by regenerating blood vessels and proliferating osteoblasts 1-Empalate for bone repair
o Woven bone is laid down and replaces fibrocartilaginous tissue, becoming hard, bony callus
o Woven bone is replaced with lamellar bone and osteoclasts remove any remnant of the callus restoring the shape of the bone

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117
Q

what is osteoprotegrin(OPG)

A

a protien that osteoblasts secrete which binds RANKL and has the effect of protecting bone from resorption because OPG-bound RANKL can no longer bind RANK receptor

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118
Q

epiphyseal line

A

the location of the closed growth plate

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119
Q

sesamoid bone

A

bones within tendons

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120
Q

fibrodysplasia ossificans progressiva

A

disease in which extra-skeletal bone forms from damaged soft tissue during its repair

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121
Q

the epidermis forms from what?

A

ectoderm

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122
Q

the dermis from from what?

A

mesenchyme

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123
Q

what is the major cell off the integument?

A

Keratinocyte

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124
Q

Periderm

skin

A

has important developmental function in fetus but is slophed off before birth

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125
Q

when do the Dermis/hypodermis differentiate?

A

Differentiation after 1st trimester

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126
Q

what three layers in the epidermis are present during the first trimester?

A

periderm
intermediate layer
basal layer

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127
Q

Desquamation

A

shedding of skin cells

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128
Q

Cornification

A

final stage of keratinization and programmed cell death

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129
Q

what layer of the epidermis does cell divistion take place?

A

basal layer

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130
Q

what are the Major functions of keratinocytes?

A
  • Structural
  • Protection-Barrier
  • Antibacterial
  • Vitamin D production
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131
Q

what structures in keratinocytes that contribute to the physical strength of the integument?

A

desmosomes, hemidesosomes, and keratin filaments(which anchor into desmosomes)

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132
Q

Pemphigus

A

-Mutation In desmosomes
-Skin that has lost structural Integrity

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133
Q

what are the roles of the upper layer of the epidermis?

A

form a passive barrier against dehydration, mechanical, chemical and pathogen insults

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134
Q

what granules are in the S.granulosum

A

Lamellar granules and Keratohyalin granules

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135
Q

which granules can you see in the S. granulosum with an H&E stain

A

Keratohyalin granules

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136
Q

Brick-and-mortar model of the
stratum corneum

A

keritin on inside
lipids on outside as mortor

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137
Q

Tonofilaments

A

bundling of Keratin filaments

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138
Q

what are the structural protiens of the stratum corneum?

A

Involucrin, Loricrin, small proline-rich protiens

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139
Q

Filaggrin

A

Filaggrin is a filament-associated protein that binds to keratin fibers in epithelial cells

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140
Q

Filaggrin gene mutations are assoaciated with what skin condition

A

eczema

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141
Q

what kind of molecules can cross the epidermal barrier and why is this useful?

A

moderately lipophilic small molecules
we can deliver drugs through the skin using skin patches

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142
Q

what are the major fuctions of vitamin D?

A

-Calcium absorption by GI tract
-Calcium re-absorption by kidney
-Bone resorption by osteoclasts
-maintain serum calcium levels

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143
Q

Why do ppl with darker skin feel the effect of vitamin D deffiency more

A

becuase people with darker skin have a tendency to produce ↓ vitamin C

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144
Q

Dietary sources of Vitamin D

A

-Milk enriched in vitamin D
-Oranges
-Salmon

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145
Q

how does UV light make vitamin D?

A
  1. UV light hydrolyzes 7D into previtamin D3
  2. VD3 goes through the blood vessels to the liver
  3. then in the kidneys it is activated into calcitriol which is active vitamin D
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146
Q

what is the role of Melanocytes?

A

provide protection against the damaging effects of UV radiation

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147
Q

How are melanin granules made?

A

tyrosine is converted to melanin by tyrosinase

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148
Q

what type of secretion do melanin granule do?

A

cytocrine secretion
a small peice of the cell is exchanged

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149
Q

why are the melanin granules not usually in melanocytes

A

the pigment is transported rapidly to keratiocytes and the granules cover the DNA to protect it from UV redation

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150
Q

what enzyme is missing in albinos?

A

tyrosinases

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151
Q

why do some people have darker skin colors?

A

In darker-skinned individuals, more mela-nin is produced,
melanosomes are larger and there is an increased rate of
transfer of melanin from melanocytes to keratinocytes.

a person w/ darker skin does not have ↑ melanocytes Just more efficient

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152
Q

what color is Eumelanin pigment

A

black to brown

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153
Q

what color is pheomelanin pigment?

A

yellow to reddish

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154
Q

What are the Three major steps are involved in tanning

A
  1. Photo-oxidation of melanin
  2. Re-distribution of melanin granules to upper layers
  3. Increased number of melanin granules
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155
Q

what are the resident
dendritic cells of the epidermis

A

Langerhans cells they play the role of macrophages

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156
Q

role of langerhans cells?

