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Pharmacology > Quiz 2 Study Guide Questions > Flashcards

Quiz 2 Study Guide Questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the Patient teaching for a patient taking SSRI such as Fluoxetine?

A

1) Headaches
2) Dizziness
3) Drowsiness
4) Insomnia
5) Anxiety
6) Weakness
7) Abnormal dreams
8) Dry mouth
9) Erectile dysfunction
10) Peripheral edema
11) Constipation
12) Diarrhea

Take fluoxetine exactly as directed. Do not take more or less of it or take it more often than prescribed by your doctor. Swallow the delayed-release capsules whole; do not cut, crush, or chew them. The doctor may start on a low dose of fluoxetine and gradually increase the dose.

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2
Q

What foods interact with MAOIs?

A

Food that contains tryamine;

1)Aged cheese (cheddar,swiss,bleu)
2)Cream
3)Yogurt
4)Coffee
5)Chocolate
6)Bananas
7)Raisins
8)Italian green beans
9)Liver
10)Pickled foods
11)Sausage
12)Soy sauce
13)Yeast
14)Beer
15)Red wines

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3
Q

How should Amitriptyline therapy be stopped?

A

The drug should be gradually decreased to avoid withdrawal symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, anxiety, and akathisia

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4
Q

What is the patient teaching when taking Lorazepam?

A

Drowsiness, dizziness (may be transient; avoid driving or engaging in dangerous activities); GI upset (take drug with food); nocturnal sleep disturbances for several nights after discontinuing the drug if used as a sedative and hypnotic; depression, dreams, emotional upset, crying ???

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5
Q

What are the signs and symptoms that requires an anticholinergic when a patient is taking Fluphenazine?

A

Anticholinergic effects (dry mouth, blurred vision, constipation, dizziness, decreased sweating, difficulty urinating) ???

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6
Q

Why is a patient at risk for injury when taking Risperidone?

A

Due to orthostatic hypotension

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7
Q

What to assess the patient for who is diagnosed with Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS)?

A

You asses for:

1) Increased fever
2) Pulse
3) Blood pressure
4) Muscle rigidity
5) Increased creatine phosphokinase & White blood cell count
6) Altered mental status
7) Pallor
8) Acute renal failure
9) Varying levels of consciousness
10) Diaphoresis
11) Tachycardia
12) Dysrhythmias

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8
Q

What is the normal serum level for Lithium?

A

The normal serum therapeutic range of 0.8 to 1.2 mEq/L

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9
Q

What is the normal level for Cholesterol?

A

150-200 mg/dL

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10
Q

What is the normal level for LDL?

A

<100

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11
Q

What is the normal level for HDL?

A

> 60

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12
Q

What adverse reactions must be monitored when a patient is taking Atorvastatin?

A

1) Rhabdomyolysis (rare)
2) Tendon rupture hyperglycemia
3) Diabetes mellitus

Life threatening:

1) Hepatic/renal failure
2) Hemorrhagic stroke
3) Leukopenia
4) Hemolytic anemia
5) Thrombocytopenia

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13
Q

What must the patient taking furosemide be assessed for?

A

The patient’s fluid and electrolyte status, blood urea nitrogen (BUN), and creatinine must be carefully assessed before and after furosemide administration, including auscultation of breath sounds for rales, strict surveillance of intake and output, and review of lab data when available.

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14
Q

What is the best treatment for increased intracranial pressure?

A

Increased ICP should include sedation, drainage of CSF, and osmotherapy with either mannitol or hypertonic saline.

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15
Q

What type of hormone is Aldosterone?

A

Mineralocorticoids.

Help regulate the balance of water and electrolytes (ions such as sodium and potassium) in the body

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16
Q

What are the drugs that are Angiotensin II receptor blockers?

A

1) Losartan potassium
2) Olmesartan medoxmil
3) Telmisartan
4) Valsartan
5) Azilsartan
6) Nebivolo- valsartan
7) Candesartan
8) Eprosartan
9) Irbesartan

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17
Q

What is the drug classification for Clopidogrel?

