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CSP > Quiz #12 > Flashcards

Quiz #12 Flashcards

1
Q

According to DB 19-14 - MANAGING CONFLICTS AND DISAGREEMENTS IN THE WORK ENVIRONMENT, the Fire Chief’s expectation is that all members govern their behavior through abiding by all City policies, the Department’s Core Values, Code of Conduct, and DPPH, and embrace our _____________

A

Mission Statement

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2
Q

According to DB 19-14 - MANAGING CONFLICTS AND DISAGREEMENTS IN THE WORK ENVIRONMENT, when conflicts and/or disagreements occur at the workplace that lead to disruptions in the work environment, immediate supervisors shall do all the following:

A

Direct employees to immediately cease in the engaged activity.
Attempt to resolve the issue and provide clear expectations.
Make immediate notification to their respective supervisor.
Document the incident by utilizing the Complaint Tracking System (CTS)

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3
Q

According to DB 19-14 - MANAGING CONFLICTS AND DISAGREEMENTS IN THE WORK ENVIRONMENT, when conflicts and/or disagreements occur at the workplace that lead to disruptions in the work environment, immediate supervisors shall do all the following:

A
  • All members shall be given immediate review and understanding of the Department’s zero tolerance policy toward discrimination, harassment, and retaliation as noted in the Department’s DPPH.
  • Document and journalize the dates and times of when the above recommendations have been directed or completed by the immediate supervisor.
  • Consider if the Department’s Mediation program can be of assistance
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4
Q

According to DB 19-14 - MANAGING CONFLICTS AND DISAGREEMENTS IN THE WORK ENVIRONMENT, next Level Supervisors (Battalion Chief/Section Commander) Responsibilities are to

A

ensure the incident is documented and placed into CTS.

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5
Q

According to DB 19-14 - MANAGING CONFLICTS AND DISAGREEMENTS IN THE WORK ENVIRONMENT, the _________________ serves as the Department’s Personnel Officer/Designee and will make appropriate notification to Medical Services Division for the Workplace Assessment

A

Risk Management Section Battalion Chief

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6
Q

DB 19-14 - MANAGING CONFLICTS AND DISAGREEMENTS IN THE WORK ENVIRONMENT states that with _____________, conflict resolution begins before the struggle occurs.

A

good leadership

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7
Q

DB 21-04 - PROGRESSIVE ENGAGEMENT IN PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT states that the Professional Standards Division’s (PSD) primary function is to conduct and ensure thorough investigations, consistency in the application of discipline and compliance with the provisions of the

A

California State Firefighter’s Bill of Rights

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8
Q

According to DB 21-04 - PROGRESSIVE ENGAGEMENT IN PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT the responsibility for maintaining good order falls largely on the shoulders of our _______.

A

officers

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9
Q

According to DB 21-04 - PROGRESSIVE ENGAGEMENT IN PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT, the purpose of progressive engagement and if necessary discipline, is three-fold…

A
  1. Set expectations of other members.
  2. Modify the behavior of an underperforming member.
  3. Maintain public trust in our Department.
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10
Q

According to DB 21-04 - PROGRESSIVE ENGAGEMENT IN PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT, the Manual of Operations states that, “an F-_____ Notice to Improve Performance is appropriate when a deficiency has been observed in a member’s appearance, attitude, work habits, performance or actions.”

A

1104

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11
Q

According to DB 21-04 - PROGRESSIVE ENGAGEMENT IN PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT, how long is the Notice to Improve Performance retained for?

A

until the deficiency is corrected

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12
Q

DB 21-04 - PROGRESSIVE ENGAGEMENT IN PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT states that the _____________ keeps the original Notice to Improve Performance.

A

member

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13
Q

DB 21-04 - PROGRESSIVE ENGAGEMENT IN PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT states that ____________ creates the Reprimand.

A

Professional Standards Division

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14
Q

According to DB 21-04 - PROGRESSIVE ENGAGEMENT IN PERSONNEL MANAGEMENT, what is the step 2 of progressive engagement?

A

Formal Counseling/Training

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15
Q

According to DB 19-07 - DIRECT LINE OF SUPERVISION CONFLICTS OF INTEREST, should any scheduled transfer or current assignment place a supervisor in a rating or reviewing role to a member in one of the above relationships, the supervisor shall inform his or her immediate supervisor in writing as soon as they become aware. The notification may be in the form of _________

A

an F-223

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16
Q

According to DB 18-04 - WORKPLACE VIOLENCE AWARENESS INFORMATION, workplace violence against an employee by a present or former employee, supervisor, or manager is categorized as

A

Type 3 Violence

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17
Q

According to DB 18-04 - WORKPLACE VIOLENCE AWARENESS INFORMATION, employees must use caution when dealing with upset individuals. Some techniques that can be utilized to calm a hostile person include all the following:

A

use empathy
listen actively
stay calm
don’t patronize

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18
Q

According to DB 18-04 - WORKPLACE VIOLENCE AWARENESS INFORMATION, if the person is simply argumentative or making verbal threats against members or bystanders, place a “______________” call to Metro Fire Communications (MFC) and stand by for the Los Angeles Police Department (LAPD).

