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COT > Quiz 2 > Flashcards

Quiz 2 Flashcards

1
Q

what does MSC stand for?

A

Mesenchymal Stem Cells

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2
Q

What cells does MSC produce?

A

Fibroblasts, adipocytes, and muscle tissue

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3
Q

Transdifferentiation

A

converting one cell type into another

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4
Q

de-differentiation

A

regressing a cell type into an earlier precursor cell

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5
Q

what are the components of connective tissue

A

ground substance, Cell(motile and non-motile), Fibers(collagen, elastin, reticularis fibers)

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6
Q

Matrix

A

the extracellular components of a CT so its fibers and hydrated groups

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7
Q

Mesenchyme

A

highly cellular embryonic CT that is low in fibers, and high in cells, and high in ground substance

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8
Q

How does muscle develop in from CT?

A

develops from condensation of mesenchyme

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9
Q

Collagens

A

most commonly secreted fiber
in connective tissue large rope-like structure

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10
Q

what are some examples of CT that is highly fibrous?

A

tendones, ligaments, fascia, cartilage, and bone

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11
Q

what is this tissue

A

unilocular adipocytes

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12
Q

what are unilocular adipocytes?

A

large cells that store lipids and after occur together in large masses are clumps

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13
Q

what is this tissue?

A

Multilocular adipocytes

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14
Q

what are multilocular adipocytes?

A

lipid storing cells specialized for heat production they are rich in mitochondria which is why you see white circles in them

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15
Q

what is beige fat?

A

unilocular adipocytes can adopt the heat generating properties of multilocular cells

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16
Q

What happens when adipocytes get too big?

A

Chronic inflammation which recruits the immune system

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17
Q

how are white, beige, and brown fat link lineage wise?

A

white and beige are linked and brown has a separate lineage

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18
Q

How are bone and cartilage linked?

A

they are always bounded by a collagen sheet

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19
Q

What are the cells that produce bone and cartilage?

A

osteocytes and chondrocytes

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20
Q

what type of collagen is bone composed of?

A

Type I

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21
Q

What is the purpose of type X collagen?

A

used as a scaffold when types I collagen is first being formed?

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22
Q

What is the major collagen of the cartilage matrix?

A

Type II collagen

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23
Q

What do proteoglycans do?

A

retain water, stiffen matix, and resist compression

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24
Q

Would you consider blood to be a connective tissue…why or why not?

A

answers for it
It is highly cellular has few fibers except fibrin, and has a ground substance

answers against
separate lineage

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25
Q

what determines whether a fat will be thermogenic?

A

-UCP-1 in mitochondria
-it changes the product of mitochondrial respiration from ATP to heat

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26
Q

How are adipocytes involved in modulating hunger?

A

they produce hormones that modulate hunger or satiety

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27
Q

Fibroblasts

A

main cell in CT
responsible for the production,remodeling, and degradation of matrix and ground substance

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28
Q

Myofibroblasts

A

myosin producting subtype of fibroblasts specialized to gerate force

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29
Q

type I collagen

A

dominate large fiber of connective tissue. Plays structural and space filling roles.

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30
Q

How is type I collagen synthesized?

A

it is synthesized as a triple helix procollagen molecule and alligned and cross-linked extracellularly into fibrils

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31
Q

Type III collagen

A

Dominate small fiber of CT, and dominant fiber in mesenchyme. Provides support to highly cellular regions

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32
Q

Elastic fibers

A

composed of proteins elastin and are found where stretchiness is required

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33
Q

What is the role of type IV collagen?

A

forms the lamina densa for the basement membrane

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34
Q

What is the role of type VII collagen?

A

forms anchoring filaments in lamina reticularis

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35
Q

What is the role of type II collagen?

A

structural component of cartilage

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36
Q

What is the role of type V collagen?

A

necessary for the building of type I and III. found at the sites of collagen synthesis

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37
Q

Dense regular connective tissue

A

has mostly type I collagen
1 dimension
in tendons and ligaments

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38
Q

what type of connective tissue is this?

A

Dense regular connective tissue

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39
Q

Dense sheet-like connective tissue

A

mostly type I connective tissue arranged in a 2D sheet. sound where compartmentalization of connective tissue is nessasary

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40
Q

How is type III collagen visualized?

A

silver stain

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41
Q

Dense Irregular Connective Tissue?

A

mostly type I collagen
all three dimensions
does not allow for cell motillity

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42
Q

what type of connective tissue is this?