A

Antiplatelet

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18
Q

What is the drug classification for ASA?

A

Nonsteroidal Anti-inflammatory Drugs (NSAIDs)

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19
Q

What to monitor for a patient who is receiving Alteplase Tpa?

A

Monitor for signs of allergic reactions to thrombolytics, such as itching, hives, flushing, fever, dyspnea, bronchospasm, hypotension, and/or cardiovascular collapse

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20
Q

What is the antidote for Heparin?

A

Protamine sulfate

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21
Q

What is the best IV solution to be given with blood transfusion?

A

Normal saline???

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22
Q

What are the side effects of blood transfusion?

A

For patients receiving multiple blood transfusions, the serum ionized calcium level should be monitored.

Can result in a decrease in plasma calcium levels

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23
Q

Which statement about amitriptyline does the nurse identify as being true?

A

The drug should be discontinued slowly.

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24
Q

A patient with reactive depression is ordered to receive fluoxetine. Which information will the nurse include when teaching this patient?

A. The medication takes effect in 1 to 2 days.
B. The medication increases libido.
C. The medication should be taken with grapefruit juice.
D. The medication may cause headaches and insomnia.

A

D. he medication may cause headaches and insomnia.

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25
Q

Before administering a monoamine oxidase inhibitor, what is most important for the nurse to assess regarding the patient?

A. Sexual history
B. Socioeconomic status
C. Tyramine food intake
D. Hydration status

A

C. Tyramine food intake

26
Q

When providing dietary teaching for a patient taking monoamine oxidase inhibitors, the nurse should teach the patient to avoid which food?

A. Cheddar cheese
B. Avocado
C. Grapefruit
D. Potato chips

A

A. Cheddar cheese

27
Q

The nurse realizes more medication teaching is necessary when the 30-year-old patient taking lorazepam states which of the following?

A. “I must stop drinking coffee and colas.”
B. “I can stop this drug after 3 weeks if I feel better.”
C. “I must stop drinking alcoholic beverages.”
D. “I should not become pregnant while taking this drug.”

A

B. “I can stop this drug after 3 weeks if I feel better.”

28
Q

A young woman is being treated for psychosis with fluphenazine. Which sign would indicate the need to add an anticholinergic to the patient’s medication regimen?

A. A decrease in pulse and respiratory rate
B. Facial grimacing and tongue spasms
C. An increase in hallucinations
D. A decrease in the patient’s level of orientation

A

B. Facial grimacing and tongue spasms

29
Q

A patient on risperidone may be at increased risk for injury due to which of the following?

A. Increased potential for aspiration due to sedation
B. Increased risk for falls due to orthostatic hypotension
C. Increased risk for infection due to neutropenia
D. Increased risk for suicide due to changes in thought processes

A

B. Increased risk for falls due to orthostatic hypotension

30
Q

Assessment findings for a patient with neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) include which of the following?

A. Bradycardia
B. Hypothermia
C. Muscle weakness
D. Rhabdomyolysis

A

D. Rhabdomyolysis

31
Q

Which statement by a patient indicates that more teaching on phenothiazine therapy for the treatment of psychosis is needed?

A. “It might take 6 weeks or more for the drug to take effect.”
B. “I will get up slowly from a seated position.”
C. “When I start to feel better, I will cut the dose of my medication in half.”
D. “I will avoid exposure to direct sunlight.”

A

C. “When I start to feel better, I will cut the dose of my medication in half.”

32
Q

A patient’s serum lipids are cholesterol 197 mg/dL, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) 110 mg/dL, and high-density lipoprotein (HDL) 35 mg/dL. What should the nurse conclude about these values?

A. Serum lipids are within desirable values.
B. Cholesterol is within desirable value, but LDL and HDL are not.
C. Cholesterol is not within desirable value, though LDL and HDL are.
D. Cholesterol, LDL, and HDL are not within desirable values.