A

reside in the epidermis
Interact with T-cells to mount immune response
May also play a role in immune
tolerance

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157
Q

what are the hair growth phases

A

Anagen: active hair growth. Growth of the hair follicle and shaft; lasts 2-6 years

Catagen: reduced hair growth. Involution of the hair follicle; lasts 3 weeks

Telogen: resting phase; stays in involuted stage; lasts 2-4 months

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158
Q

what is important about the bulge of the hair follicle

A

Location of stem cells
Re-populate hair bulb after telogen phase
SC can migrate to epidermis for regeneration which can be helpful in burn situations

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159
Q

what happens in the matrix of the hair

A

Dividing epithelial cells
responsible for hair growth

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160
Q

how does the skin control of body temperature

A

-Activation of eccrine sweat glands
-Vasodilation of cutaneous blood vessels
-Arterio-venous anastomoses

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161
Q

what is the primary factor eliciting activation of eccrine sweat glands?

A

cholinergic innervation from the sympathetic nervous system

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162
Q

activating the Arterio-venous anastomoses does what to blood flow and temp

A

increases blood flow and dreases temp

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163
Q

Renault disease

A

characterized by dysfunctional regulation of blood flow in the extremities

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164
Q

Free nerve endings end in epidermis control what?

A

pain and temperature

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165
Q

Merkel cells in the stratum basale control what?

A

Light touch

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166
Q

Meissner corpuscle in dermal papilla control what

A

light touch and high frequency vibrations

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167
Q

Pacinian corpuscle in deep dermis control what

A

Deep pressure and vibration

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168
Q

Hair follicle mechanoreceptors control what?

A

hair movement

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169
Q

ruffini endings control what?

A

skin stretch

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170
Q

A severe burn that affects a relatively large portion of the integument will necessitate a skin graft. Which specific layer of the integument is critically involved in the renewal of the epidermis?

A

stratum basale

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171
Q

Skin patches can be used for the transdermal delivery of drugs. Which of the following molecules are most likely to cross the skin barrier?

A

slightly lipophilic

172
Q

what are the layers of the epidermis from bottom up

A

stratum basale (the deepest portion of the epidermis), stratum spinosum, stratum granulosum, stratum lucidum, and stratum corneum (the most superficial portion of the epidermis)

173
Q

what is the epithelial layer of the integument?

A

epidermis

174
Q

what layers are the dermis divided into?

A

papillary layer and reticular layer

175
Q

what is the hypodermis?

A

the layer depper than the dermis
rich in adipose tissue

176
Q

dermal papille

A

extend from dermis inot epidermis for increased mechanical strength

177
Q

interpapillary pegs

A

epidermis in between dermal papillae

178
Q

which layer of the epidermis has desmosomal junctions?

A

stratum spinosum

179
Q

which two layers are in thick skin and not thin skin?

A

stratuk granulosum(has keratohyalin granules) and strtum lucidum(has dying cells that still retain cytoplasm)

180
Q

where are melanocytes mostly found

A

stratified squammous epithelia

181
Q

what happens in vitiligo?

A

its an autoimmune disease where the immune sstem attacks the melanocytes

182
Q

which cells are migratory within the skin epithelium?

A

melanocytes and langerhans cells

183
Q

what cells are melanocytes derived from?

A

neural crest cells

184
Q

what cells are langerhans cells dervied from?

A

HSC

185
Q

what type of secretion does apocrine sweat glands develop?

A

merocrine

186
Q

what is glabrous skin and where is it located?

A

hairless skin
located in the lips, soles of hands and feet, nipples, labiaminora, and penis

187
Q

dermal papilla of the hair

A

a connective tissue elemetn that plays a role in organizing follicle development

188
Q

arrector pili muscle

A

erect the hair

189
Q

cutaneous horn

A

a hard keratinized secretion that may form pathologically over a site of localized trauma

190
Q

First-degree burns

A

involve the epidermis. The burn site is red, painful, dry with no blisters. Mild sunburn is an example.

191
Q

Second-degree burns

A

involve the epidermis and the most superficial part of the dermis. The burn site is red with blisters and may be swollen and painful.

192
Q

Third-degree burns

A

involve the epidermis and the deep dermis. The burn site may appear white or charred.

193
Q

Fourth degree burns

A

involve the epidermis, dermis and the underlying bones, muscles, and tendons. There is no sensation in the area because the nerve endings are destroyed.

194
Q

Myofibroblast

A

-contractile single cells
-activated fibroblasts whith a basaphilic tail that is indicative of active ribosomes
-located in connective tissue

195
Q

where are myofibroblast derived from

A

MSC-derived

196
Q

where are myoepithelial cells derived from?