A

Dense Irregular Connective Tissue

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43
Q

Loose connective tissue

A

type three collagen and lots of ground substance, always irregular in orientation. Found is layer that need movement for immune cells

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44
Q

What type of connective tissue is this?

A

Loose connective tissue

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45
Q

Perineuronal nets

A

proteoglycans in the brain that can help label neurons

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46
Q

Ulceration

A

too many cells that dissolve structural components of an organ wall

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47
Q

Cyst

A

wall off an area by depositing thick connective tissue

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48
Q

How do keloids develop?

A

too much collagen is produced or it’s in the wrong direction

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49
Q

what is a hypertrophic scar?

A

flat appearance at the margin, collagen parallel to surface and increased myofibroblast count

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50
Q

How are elastin fiber visualized?

A

Verhoeff stain which stains them deep purple to black

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51
Q

what are the layers of the basement membrane?

A

lamina lucida
lamina densa
lamina reticularis

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52
Q

What are these lines pointing to?

A

loose connective tissue on the left
dense connective tissue on the right

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53
Q

What is this pointing to?

A

reticular fibers

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54
Q

what is diapedesis?

A

how leukocytes leave the circulation

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55
Q

what is paracellular extravasation?

A

the migratory cell moves through the
transiently-broken junctional complex between two epithelial cells.

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56
Q

What is transcellular intervasation?

A

the migratory cell pierces the endothelial cell body (or a fenestration), is most common in the bone marrow

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57
Q

What are some other cell immune defenses?

A

surface secretions, junctional complex,basement membrane

fiber matrix

proteoglycans

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58
Q

what is tissue swelling caused by and what’s it purpose?

A

the addition of fluid (plasma filtrate) to the CT, and its purpose is to allow easier mobility for the motile cells of CT

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59
Q

What happens in chronic inflammation?

A

in chronic inflammation, stromal cells may acquire the function of an inflammation response. This is significant because the immune system regulates itself to eventually resolve the inflammation, whereas stromal cells are less easily regulated.

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60
Q

What is the role of Mast cells

A

pro-inflammation, soley found in the CT, have specific granules that contain histamine, a mediator of inflammation and heparin, an anticoagulant.

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61
Q

Are basophils in the blood stream?

A

basophils do exist and have important immune-modulatory functions in CT but are rare

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62
Q

Eosinophils

A

mediate allergic responses and kill parasites

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63
Q

what is intravasation?

A

entering blood stream

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64
Q

what is extravasation?

A

exciting bloodstream

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65
Q

which one is more common intravasation or extravasation?

A

extravasation

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66
Q

how does diapedesis work?

A

diapedesis uses a very complex system that can signal different leukocytes and be very specific
or general

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67
Q

Paracellular diapedesis

A

between two endothelial cells; breaks tight junctions and basement membrane

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68
Q

transcellular diapedesis

A

Migration through a pore in an individual endothelial cell

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69
Q

Calor

A

heat

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70
Q

dolor

A

pain

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71
Q

rubor

A

redness

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72
Q

tumor

A

swelling

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73
Q

selectin

A

mediates rolling adhesion

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74
Q

ICAM -1

A

intercellular adhesion
molecule

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75
Q

what cell is this and what are it’s identifiers?

A

Mast cell
round nucleus
pink granules

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76
Q

what cell is this and what are it’s identifiers?

A

Eosinophil
pink granules
lobed nucleus

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77
Q

eosinophil granules

A

line down middle caused by internum which is the major basic protein and outside part is externum

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78
Q

what cell is this and what are it’s identifiers?

A

Macrophage
look for which dots and round nucleus

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79
Q

what is a macrophage and what is its function?

A

-The vaccum cleaner of the body
- “ reserve pool” stored In the spleen
-phagocytosis , antigen-presenting cells, cytokine production

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80
Q

What is Syncytia and what are the two types?

A

macrophages can unit tg to fight larger cells
Langham cell : horseshoe - ring nuclei
Foreign Body Giant cell: Clumped nuclei

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81
Q

what cell are macrophages derived from?

A

Monocytes

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82
Q

when does neutrophils count peak?

A

around 24 hr

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83
Q

when does macrophage count peak?

A

around 36-48 hours

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84
Q

what is the mains neutrophil mechanism?

A

chemokines, phagocytosis, and NETosis

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85
Q

what are the three kinds of intracellular granules neutrophils have?

