Final Exam in Class Review Questions Flashcards
A patient with nausea is taking ondansetron. She asks the nurse how this drug works. The nurse is aware that this medication has which action?
a. Enhances histamine 1 receptor sites
b. Blocks serotonin receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone
c. Blocks dopamine receptors in the chemoreceptor trigger zone
d. Stimulates anticholinergic receptor sites
B. The CT contains receptors that detect emetic agents in the blood and relays that information to the vomiting center, which is responsible for inducing the vomiting reflex.
Ondansetron has been ordered for the patient undergoing cancer chemotherapy to control the severe nausea and vomiting. What side effects should the nurse observe for?
A. Headache, dizziness, and fatigue
B. Anorexia and hair loss
C. Abdominal cramping and irritability
D. Psychosis and middle ear disturbances
A. Headache, dizziness, and fatigue
What are the predisposing factors related to peptic ulcers?
Mechanical disturbances, Genetic influences, Environmental influences, Helicobacter pylori, Drugs
Bisacodyl has been ordered for a patient who is constipated. Which of the following does the nurse realizes about bisacodyl?
A. Increases peristalsis to produce a bowel movement
B. Is incompatible with alcohol consumption
c. Should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic
D. May lead to paralytic ileus
A. Increases peristalsis to produce a bowel movement
A patient is ordered bisacodyl. Before administering the drug, it is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for what?
A. Hypertension
B. Anemia
C. Allergy to penicillin
D. Appendicitis
D. Appendicitis
Which statement will the nurse include when teaching a patient about cephalosporin
therapy?
A. “Avoid ingesting buttermilk or yogurt when taking this medication.”
“Stop taking the medication when you feel better.”
C. “Immediately stop taking the medication if you develop nausea.
D. “Inform your health care provider if you develop mouth ulcers.
D. “Inform your health care provider if you develop
mouth ulcers.
Which antibacterial drug has the potential to cause adverse reactions of tendinitis, tendon rupture, and peripheral neuropathy?
A. Cephalosporins
B. Tetracyclines
C. Fluoroquinolones
D. Aminoglycosides
C. Fluoroquinolones
Which nursing intervention has the highest priority for the patient who is taking cefepime?
A. Wait until culture results are received before initiating antibiotic.
B. Monitor the patient for signs and symptoms of a
superinfection.
C. Administer IV over 2 hours to prevent phlebitis.
D. Instruct the patient to take the drug for 5 days only.
B. Monitor the patient for signs and symptoms of a superinfection.
A patient is receiving gentamicin therapy: 100 mg intravenously at 0800, 1600, and 2400.
At
0730, the nurse is informed that peak and trough levels need to be drawn. When is the best time to obtain the peak level?
A. 0800
B. 0900
C. 1600
D. 2330
B. 0900
Which of the following is the highest priority when teaching a patient about trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMZ)?
A. Increase fluid intake.
B. Report signs of ringing in the ears or loss of hearing.
c. Expect the color of their urine to change to a reddish orange.
D. Take this drug with dairy products or antacids to protect the stomach.
A. Increase fluid intake.
A patient has developed active tuberculosis and is prescribed isoniazid and rifampin. Which information will the nurse include in teaching the patient about taking this drug? (Select all that apply.)
A. Isoniazid should be given 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals.
B. Have periodic eye examinations as ordered by the health care provider.
C. Compliance with drug regimen is essential.
D. Report numbness, tingling, and burning of hands and feet.
E. Warn patient that rifampin may turn body fluids a harmless green color.
A. Isoniazid should be given 1 hour before or 2 hours after meals.
B. Have periodic eye examinations as ordered by the health care provider.
C. Compliance with drug regimen is essential.
D. Report numbness, tingling, and burning of hands and feet
A middle-aged adult is diagnosed with tuberculosis. Which is true of treatment for this diagnosis?
A. Treatment may take about 10 days to 2 weeks.
B. Two to three agents are usually needed.
C. The bacteria is usually resistant to treatment therapy.
D. Treatment for tuberculosis is usually without side effects.
B. Usually, two to three agents are needed.
When teaching a patient about isoniazid (INH) and rifampin drug therapy, which statement will the nurse include?
A.”Take isoniazid with meals.”
B. “Double the amount of vitamin C in your diet to prevent the peripheral neuropathy associated with isoniazid therapy.”
C. Notify the primary health care provider immediately if your urine turns a red-orange color.”
D. “Avoid exposure to direct sunlight.”
D. ‘Avoid exposure to direct sunlight.”
When a patient is diagnosed with a Candida infection in the mouth. Which drug does the nurse anticipates that the patient will be treated with?
A. Metronidazole
B. Amphotericin B
C. Isoniazid
D. Nystatin
D. Nystatin
When caring for a patient receiving amphotericin B, which is most important for the nurse to assess the patient for the development
of?
A. Hypokalemia
B. Hypernatremia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypermagnesemia
A. Hypokalemia