A

epithelium-derived

197
Q

what is a myoepithelial cell?

A

-apical of basement membrane in epithelium
-smooth muscle that squeezes glands

198
Q

what is the bodies reseverairor of extracellular Ca2+

A

bone

199
Q

sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

basically the same as ER In muscle becomes
storage for Intracellular Compartment of Ca 2+

200
Q

caveolae

A

take ih Calcium via endocytic vesicles

201
Q

dense bodies in smooth muscle

A

anchoring sites for actin filaments, similar to the Z-disks in striated muscle

202
Q

intermediate filaments in smooth muscle

A

internal net holds everything together
make of desmin or vimentin

203
Q

reticular layer in smooth muscle

A

connective tissue fibers the smooth muscles pull on

204
Q

smooth muscle is under what type of control

A

involuntary

205
Q

how do smooth muscle cells contract

A

Free intracellular myosin pulls against f-actin that is tethered (via a-actinin) to dense bodies, which can be membrane-bound

206
Q

what neurotransmitter is used for the sympathetic division?

A

epinephrine

207
Q

what neurotransmitter is used for the parasympathetic division?

A

acetylcholine

208
Q

how is smooth muscle divided?

A

myogenic(single-unit) or neurogenic (multi-unit)

209
Q

myogenic smooth muscle

A

one axon -> many cells
*many gap junctions
*coordinated action
*responsive to hormones, etc.

210
Q

neurogenic smooth muscle

A

*one axon -> few cells
*independent action
*found in iris, arrector pili, large
vessels, small airways of lung

211
Q

what are these structures and what are they transporting?

A

caveolae thransporting Ca2+

212
Q

what is the size difference of the three kinds of muscle cells

A

smooth muscle is the smallest, then cardiac muscle, and skeletal muscle is the largest

213
Q

what are dyads

A

present in cardiac myocyte in the Z-line of the sarcomer

214
Q

what are dyads

A

present in cardiac myocyte in the Z-line of the sarcomer

215
Q

what is an intercalated disk?

A

where twho cells adhere to each other using fascia adherens

216
Q

What is present in skeletal but not cardiac muscle

A

a perimysium

217
Q

which muscle is a syncicium?

A

skeletal muscle

218
Q

what muscle has A and I bands?

A

both skeletal and smooth muscle

219
Q

what muscle has A and I bands?

A

both skeletal and smooth muscle

220
Q

what kind of tissue is this?

A

cardiac muscle

221
Q

what are the distictive features of cardiac muscle cells

A

one, sometimes two, nuclei per cell
cells (cardiac myocytes) may be branched
*striated; striations more delicate than skeletal fibers
*many mitochondria and fewer myofibrils
*sarcoplasmic cone- Thick + thin titi merits must bend out o f the way .
*intercalated disc

222
Q

what structure is this pointing to?

A

Intercalated disc
A distinct irregular band oriented perpendicular to the cell’s long axis

223
Q

what are the three intercellular junctions in the intercalated disk?

A

fascia adherens, gap junction, and desmosomes

224
Q

Myocardial Endocrine Cell

A

Most are located in atria of heart
Relases granules that signal

225
Q

Atrial Natriuretic Protein(ANP)

A

-relseased from Myocardial Endocrine Cell
-released in response to
stretch of atrial wall
-ANP promotes loss of sodium, potassium and water in kidneys;
reduces body fluid and lowers blood pressure.

226
Q

what is circled

A

Myocardial Endocrine Cell
with Granules of ANP in cell

227
Q

what is circled?

A

Purkinje fibers

228
Q

what is a purkinje fiber?

A

Cardiac cells modified for
conducting electrical signals

229
Q

How does a cardiac signal travel?

A

SA node -> AV node ->
Bundle of His -> Purkinje fibers - > ventricular fibers

230
Q

what is this structure and where is it?

A

purkinje fbers in subendocardial layer

231
Q

triads

A

in skeletal muscle at the A and I band interface
where 2 sarcoplamic recticulum and 1 t-tublue meet

232
Q

what is the mitochondrial count in skeletal muscle comparativly

A

high mitochondria count

233
Q

Type 1 skeletal muscle fibers

A

red
slow-twitch, oxidative; Capable of repeated
contraction without fatigue

234
Q

type IIA skeletal muscle fibers

A

intermediate
fast-twitch, glycolytic-oxidative; Fatigue-resistant

235
Q

type IIB skeletal muscle fibers

A

white
fast-twitch, glycolytic; Strong and fast, fatigues
easily

236
Q

can the different muscle types interconvert?

A

white can convert to interconvert to intermediate and red can conterconvert to intermediate but red and white cant interconvert

237
Q

how can we tell the difference between the different types of skeletal muscle

A

use a stain for glycolytic or oxidative prcesses

238
Q

what stain stains for white musle

A

must stain for glycolytic processes
-PAS stain
-white will have the most glycogen and red will have the least glycogen

239
Q

what stains for red muscle?