A

B. Cholesterol is within desirable value, but LDL and HDL are not.

33
Q

A nurse who is administering atorvastatin realizes the importance of monitoring for which serious adverse reaction?

A. Pharyngitis
B. Rash/pruritus
C. Rhabdomyolysis
D. Agranulocytosis

A

C. Rhabdomyolysis

34
Q

A patient is scheduled to receive gemfibrozil. It is most important for the nurse to assess for concurrent use of which medication?

A. Acetaminophen
B. Ibuprofen
C. Warfarin
D. Folic acid

A

C. Warfarin

35
Q

A patient is receiving medication therapy for peripheral vascular disease. Which medication does the nurse identify as an antiplatelet drug?

A. Cilostazol
B.Papaverine
C. Prazosin
D. Nifedipine

A

A. Cilostazol

36
Q

Which herb is most often associated with the treatment of intermittent claudication?

A. Ginseng
B. Valerian
C. St. John’s wort
D. Ginkgo biloba

A

D. Ginkgo biloba

37
Q

A patient is taking furosemide 40 mg daily for heart failure and hypertension. What is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for the development of?

A. Low serum potassium, sodium, and magnesium, and elevated calcium
B. Low serum potassium and sodium, and elevated magnesium and calcium
C. Low serum potassium, sodium, magnesium, and calcium
D. Low serum potassium and sodium, with magnesium and calcium remaining normal

A

C. Low serum potassium, sodium, magnesium, and calcium

38
Q

Which statement will the nurse include when teaching a patient about loop diuretics?

A. Take the medication at bedtime.
B.Take the medication on an empty stomach.
C. Rise slowly from a lying or sitting to standing position to prevent dizziness.
D. Avoid fruit and vegetables in the diet.

A

C. Rise slowly from a lying or sitting to standing position to prevent dizziness.

39
Q

A patient is admitted to the intensive care unit with increased intracranial pressure. Which of the following does the nurse would anticipate administering?

A. Furosemide
B. Mannitol
C. Triamterene
D. Spironolactone

A

B. Mannitol

40
Q

A patient is receiving furosemide. What is most important for the nurse to monitor the patient for the development of?

A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hyponatremia
D. Hypernatremia

A

B. Hypokalemia

41
Q

A patient with congestive heart failure gains 5 pounds in 1 week. Which of the following most indicates a fluid weight gain of 5 pounds?

A. ½ L.
B. 1 L.
C. 2 L.
D. 3 L.

A

C. 2 L.

42
Q

Which statement about aldosterone does the nurse identify as being true?

A. Aldosterone promotes sodium excretion.
B. Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid hormone.
C. Aldosterone promotes potassium retention.
D. Aldosterone is secreted by the pancreas.

A

B. Is a mineralocorticoid hormone

43
Q

A patient with chronic glaucoma is most likely to receive which drug?

A. A thiazide diuretic
B. A loop diuretic
C. A potassium-sparing diuretic
D. A carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

A

D. A carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

44
Q

A patient’s blood pressure (BP) is 128/82 mm Hg. Which of the following stages does the nurse place this BP?

A. within the normal BP range.
B. within the elevated BP range.
C. indicating stage 1 hypertension.
D. indicating stage 2 hypertension.

A

A. Within the elevated BP range

45
Q

A patient is receiving an angiotensin II receptor blocker. Which does the nurse recognize as an angiotensin II receptor blocker?

A. Valsartan
B. Amlodipine
C. Captopril
D. Metoprolol

A

A. Valsartan

46
Q

A patient is receiving an angiotensin II receptor blocker. Which of the following is most important for the nurse to assess the patient?

A. Constipation
B. Tremors
C. Asthmatic attacks
D. Dizziness

A

D. Dizziness

47
Q

An African-American patient is to be treated with initial monotherapy to control hypertension. Which of the following does the nurse expects the patient to receive?