A

azurophilic (primary), specific (secondary) and tertiary granules

86
Q

NETosis

A

cell suicide that involves the throwing out of one’s chromatin to trap something outside of the cell

87
Q

what cells are the granulocytes

A

neutrophils, eosinophils and basophils *mast in CT

88
Q

Marginated neutrophils

A

Neutrophils can be stored in the vasculature by adhering to vessel walls, usually those of venules.

89
Q

Describe how B-lymphocytes work?

A

antigen-antibody recognition and production of plasma cells. They work extracellularly

90
Q

How do Plasma cells work?

A

they are activated antibody-producing B-cells

91
Q

What are T-cells and how do they work?

A

recognizes self from non-self

92
Q

what are the two types of T-cells?

A

helper (Th) and cytotoxic (Tc) T-cell

93
Q

what is mucosa-associated lymphoid tissue (MALT)

A

Lymphocytes are often found together in large congregations in the CT underlying mucosal surfaces

94
Q

What cell are inside the lymphoid follicles

A

B-cells

95
Q

where are B-cells born and where do they mature?

A

born in marrow and mature in marrow

96
Q

where are T-cells born and where do they mature?

A

born in marrow mature in thalymus

97
Q

dendritic cells

A

function in capturing antigens and presenting them to other cells or delivering them to lymph nodes

98
Q

what is pus made of

A

mostly dead neutrophils

99
Q

what do azurophilic granules do?

A

lysosomal enzymes that digest bacteria

100
Q

What do specific granules do?

A

kill bacteria with enzymes and reactive oxygen compounds

101
Q

what do tertiary granules do

A

facilitate migration to target

102
Q

How do
neutrophils die?

A

1) phagocytosis: up to 10-12 foreign bodies before apoptotic
cell death
2)apoptosis: die after releasing granules
3) NETosis: fling out chromatin to trap big cells

103
Q

Crenation

A

The formation of a star-shaped edge to the red blood cell, and commonly occurs when blood is exposed to a hypertonic solution

104
Q

En rouleaux

A

is the “clumping together” of red blood cells into a type of packing that resembles a roll of Life SaversTM candy.

105
Q

what disease?

A

sickle cell anemia

106
Q

what type of cell?

A

plasma cell

107
Q

what kind of epithelium?

A

simple columnar

108
Q

Label

A
109
Q

What cell is this?

A

macrophage
round nucleus, inclusions

110
Q

What cell is this?

A

Mast cell
round nucleus, pink granules

111
Q

What cell is this?

A

Neutrophil
lobbed nucleus, smooth cytoplasm

112
Q

What cell is this?(middle cell)

A

eosiniphil
lobed nucleus, pink cytoplasm

113
Q

What cell is this?

A

Plasma
clockface
clear golgi part

114
Q

What is this called?

A

foreign body Giant cell

115
Q

what cells are in a lymphoid follicle

A

B-cells in middle
plasma cells next circle out
T- cells lymphocytes furthest

116
Q

what is this called?

A

rolling adhesion

117
Q

what is this called?

A

diapedesis

118
Q

What are reticular fibers made of?

A

type III collagen

119
Q

what is a progenitor cell?

A

a cell that maintains a degree of pluripotency, including the ability to regenerate itself

120
Q

what is a precursor cell?

A

a differentiating cell that loses the ability to regenerate itself

121
Q

what is symmetric division?

A

The process by which stem and progenitor cells produce identically differentiated cells

122
Q

what is asymmetric divison?

A

the child
cells are more differentiated

123
Q

how do cells adjust the relative # of cells to have the right ratio of cells for the organ

A

apoptosis

124
Q

satellite cell

A

adult regenerative cell

125
Q

where can some neuronal stem cells be found?

A

the hippocampus

126
Q

Cells that have left the cell-cycle are it what stage

A

G0

127
Q

What is p53?

A

G1S checkpoint protein. Its gene is infamous for being the most frequently mutated gene across all forms of cancer

128
Q

S-phase

A

when the chromosomes are duplicated

129
Q

what happens during prophase?

A

chromosome condensation

130
Q

what happens during metaphase?

A

nuclear dissolution and their plate-like arrangement

131
Q

what happens during anaphase?

A

pulling apart of centrioles

132
Q

what happens during telophase?

A

pinching off of cell membrane

133
Q

meiosis produces ______ cells

A

haloid

134
Q

Mitosis produces_____ cells

A

diploid

135
Q

what are mitotic figures?

A

cells that are dividing

136
Q

what do the N and X mean?

