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CSP > Quiz #21 > Flashcards

Quiz #21 Flashcards

1
Q

According to DB 18-14 Fentanyl - Exposure Hazards and Incident Management, the United States Drug Enforcement Agency (DEA) has estimated that as little as _____ milligrams of illicit fentanyl may be enough to cause respiratory depression, respiratory arrest, and/or possible death.

A

2-3 milligrams

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2
Q

DB 18-14 Fentanyl - Exposure Hazards and Incident Management states that at a minimum, _________________________ should be worn when attending to a patient with signs or symptoms of opioid overdose.

A

nitrile gloves, eye protection, and P-100 mask

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3
Q

According to DB 18-14 Fentanyl - Exposure Hazards and Incident Management, due to the extreme potency of illicit fentanyl, repeated dosages of _____________ may be required to restore normal body function.

A

naloxone

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4
Q

TB #184 Lund University Cardia Arrest System (LUCAS) states that the LUCAS is indicated for acute cardiac arrest involving patients > ______ years old.

A

14 years old

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5
Q

According to TB #184 Lund University Cardia Arrest System (LUCAS) the LUCAS is a(n) _____________ device that provides continuous chest compressions with consistent rate and depth to maximize cardiac output during resuscitation.

A

mechanical

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6
Q

According to TB #184 Lund University Cardia Arrest System (LUCAS) the lower edge of the suction cup should touch immediately _______________

A

above the Xyphoid Process

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7
Q

According to TB #184 Lund University Cardia Arrest System (LUCAS) the ___________________ shall retrieve the LUCAS device from the receiving hospital, clean and ready the equipment for the next patient.

A

EMS Battalion Captain

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8
Q

According to TB #141 Continuous Positive Airway Pressure, CPAP is contraindicated and shall not be used on patient less than _____ years old.

A

15 years old

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9
Q

According to TB #141 Continuous Positive Airway Pressure, set oxygen flow to ____ liters per minute (LPM), which delivers CPAP of 5 cm of water pressure.

A

15 liters

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10
Q

TB #53 Air Ambulance states that the Rescue Helicopter is typically configured to transport up to ________ un-injured victims to a safe location.

A

5

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11
Q

According to TB #53 Air Ambulance, two basic methods of aerial evacuation include:

A

direct loading and hoist operation

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12
Q

According to TB #53 Air Ambulance, the suggested minimum landing area dimension is ____ feet by _____ feet.

A

100; 100

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13
Q

According to TB #53 Air Ambulance all members at the landing zone shall don the appropriate PPE consisting of:

A

eye/ear protection, helmet, and turnouts

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14
Q

TB #53 Air Ambulance states that the tail rotor is the greatest hazard to personnel on the ground. Turning ________ times faster than the main rotor.

A

six

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15
Q

According to TB #53 Air Ambulance the aircraft can receive patients on either side; however, the _____________ is preferred at a ___-degree approach.

A

the right side; 90

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16
Q

According to TB #53 it is desirable that the designated LZ afford the helicopter the opportunity to make shallow approaches and departures at an angle of ____ to ____ degrees free of obstructions.

A

20; 25

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17
Q

According to Book #35 EMS Field Manual, the initial scene assessment include all the following:

A

safety (BSI precautions/PPE)
mechanism of injury
number of patients
environment

18
Q

Book #35 EMS Field Manual states that during an initial assessment skin signs are evaluated for

A

color, temperature, moisture

19
Q

According to Book #35 EMS Field Manual the mnemonic D-C-A-P B-T-L-S the “C” stands for…

A

contusion

20
Q

According to Book #35 EMS Field Manual the “M” in the mnemonic S-A-M-P-L-E stands for

A

medications

21
Q

Book #35 EMS Field Manual states that focused exams for stable patients should be every ___ minutes.

A

15 minutes

22
Q

Book #35 EMS Field Manual states that when performing the START System a patient with a respiration rate great than 30 per minute will be placed in the _________ category.