A

Back up the Fire Department

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19
Q

According to DB 18-04 - WORKPLACE VIOLENCE AWARENESS INFORMATION, the LAFD’s Workplace Violence Coordinator is the Battalion Chief assigned to _______________

A

the Risk Management Section

20
Q

According to DB 18-04 - WORKPLACE VIOLENCE AWARENESS INFORMATION, the LAPD has a Threat Management Unit that can determine if an employee is a danger to themselves or others and has the ability to institute a ___-hour hold.

A

72

21
Q

DB 18-12 - BEHAVIORAL HEALTH AWARENESS states that members should prioritize sleep at a minimum of_____ hours per night.

A

7-8

22
Q

DB 18-12 - BEHAVIORAL HEALTH AWARENESS states that critical incidents are a component of the firefighting profession. Research suggests that it is not the trauma itself that leads to negative outcomes, but the __________ of the event

A

interpretation

23
Q

According to DB 18-12 - BEHAVIORAL HEALTH AWARENESS life balance and satisfaction are achieved through _______________

A

emotional intelligence and proactive coping.

24
Q

According to TB #097, THE KEY TO EFFECTIVE COMMUNICATION, the message that we send to others is often _________ percent non-verbal or “body language.”

A

50 to 60

25
Q

According to TB #097, THE KEY TO EFFECTIVE COMMUNICATION, it has been shown that an intimate distance reserved for only loved ones is between…

A

6 to 18 inches

26
Q

TB #097, THE KEY TO EFFECTIVE COMMUNICATION states that experts have broken non-verbal communication into five categories:

A

Voice, Body, Object, Space & Time Signals

27
Q

TB #097 THE KEY TO EFFECTIVE COMMUNICATION suggests that one of the most effective methods to get people to comply is by…

A

using verbal judo

28
Q

According to the Substance Abuse Policy (1989) the most common court challenge to substance abuse testing programs is that these programs could constitute an unreasonable search and seizure prohibited by the ____________ Amendment

A

Fourth

29
Q

Substance Abuse Policy (1989) states that the courts have identified a term called “_______________” to determine when substance abuse testing is justified.

A

reasonable suspicion

30
Q

According to the Substance Abuse Policy (1989) Department members will be considered impaired and unable to perform their duties in a safe manner if an alcohol level is at a level as low as ___%.

A

.01

31
Q

Substance Abuse Policy (1989) states that the cocaine “rush” or “flash” of intense euphoria lasts ____ to _____ minutes with a lesser euphoria that lasts three to four hours.

A

5; 15

32
Q

Substance Abuse Policy (1989) states that cocaine is used in one of four ways…

A

swallowed
intravenous injection
sniffing
inhalation

33
Q

According to the Substance Abuse Policy (1989), when there is reasonable suspicion that the member has used an illegal/controlled substance or is under the influence of alcohol on duty the suspected member will…

A

not be left alone at this point and shall not respond to emergency incidents.

34
Q

According to the Substance Abuse Policy (1989), reasonable suspicion is defined as…

A

The degree of perception that would lead an ordinary, prudent and cautious person to believe, based on circumstances that a suspect has ingested a controlled substance.

35
Q

According to the Substance Abuse Policy (1989), the Supervisor’s Report of Employee’s Physical Characteristics/Behavior is the F-______

A

3000

36
Q

According to the Substance Abuse Policy (1989), if the employee refuses the order to provide the urine sample, direct the employee to write their answers to Questions 4 and 5 on the F-______.

A

3001

37
Q

According to the Substance Abuse Policy (1989), if the employee voluntarily provides a urine sample, have employee and witnesses sign the F-______

A

3002

38
Q

According to Book #71, how many phases are there in the Critical Incident Stress Debriefing Program?

A

5

39
Q

Book #71 states that formal debriefing should optimally occur ____________ after the occurrence.

A

24 to 72 hours

40
Q

Book #71 defines homeostasis as…

A

a person’s natural tendency to maintain his/her environment within normal limits.

41
Q

According to Book #71, formal defusing should last no longer than ________, but varies due to the number of employees.

A

1 hour

42
Q

According to Book #71, CISD stands for?

A

Critical Incident Stress Debriefing

43
Q

According to TB 099 - River Rescue - First Responder, INFLATED FIRE HOSE, The preferred hose for this evolution is ___________ (maximum) of 2-1/2 inch firefighting hose and The ideal inflation pressure is ________ psi

A

50’-100’ and 50-60 PSI

44
Q

TB 116 - Metro Heavy Rail Lines states in the event of any possible tunnel evacuation, there are a total of 93 cross passages staggered at approximately ____-foot intervals throughout the tunnel.

A

750

45
Q

Book #30, Command Procedures, Incident Command terminology is required anytime a category ___ assignment is held to work at an incident

A

B

46
Q

According to TB #135 Fire Department Operations at Tactical Law Enforcement Incidents, as a minimum, a Rescue Task Force shall have _____ fire department medical personnel and _____ force protection officers. When possible, RTFs should incorporate a paramedic.

A

two; two

CSP (21 decks)

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