A

N=# of chromatid
X=copies of chromatid

137
Q

Mitosis division

N and X numbers

A

2n1x->2n2x->2n1x (2 cells)

138
Q

Meiosis

A

2n1x->2n2x->1n2x(2 cells)->1n1x (4 cells)

139
Q

Stem progenitor cells in reporductive sytem

A

gametogonia, spermatogonia, oogonia

140
Q

cells before meiosis I

A

primary gametes, primary spermatocytes, primary oocytes

141
Q

cells before meiosis II

A

secondary gametes, secondary spermatocytes, secondary oocytes

142
Q

adult reproductive cells

A

ova and spermatozoa

143
Q

difference between male and female gametes

A

Spermatogonia are retained and continue to be active throughout life, whereas oogonia disappear by the time of birth. For female gametes, only one viable cell results from the completion of meiosis

144
Q

where are primary oocytes arrested

A

before meiosis I

145
Q

nondisjuction

A

uneven separation of chromosomes
can lead trisomy or monosomy

146
Q

necrosis

A

caspase independent Accidental cell death; does usually cause an immune response, as toxic and reactive components of the cytoplasm are released extracellularly, pathological

147
Q

DAMP

A

damage signal

148
Q

PAMP

A

pathogen signal

149
Q

autophagy

A

when the cell is stressed it may eat itself, this is a form of recycling and can be protective

150
Q

Apoptisis respose

A

no immue response

capase-dependent pathway

present in normal development

151
Q

coagulative necrosis

A

increase fiber
decreased enzymatic action

a firm tissue

152
Q

liquefactive necrosis

A
  • a more fluid tissue, produced when the dominant response is of neutrophils.
    -↓fiber ↑ enzyme
  • happens mostly in the
    brain b/c there are no fibroblasts
153
Q

caseous necrosis

A

balanced response of macrophages, neutrophils, and lymphocytes

Intermediate between
liquefactive and Coagulative
- happens alot In the lungs

154
Q

fat necrosis

A

when adipose (fat) tissue becomes necrotic, lipids and lipases dominate the space

155
Q

fibrinoid necrosis

A

necrosis due to immune reactions within the bloodstream initiates deposits similar to those produced by blood clotting. Fibrin is the major structural
protein of a blood clot. Precipitation of fibrin protein ; if chronic may become calcified

156
Q

gangrenous necrosis

A

necrosis of a chunk of tissue too large to be resolved either by the immune response or by scarring.Involvement of all tissue types

157
Q

where can you find stratified cuboidal epithelia?

A

ducts of the sweat glands

158
Q

where can you find stratified columnar epithelia?

A

inner eyelid

159
Q

Where can you find pseudostratified epithelia?

A

respiratory sytem

160
Q

Where can you find transitional epithelia?

A

Urinary system

161
Q

what type of epithelium is this and where does it belong?

A

simple columnar epithelium
sweat glands

162
Q

what type of epithelium is this and where does it belong?

A

ducts of sweat glands
stratified cuboidal epithelium

163
Q

what type of epithelium is this and where does it belong?

A

pseudostratified epithelium
respiratory

164
Q

what type of epithelium is this and where does it belong?

A

Transitional epithelium
urinary system

165
Q

what are umbrella cells?

A

dome shaped cell in the top layer of transitional epithelium. they confine urine to the lumen and contain vesicles

166
Q

metaplasia

A

is the transformation (over time) of one epithelial type into another

167
Q

dysplasia

A

when the epithelium changes in an non constructive way

168
Q

hyperplasia

A

abnormal proliferation of cell

169
Q

oropharyngeal membrane

A

Located at the cranial/cephalic end of the developing embryo. Temporary boundary between the oral cavity and the foregut, the oropharyngeal membrane is formed by the fusion of endoderm and ectoderm (there is no mesoderm between these two layers). The oropharyangeal membrane breaks down by day 26 of development.

170
Q

cloacal membrane

A

The ectoderm/endoderm membrane that separates the upper part of the anal canal from the external environment at the caudal aspect of the developing embryo.

171
Q

prechordal plate

A

collection of mesoderm cells located between the oropharyngeal membrane and cranial end of the notochord. These cells are important in forebrain induction and possibly contribute to the connective tissue of the head and neck region.