A

-needs to stain for oxydative processes
-cytochrome oxidase(a mitochondrial enzyme)
-red will stain darkest because it has the most midochondrial activity

240
Q

developmentally where does skeletal muscle come from?

A

Myotome

241
Q

roles of dermatome and myotome in the adult

A

they refer to the mapping of innervation and muscles to the spinal cord roots from which they arise.

242
Q

how do skeletal muscles develop?

A

1) A skeletal muscle fiber is a syncytium of myoblasts.
2) Primary myotubes form from the fusion of myoblasts.
3) Secondary myotubes form within the external membrane of the primary myotubes, and subsequently separate to form additional fibers of equivalent adult morphology
4) Myoblasts persist beneath the external membrane of adult fibers as satellite cells

243
Q

what cell is this

A

myo-satellite cell

A population of undifferentiated, quiescent precursors that become activated to divide and differentiate in response to the demands of growth and damage.

muscle stem cell

244
Q

How many cell progenerter types are in skeletal muscle?

A

2

245
Q

junctional folds

A

because a skeletal muscle fiber is so
large, it needs a specialized structure to depolarize its membrane.

specialized synapse at the neuromuscular junction

246
Q

muscle spindle

A

sits in parallel with the body of the muscle
senses degree of muscle elongation(length)

247
Q

Golgi tendon organ

A

sits in serial arrangement, between muscle and tendon
senses the degree of tension(force)

248
Q

what is the Morphology of the Muscle Spindle

A

The muscle spindle contains bag and chain fibers (not usually morphologically distinguishable), each sensitive to different ranges of stretch.
It both receives efferent (gamma motor neurons) and generates afferent (type Ia & II sensory) innervation.
It is surrounded by a capsule, that is the equivalent of perimysium.

249
Q

epimysium

A

CT around while muscle

250
Q

perimysium

A

CT around muscle fasicle

1

251
Q

endomysium

A

CT around muscle fiber

2

252
Q

Desmin

A

connects myofibrils with each other at Z-line, holding them in register

253
Q

Costamere

A

collection of intracellular proteins binding desmin to sarcolemma at
the z-line.

254
Q

Mutations in the costamere-associated protein dystrophin are implicated in

A

muscular dystrophies

255
Q

Myotendinous junction

A

actin filaments are directly anchored to the cell membrane in a structure similar to the fascia adherens.

256
Q

what is skeletal muscle repair dependent on?

A

the external membrane must be intact

257
Q

what is the evolutionarily oldest form of muscle?

A

smooth muscle

258
Q

what binds actin to the Z line?

A

nebulin

259
Q

what is in the A band of muscle?

A

myosin

260
Q

What is in the I band of muscle?

A

actin/thin filments

261
Q

H-band

A

The pale H-band is formed by the absence of actin at the center of the sarcomere

just thick filments

262
Q

Myokines

A

When active, skeletal muscle secretes cytokines that affect its function,[1] and these are receiving increased attention as direct health benefits of exercise

263
Q

IL-6

A

the first discovered myokine: normally pro-inflammatory, but anti-inflammatory when secreted by muscle

264
Q

gamma motor neurons

A

innervate the bag and chain fibers in order to alter their sensitivity

265
Q

what is the function of dyad and triad

A

The dyad and triad are specializations to allow the electrical impulse across the cell membrane to act more quickly on the SR membrane

266
Q

what are the 4 parts of the spinal cord?

A

Cervical
Thoracic
Lumbar
Sacral

267
Q

label spinal cord directions

A
268
Q

label brain directions

A
269
Q

label lobes

A
270
Q

What makes up the Cerebral Cortex

A

Includes cerebral hemispheres and basal ganglia, amygdala and hippocampus

271
Q

what are the parts of the brain stem?

A

midbrain pons and medulla oblongata

272
Q

what are the Subcortical Structures involved in

A

homeostasis & temp
Controls Vicera + hormones+ sleep
“ primitive part of brain “

brainstem

273
Q

what do the Meninges do?

A

Cover brain and spinal cord
serve as protection

274
Q

what are the mening layers

A

Dura mater (outer layer)
Arachnoid Mater (middle layer)
Pia Mater (inner, attached to surface of brain)

275
Q

what is the Dura mater and what are the layers?

A

Tough, fibrous outer covering, with an external periosteal layer and internal meningeal layer.

276
Q

what are the dura’s two specialized roles?