A

immediate

23
Q

According to Book #35 EMS Field Manual the GCS is required to assess neurological status on all patients greater than ____________ of age.

A

12 months

24
Q

Book #35 EMS Field Manual states that an adult will get a 3 on the GCS scale for motor response if they demonstrate the following:

A

flexion

25
Q

According to Book #35 EMS Field Manual the lowest score a member can get on the GCS scale is a

A

3

26
Q

Book #35 EMS Field Manual states that in order for abuse to constitute elder abuse, the person must be _____ years or older.

A

65

27
Q

Book #35 EMS Field Manual states that when a patient is determined to be dead using Reference 814 and only rigor and/or lividity is present other steps must be performed which include auscultating the apical pulse for a minimum of _____ seconds.

A

60 seconds

28
Q

According to Book #35 EMS Field Manual, when following the EMS SOG’s, the “C” person is responsible for

A

circulation

29
Q

According to Book #35 EMS Field Manual, the EMS size-up shall include:

A

age and gender
address/approach
chief complaint
level of distress

30
Q

According to Book #35 EMS Field Manual, during a cardiac arrest the rated member (AO or Engineer) is responsible for

A

assist with IV line preparation

31
Q

According to Book #35 EMS Field Manual the abbreviation for “By Mouth” is

A

PO

32
Q

According to DB 19-14 - MANAGING CONFLICTS AND DISAGREEMENTS IN THE WORK ENVIRONMENT, the _________________ serves as the Department’s Personnel Officer/Designee and will make appropriate notification to Medical Services Division for the Workplace Assessment

A

Risk Management Section Battalion Chief

33
Q

According to DB 21-04 - PROGRESSIVE ENGAGEMENT IN PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT, how long is the Notice to Improve Performance retained for?

A

until the deficiency is corrected

34
Q

According to DB 18-04 - WORKPLACE VIOLENCE AWARENESS INFORMATION, if the person is simply argumentative or making verbal threats against members or bystanders, place a “______________” call to Metro Fire Communications (MFC) and stand by for the Los Angeles Police Department (LAPD).

A

Back up the Fire Department

35
Q

According to the Substance Abuse Policy (1989), the Supervisor’s Report of Employee’s Physical Characteristics/Behavior is the F-______

A

3000

36
Q

According to Book #71, CISD stands for

A

Critical Incident Stress Debriefing

37
Q

According to DB No. 15-17 - RESPONSIBILITIES OF OFFICERS TO TRAIN AND COUNSEL, Training may require a company to request CAV time through _______ and ________

A

BC and Bureau Office

38
Q

According to Volume 2, A floating holiday cannot be utilized on the following days EXCEPT:

Christmas Eve and Christmas
New Years Eve and New Years
Easter
Halloween
Thanksgiving

A

Halloween

39
Q

According to Volume 2, The rater shall forward the report to the immediate superior _________ prior to member’s anniversary date in present rank or grade

A

45 days

40
Q

According to Volume 2, Every injury must be reported to your supervisor promptly; if you fail to do so, you may lose your rights to Workers’ Compensation. The supervisor shall promptly take action to provide necessary treatment and protect the employees’ rights. Supervisors shall provide the employee, within ___________, with the State DWC Form 1. A supervisor should give this form to the injured employee as soon as medical treatment is sought. The form must be completed and forwarded, in addition to the 5020, whenever the member receives medical treatment.

A

24 hours or 1 business day

41
Q

According to Volume 2, Nightwear attire may be worn outside of quarters after __________ or on responses when donning of the prescribed uniform would be impractical, i.e., a member in the shower, engaged in physical fitness, etc. In these instances, nightwear is intended to be an alternative to the brush jacket or turnout coat when they are not specifically required (e.g., EMS incidents).

A

2000 hours

42
Q

According to Volume 2, Turnout Pants shall be worn when responding to:

A

All reported fires except: brush or grass fires not involving structures
Hazardous materials incidents
All automatic alarms

CSP (21 decks)

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