172
Q

surface ectoderm

A

Derived from epithelium lining of the amniotic cavity that gives rise to the epidermis, hair, nails and sweat glands

173
Q

neuroectoderm

A

rises from the neural plate to give rise to (partial list) all neurons in the brain and spinal cord, retina, pineal gland,

174
Q

what does the mesoderm form

A

muscle, connective tissue, dermis, cartilage and bone, endothelium, kidney, adrenal cortex

175
Q

what sections in the mesoderm further divided into?

A

paraxial mesoderm, intermediate mesoderm, lateral mesoderm

176
Q

what organs does the endoderm give rise to?

A

lining of GI tract, trachea, bronchi, lungs, and parenchymal cells of liver, gallbladder and pancreas

177
Q

notochord

A

A solid cord of cells that underlies the developing neural tube forming a midline axis and serves as a basis for the axial skeleton. The notochord is important for inducing the neural plate and the scelerotome portion of the somite that will form the vertebral column.

178
Q

neural crest cells

A

cells derived from neuroepithelium found at the “crest” of the neural folds during neural tube development. Migrate through body

179
Q

what do somites form?

A

bone of the axial skeleton, muscle of the back and body wall, and dermis of the back

180
Q

foregut

A

Part of the gut tube beginning caudal to the pharynx

181
Q

Mid gut

A

The part of the gut tube extending from distal to the liver bud to the proximal two-thirds of the transverse colon

182
Q

hindgut

A

gut tube extending from the distal one third of the transverse colon to the upper portion of the anal canal.

183
Q

coelomic cavity

A

The body cavity formed at the apical surface of mesothelium

184
Q

what happens if the notochord is removed?

A

the spine and brain don’t develop properly

185
Q

Neuroepithelium

A

cell of the neural plate

186
Q

How does neurulation take place

A

-edges thicken + form neural folds
U - shaped neural groove forms in center
-Neural folds fuse in mid - line
-The neural crest migrate from neural tube
-The remaining ectoderm differentiates Into epidermis layer

187
Q

when do both neuropores close?

A

the cranial neuropore closes at day 24 and the caudal neuropore closes at day 26

188
Q

where are the neural crest cells derived from and what is their method of differentiation?

A

derived from ectoderm
migrate from site of origin & undergo
ectodermal to mesenchymal differention

189
Q

when is the rudimentary central nervous system in place?

A

end of week 4

190
Q

what are the two types of ectoderm?

A

surface ectoderm
neural ectoderm

191
Q

what does the surface ectoderm give rise to?

A

epidermis, nails, hair, etc

192
Q

what does the neural ectoderm give rise to?

A

central nervous system

193
Q

when is the mesoderm further divided into ( start closest to neural tube and out

A

Paraxial mesoderm → intermediate mesoderm→ Lateral plate mesoderm

194
Q

what direction do the somites develop?

A

cranial to caudal

195
Q

how is the paraxial mesoderm further broken up?

A

sclerotome, myotome, dermatome

196
Q

paraxial mesoderm

A

organizes into somites on each side

197
Q

what does the sclerotome develop into?

A

axial skeleton

198
Q

What tissue does the myotome develop into?

A

skeletal muscle of the entire body

199
Q

what does the dermatome develop into?

A

Dermis/connective tissue

200
Q

what does the intermediate mesoderm give rise to?

A

gives rise to the urinary system and genital system

201
Q

what does the lateral-plate mesoderm give rise to?

A

→ Somatic (parietal): forms body wall w/ ectoderm; forms mesothelium of body wall

→ Splanchnic (visceral): forms gut wall w/ endoderm;
forms mesothelium of organ

202
Q

what does parietal mean?

A

In relation to body wall

203
Q

What does Visceral mean?

A

in relation to organ

204
Q

What are the two planes of body folding?

A
  • Transverse( lateral body told)
    -Longitudinal (cranial to caudal)
205
Q

why is folding important

A

places structures in adult anatomical position

206
Q

what does the endoderm further form?

A

foregut, midgut, and hindgut

207
Q

The initial single intraembryonic body cavity will give rise
to which three body cavities?

A

-
pleural cavity
-
pericardial cavity
-
peritoneal cavity

208
Q

Gastroschsis

A

-Occurs when ventral body wall Closure fails
- Intestinal loop herniates into the amniotic
-usually occurs right of umbilicus
- uptrend in prevalence

209
Q

What is this and why is it special?

A

Fetal Red blood cells
have a nucleus and more spherical

210
Q

what rate do somites form?

A

1 per every 5 hours

211
Q

label somite

A
212
Q

rostral

A

towards nose

COT (8 decks)

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