A. Diuretics
B. Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
C. Alpha-adrenergic blockers
D. Beta blockers

A

C. Alpha-adrenergic blockers

48
Q

The nurse should instruct a patient to tapper off medication gradually and not suddenly stop taking antihypertensives in order to avoid which of the following?

A. Rebound bradycardia
B. Rebound tachycardia
C. Rebound hypertension
D. Rebound hypotension

A

C. Rebound hypertension

49
Q

A patient with hypertension is ordered to receive an angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor. Which of the following does the nurse identify as a common benign side effect of this drug category?

A. Hiccups
B. Flatulence
C. Abdominal distention
D. Dry cough

A

D. Dry cough

50
Q

Before administering the alpha-adrenergic blocker prazosin, which of the following is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for a history of?

A. Renal disease
B. Refractory heart failure
C. Hypertension
D. Benign prostatic hypertrophy.

A

A. Renal disease

51
Q

A patient is prescribed aspirin, 81 mg, and clopidogrel. Which of the following drug classifications does the nurse identify for clopidogrel?

A. Anticoagulant
B. Thrombotic inhibitor
C. Antiplatelet
D. Thrombolytic

A

C. Antiplatelet

52
Q

A patient arrived in the emergency department 2 hours after an acute ischemic stroke. The patient is given an intravenous (IV) injection of alteplase tPA. What is most important for the nurse to monitor? (Select all that apply.)

A. Bleeding
B. Vital signs
C. PT levels
D. Allergic reactions
E. Electrocardiogram

A

ANS: A,B,D,E

A. Bleeding
B. Vital signs
D. Allergic reactions
E. Electrocardiogram

53
Q

Which information will the nurse include when teaching a patient about warfarin therapy?

A.Increase the amount of green, leafy vegetables in your diet.
B. Rinse your mouth instead of brushing your teeth.
C. Follow up with laboratory tests such as PT or INR to regulate warfarin dose.
D. Use a new razor blade each time you shave.

A

C. Follow up with laboratory tests such as PT or INR to regulate warfarin dose.

54
Q

A patient is on heparin therapy secondary to deep vein thromboses. The nurse has which medication on hand as an antidote in case it is needed?

A. Vitamin K
B. Protamine sulfate
C. Warfarin
D. Aminocaproic acid

A

B. Protamine sulfate

55
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient who received alteplase tPA for treatment of acute coronary syndrome. The patient starts to bleed. The nurse anticipates administration of which medication?

A. Protamine sulfate
B. Vitamin K
C. Warfarin
D. Aminocaproic acid

A

D. Aminocaproic acid

56
Q

A patient is receiving an expectorant. What symptom indicates to the nurse that the drug is exerting its therapeutic effect?

A. Bronchodilation.
B. Decreased coughing.
C. Loosening of bronchial secretions.
D. Relief of nasal congestion.

A

C. loosening of bronchial secretions.

57
Q

The nurse is teaching an older adult patient about guaifenesin. Which information is appropriate to include in this teaching? (Select all that apply.)

A. Take the drug with a glass of water.
B. Read labels on over-the-counter drugs and check with health care provider before taking cold remedies.
C. Take the drug at bedtime.
D. Advise patient to contact health care provider if cough persists more than 2 days.

A

ANS: A,B

A. Take the drug with a glass of water.
B. Read labels on over-the-counter drugs and check with health care provider before taking cold remedies.

58
Q

A patient has been diagnosed with the common cold. Which drug should the nurse question if it is ordered to treat this patient?

A. Antihistamines
B. Antitussives
C. Expectorants
D. Antibiotics

A

D. Antibiotics

59
Q

Which medication is a first-generation antihistamine?

A. Cetirizine
B. Fexofenadine
C. Diphenhydramine
D. Loratadine

A

C. Diphenhydramine

60
Q

When teaching a patient about use of nasal decongestant sprays, the nurse informs the patient that they are most effective and less likely to lead to rebound congestion when administered for how many days?

A. 3 days
B. 10 days
C. 14 days
D. 20 days

A

A. 3 days

Pharmacology (8 decks)

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