A
  1. Dural Infoldings
  2. Dural Venous Sinuses
277
Q

Dural Venous Sinuses

A

between 2 layers for drainage of deoxygenated blood
thhe CSF also draisn in the venous sinuses

278
Q

Emissary Veins

A

Veins that drain the scalp

279
Q

Diploic Veins

A

Brain Bone veins

280
Q

Dural Infolding

A

divides major parts of the brain

281
Q

Arachnoid mater

A

-middle meninges layer
-Thin, web-like middle layer.
- Covers the subarachnoid space which contains cerebrospinal
fluid (CSF), arteries and veins

282
Q

Pia Mater

A

-The deepest layer of the meninges. Has thinner, shiny surface.
-Adheres directly to the surface of the brain and follows every curve (sulcus) of the cortex.
-Covers brain grooves

283
Q

label

A
284
Q

what are the two major sources of blood supple to the brain?

A

common carotid and vertebral artery

285
Q

Extra-Axial Brain Hemorrhage

A

Intracranial bleeding can be outside the brain tissue (extra-axial) or inside the brain tissue (intra-axial)

286
Q

Epidural Hematoma

A

Most cases occur from meningeal artery ruptures from skull fractures. The blood pools between the skull and dura and is confined by periosteal sutures
-The diva has it’s own blood supply , if you rupture
one of these arteries , pooling In a space where expansion is not possible

287
Q

symptoms of a epidural hematoma

A

Symptoms typically include: Lucid interval followed by loss of consciousness, severe headaches, confusion, dizziness, vomiting

288
Q

Subdural Hematoma

A

Venous hematoma involving the rupture of bridging veins (cerebral veins that are draining into the venous sinuses). Located in the potential space between the dura and arachnoid mater.

blood pooling from Venus
system; Veins that drain brain

289
Q

what population is most susceptible to a Chronic Subdural Hematoma

A

Mostly occurs in the elderly population even with minor injury.
b/c brain shrinks & there is more space for collision

290
Q

symptoms of a subdural hematoma

A

Headache, hemiparesis, seizures, visual changes, nausea or vomiting, lowered state of consciousness

291
Q

Subarachnoid Hematoma

A

Most commonly associated with a ruptured cerebral aneurysm. Arterial blood fills the subarachnoid space and other spaces normally occupied by CSF

Post injury the subarachnoid space can fill with blood from rupture

292
Q

Subarachnoid Hematoma symptoms

A

Sudden onset “thunderclap” headaches, dizziness, confusion, hemiparesis, visual changes, nausea or vomiting, lowered state of consciousness

293
Q

How does the CNS communicate with the body?

A

Tracts/Pathways that are a bundle of axons that travel from one nuclei to another. Pathways that exit the CNS are what we know as spinal nerves or cranial nerves.

294
Q

Cranial Nerves are part of which system?

A

Peripheral Nervous System

295
Q

What is the job of the Spinal Cord?

A

-Provides sensory information to reach the brain
-Provides motor information to influence movement
-Contains motor neurons which directly control muscles

296
Q

what are the vertebrae from top down and how many vertebrae does each have?

A
297
Q

how many nerves does each vertebrae have?

A
298
Q

where are the vertebral enlargements?

A

Cervical + lumbar enlargement - more info coming in
- more Input + output

299
Q

The ratio of white matter to gray matter increases is what way?

A

from caudal to rostral

300
Q

label using anterior and posterior references

A
301
Q

what are the Glial cells?

A

Astrocytes, Oligodendrocytes, Microglia, Schwann Cells, Satellite cells

supporting cells

302
Q

How many synapses does a single neuron receive?

A

thousands

303
Q

what is the Basic cellular unit of the Neurvous system?

A

neuron

304
Q

Dendrite

A

receives informationfrom other neurons via synapses and carries the signal towards the soma

305
Q

Soma(cell body)

A

supportsthe metabolic and synthetic needs of the neuron; integrates electrical signals (though final integration occurs at axon hillock)

306
Q

Axon

A

conducts information away from the cell body via an electrical signal called an action potential

307
Q

what are the neuron types?

A

Pseudounipolar
Bipolar
Multipolar

308
Q

Pseudounipolar neuron

A

this type of neuron contains an axon that has split into two branches; one branch travels to the peripheral nervous system and the other to the central nervous system.

sensory
synapse at the spinal cord

309
Q

Bipolar neuron

A

a type of neuron that has two extensions (one axon and one dendrite). Many bipolar cells are specialized sensory neurons for the transmission of sense. As such, they are part of the sensory pathways for smell, sight, taste, hearing, touch, balance and proprioception.

310
Q

Multipolar neuron

A

-A multipolar neuron is a type of neuron that possesses a single axon and many dendrites (and dendritic branches), allowing for the integration of a great deal of information from other neurons.
-motor neurons

311
Q

describe the morphology of sensory neurons and some examples of where you could find them?

A

-morphology:
central nucleus
ring of satellite cells
-synapses do not occur
-examples:
-dorsal root ganglion
-cranial sensory nerve ganglia

312
Q

describe the morphology of motor neurons and some examples of where you could find them?

A

-examples:
-ventral horn of spinal cord -Autonomic ganglia
-multipolar neurons
-morphology:
eccentric nucleus dispersed satellite cells
-synapses are abundant
-larger & more spread appoint

313
Q

Afferent (sensory) nerve fibers

A

carry information from sensory receptors in the skin (ie. touch, temperature, pain) toward the CNS

314
Q

Efferent (motor) nerve fibers

A

carry information to the periphery to innervate skeletal muscles

315
Q

Label the connective tissue parts of the nervous system

A
316
Q

which nerves are commonly myleinated and which are unmylienated?

A

Voluntary skeletal muscle mylenated
Autonomic nervous system unmylenated

317
Q

label

A
318
Q

what are the 3 Subdivisions of the ANS and what does each do?

A

Sympathetic
-Mobilizes the body for action in stressful and dangerous situations o The “fight or flight” system

Parasympathetic
- Regulates the body’s functions to conserve energy
-”Rest and digest” system

Enteric
-In the wall of the GI tract and is important for GI motility

319
Q

how is the Sympathetic neuron chain?

A
  • Cell bodies of pre-synaptic neurons are found in the (paired) intermediolateral cell columns of the spinal cord
  • Cell bodies of the post-synaptic neurons are found in the para- vertebral ganglia (sympathetic chain)

2 neuron pathway

320
Q

Blank nucleus refers to?

A

collection of cell bodies in CNS

321
Q

Ganglia refers to

A

collection of cell bodies in PNS

322
Q

Tracts refer to

A

collection of axons in the CNS

323
Q

nerves refers to

A

collections of axons in the PNS

324
Q

how is the parasympathetic neuron chain?

A

Presynaptic parasympathetic neuron cell bodies are located in:
– Gray matter of the brainstem
– Gray matter of the sacral segments of the spinal cord
-2 neurons but longer pre ganglia
-ganglia closer to targets

325
Q

What leads to specification of the neural tube

A

Molecular factors from the ectoderm and notochord control the development of zones of the neural tube

326
Q

SHH (sonic hedgehog)

A

a “ventralizing” neurotube factor

327
Q

BMP4 & 7

A

dorsalizing factors

328
Q

What does the neural tube differentiates into?

A

alar (roof) plate and basal (floor) plate

using molecular gradients

329
Q

what do the neural tube roof structure differentiate into?

A

cerebellum, cortex

330
Q

what do the neural tube floor structure differentiate into?

A

brainstem and thalamus

331
Q

From front to back, the neural tube is segmented into:

A

prosencephalon
mesencephalon
rhombencephalon

332
Q

how does the floor plate develop and what does it give rise to?

A

The ganglionic eminences develop laterally on the floor plate - these disappear as they give rise to: thalamic radiations,
basal ganglia, and
inhibitory neurons of cortex

333
Q

how does the prosencephalon develop and what does it develop into?

A

prosencephalon (telencephalon) is expanding radially (into layers) and laterally (into areas) into the cerebral cortex.

334
Q

excitatory vs inhibitory neurons of the cortex migration

A

excitatory are born in the floor plate & stay here
inhibitory neurons are born in the floor plate and migrate

335
Q

what represents the largest radiation of animalia?

A

Protostomes

336
Q

what represents the most recent radiation in development?

A

Deuterostomes

337
Q

when did Endochondral ossification develop?

A

in fish

338
Q

what differeitates mammals

A

mammary glands, placenta, and live born

339
Q

how many mass extinctions have there been?

A

5
in the 6th right now

340
Q

in protostomes what forms first

A

mouth forms first

341
Q

In deuterostomes what forms first

A

anus

we are deuterosomes

342
Q

what animals are protostomes?

A

worms
insects
butterflies

343
Q

chordate

A

has a notochord present but no vertebre

344
Q

craniate

A

has a hard skull

345
Q

vertebrate

A

hard backbone

346
Q

agnatha

A

jawless vertebrates

347
Q

gnathostomata

A

hinged jaw

348
Q

what is a Non-vertebrate craniate example

A

Sea Lamprey

349
Q

why are some brain areas bigger in some animals than others?

A

The religions of the brain specialize and grow based
on the needs of the animal and envirment

350
Q

what happens in the superior colliculus

A

visual processing region

351
Q

what happens in the inferior colliculus

A

auditory processing region

352
Q

where are brocas area and wernicke’s area?

A

unilateral
95% of ppl have them on the left side

353
Q

what is grey and what is white matter

A
opposite in spinal cord
354
Q

grey matter represents what part of the neuron

A

cell body

355
Q

white matter represents what part of the neuron?

A

axons

356
Q

what areas are mylienated first?

A

Primary sensory areas are myleinated first

357
Q

gyrencephalic

A

highly folded cortex
ex: dolphins

358
Q

lissencephalic

A

smooth brain
ex: manatee

359
Q

how does degree of folding affect the brain

A

degree of folding does not matter in the brain

360
Q

what type of cell is this?

A

astrocyte

361
Q

Astrocyte

A

-primary structural cell
-end-feet on vasculature are part of BBB
-mediates ionic milieu of ECF
-Controls nutrition and metabolism

362
Q

Alzheimer’s disease

A

characterized by accumulation of Aβ plaques extracellularly

363
Q

Parkinson’s disease

A

resting tremor and inability to initiate movements - loss of
dopamine synthesizing neurons in the substantia nigra

364
Q

Huntington’s disease

A

uncontrollable ‘chorea’

a neurological disorder characterized by jerky involuntary movements

365
Q

how is the primary cilium related the the three most common neurological diseases?

A

Astrocytes have primary cilia (9+0), used to sense their environment & determine reactivity.
All three major diseases show altered primary cilium function.

366
Q

Oligodendrocyte

A

myelinates axons in the CNS
homologous (but not identical to) peripheral Schwann cells

contribute to multiple axons

367
Q

Schwann cells

A

myelinates axons in PNS

myelinates 1 axon

368
Q

Microglial Cell

A

macrophage of CNS
derived from monocyte progenitors enters brain during development

369
Q

how can microglia be an indicator of disease?

A

Microglia have an ‘activated’ state, which can be used as a marker of pathologies

370
Q

Golgi stain

A

a type of silver stain – in which only 1 out of every 1000 or so neurons is stained. Today, we still don’t know why this happens

help us better visualize the neurons

371
Q

what are the are three major categories of cells in then brain?

A

non-neuronal cells (glia) excitatory neurons inhibitory neurons

372
Q

excitatory vs inhibitory neuron morphology

A

-each functional area also has excitatory neuron types that are unique to that area.
-Inhibitory neurons types are more homogenous across the cortical sheet

373
Q

how do cell types segragate in the brain?

A

Cell types segregate by general anatomical position within the cortical sheet and cortical layer

374
Q

excitatory vs inhibatory neuron differences

A

-Excitatory neurons have well-defined dendritic trees, with long axons.
-Inhibitory neurons have local, diffuse arborizations

375
Q

how do excitatory and inhibitory neurons work together

A

excitation gets tampered down by local inhibition until there is enough excitation to cause a signal

376
Q

glutamate

A

major excitatory neurotransmitter of cortex

377
Q

GABA

A

major inhibitory neurotransmitter of cortex

378
Q

what are ionotropic receptors and which neurotranmitters use them?

A

receptor is the channel
glutamate, GABA, and ACH use

fast

379
Q

what are metabotropic receptors and which neurotranmitters use them?

A

receptopr signals a G-protien coupled mechanism
dopamine
serotonin
norepinephrine
epinephrine

380
Q

how does the cortex develop?

A

symmetric division expands the sheet
asymmetric division thickens the sheet

neurons migrate through the cortical sheet along “radial glia”

381
Q

where are neurons born?

A

ventricular zone

382
Q

how does the cortext grow?

A

Cortex grows radially from cells that enter the sub-ventricular zone

383
Q

how many layers does the adult cortex have?

A

In the adult, cortex has between 3-6 defined layers based on cytoarchitecture & connectivity

384
Q

do birds have cortical layers?

A

Birds lack genes that are critical for forming layers

385
Q

Disorders of inhibitory migration may lead to?

A

epilepsy

386
Q

How are Inhibitory Neurons developed?

A

nhibitory neurons migrate in a tangential direction across the cortical surface from subpallial (ventricular floor) areas through the cortical sheet.

387
Q

what are the layer surrounding a blood vessel in the brain?

A

blood
endothelium
basement membrane
pia mater
pericyte
basement membrane
foot process of astrocyte
neuron

388
Q

where are tigh junction located in the BBB?

A

endothelium wall is continuous with tight junctions, and has the major responsibility (in humans) for the BBB

389
Q

How is Lipid entry into the brain mediated

A

by endothelial cells
Intracellularly-bound lipids are shed to the circulation in exosomes.

390
Q

Interventricular foramen

A

connection of lateral to third ventricles

391
Q

Cerebral aqueduct

A

connection of third to fourth ventricle

392
Q

what kind of cells are these?

A

Ependymal cells

393
Q

Ependymal cells

A

ciliated, simple cuboidal or columnar epithelium lining ventricles
produces, absorbs, moves CSF

394
Q

Hydrocephalus

A

overproduction of fluid
occlusion of aqueducts
poor absorption (back to blood)

395
Q

what is this structure

A

central canal

396
Q

what is the central cannal?

A

lined with ependymal cells filled with CSF

397
Q

what are the Two Circulations in the Brain and what does eachh do?

A

cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) formed at the choroid plexusdrained at the arachnoid

interstitial fluid (ISF)
filtrate of plasma at arterioles drains to capillaries

398
Q

glymphatic system

A

control of ISF flow between
the arterial & venous Virchow-Robin spaces by
glial cells

mimics lympatic system

399
Q

Nissl bodies

A

Cell bodies of neurons may sometimes be recognized in LM by the presence of Nissl bodies, representing large amounts of basophilic ER

400
Q

axosomatic or axoaxonal

A

Synapses on portions of the cell other than the dendrite

401
Q

bouton en passant

A

Presynaptic elements along the length of the axon

402
Q

how is myelin formed

A

Myelin is formed when a supporting cell wraps its cytoplasm around an axonal process numerous times.

403
Q

what does the rhombencephalon differetiate into

A

myelencephalon - medulla. Its lumen becomes the caudal portion of the fourth ventricle.

metencephalon - pons, cerebellum. Its lumen becomes the rostral portion of the fourth ventricle.

404
Q

what does the prosencephalon differentiate into?

A

diencephalon - thalamus, hypothalamus, (epithalamus, subthalamus) optic nerve & retina, posterior pituitary, pineal gland. Its lumen becomes the third ventricle.

telencephalon - cerebral cortex, basal ganglia, hippocampus, amygdala, olfactory bulb. Its lumen becomes the lateral ventricles

405
Q

dermatome

A

Each spinal nerve innervates a particular region or “level” of the body

406
Q

photoreceptors (rods and cones)

A

Photoreceptors are specialized neurons found in the retina that convert light into electrical signals that stimulate physiological processes. Signals from the photoreceptors are sent through the optic nerve to the brain for processing.

407
Q

bipolar cells

A

Bipolar cells are one of the main retinal interneurons and provide the main pathways from photoreceptors to ganglion cells

408
Q

ganglion cells

A

Ganglion cells are the projection neurons of the vertebrate retina, conveying information from other retinal neurons to the rest of the brain.

409
Q

horizontal cells

A

Horizontal cells are the laterally interconnecting neurons having cell bodies in the inner nuclear layer of the retina of vertebrate eyes.

410
Q

amacrine cells

A

Amacrine cells are the intrinsic interneurons of the inner retina representing the most diverse class of neurons in the retina.

411
Q

Müller (glial) cells

A

Müller glia are the major glial component of the retina. maintenance of the blood-retinal barrier, local phagocytosis, and scaffolding of the neural circuitry during development.

412
Q

what are the Layers of the retina

A

● photoreceptor layer (rod and cone outer segments)
● external limiting membrane (terminal bars between Müller cells and photoreceptors)
● outer nuclear layer (rod and cone inner segments)
● outer plexiform layer (photoreceptor-bipolar-horizontal synapses
● inner nuclear layer (bipolar, horizontal, amacrine and Müller cell bodies)
● inner plexiform layer (ganglion-bipolar-amacrine synapses)
● ganglion cell layer (cell bodies)
● nerve fiber layer (axons of ganglion cells)
● internal limiting membrane (basement membrane against the vitreous)

413
Q

label

A
414
Q

what are the specific photopigments?

A

rhodopsin and cone-opsins

415
Q

what are the three types of cones

A

S (short), M (medium) and L (long) describing the wavelengths of light to which they are optimally receptive. They are colloquially known respectively as blue, green and red cones

416
Q

What are the two types of neurons mediate communication across the surface of the retina

A

horizontal cell and amacrine cell

417
Q

which are more sensitive rods or cones?

A

rods

418
Q

which system has better spatial acuity?

A

cones

419
Q

which are in the fovea rods or cones?

A

L and M cones

420
Q

where do rods dominate?

A

in the parafoveal regions

421
Q

what is the thickest part of the retina?

A

The parafoveal region is the thickest part of the retina

422
Q

what is the macula

A

the foveal and parafoveal reigion together

423
Q

how does the retina get nutrition?

A

Retinal vessels enter and exit with the optic nerve, and branch over the inner surface of the retina
The second source is the choriocapillaris, the vasculature of the choroid layer, deep to the outer neural retina. This is the primary source of oxygen for the photoreceptors, the layer with the highest intrinsic energy requirements.

424
Q

glaucoma

A

increased fluid pressure in anterior and posterior chambers is transmitted through the vitreous and first affects ganglion cells.

425
Q

diabetic retinopathy

A

leakage of capillary endothelia and concomitant breakdown of the blood-retinal-barrier caused by glycemic stress selectively kills photoreceptors

426
Q

age-related macular degeneration

A

typically affect central photoreceptors, usually starts as a dry form caused by pathological deposits (“drusen”) in the vicinity of Bruch’s membrane, and may progress to a wet form in which new vasculature grows in the choroid, producing local dislocations of the layer that result in blurred vision and cellular damage. In advanced cases, these vessels may grow through the RPE layer.

COT (8 decks)

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