Quick revise Flashcards

1
Q

Glycolysis

A

Occurs int he cytosol of cells

Glucose (C6) – > Pyruvate (2 x C3)

–> Acetyl-coA which can enter the citric acid cycle.

Net ATP gain = 2 ATP (4 produced, 2 used).

NADH plus H+ produced = 2 molecules per glucose.

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2
Q

pelvic floor muscles

A

coccygeus (back)

levator ani (lat to med)
iliococcygeus
pubococcygeus
puborectalis

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3
Q

Obesity and EC

A

LNG-EC – double dose if BMI>26 or >70kg

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4
Q

Bosentan

A

used to treat pulmonary arterial hypertension

ERA – endothelial receptor antagonist

decreases prog and eostro levels in contra

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5
Q

VTE risk and progesterones

A

Doubles the risk (9-10 in 10,000)

Baseline VTE risk = 2 in 10,000
Pregnancy & puerperium = 20 in 10,000

Lower risk progestogens (6 in 10,000)
Levonogestrel
Norethisterone
Norgestimate

Moderate risk progestogens (8 in 10,000)
Etonogestrel
Norelgestromin

Higher risk progestogens (10 in 10,000)
Desogestrel
Gestodene
Drospirenone

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6
Q

What oestrogen does zoely and qlaria use

A

oestradiol valerate

Zeoly: Nomegestrol acetate progestin
Qlaria: Dienogest progestin

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7
Q

First line COCP

A

A monophasic COC containing
20 - 35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol
norethisterone or levonorgestrel

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8
Q

Dianette components

A

Ethinylestradiol 35
Cyproterone acetate 2000

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9
Q

UKMEC Known BRCA1/2 mutation

A

CHC: UKMEC 3
All other hormonal forms UKMEC 2

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10
Q

Filshie clip

A

Titanium clip lined with silicone

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11
Q

UKMEC Hx of bariatric surgery

A

All 1 other than CHC

BMI <30 = 1
BMI 30-34 =2
BMI >34 = 3

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12
Q

UKMEC Organ transplant

A

a) Complicated: graft failure (acute or
chronic), rejection, cardiac allograft vasculopathy
Coils UKMEC 3 initiation/ 2 continuation
CHC UKMEC 3

b) Uncomplicated
UKMEC 2 for all

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13
Q

UKMEC CVD
RFs
Known dislipidaemia
Cardiomyopathy
AF
QT

A

RF multiple:
DMPA and CHC: UKMEC 3
All other methods (other than copper):UKMEC 2

Known dislipidaemia
UKMEC 2 (other than copper)

Cardiomyopathy
Normal cardiac fx: CHC UKMEC 2, all UKMEC 1
Impaired cardiac fx: CHC UKMEC 4, all UKMEC 2

AF
CHC UKMEC 4, Copper UKMEC 1, rest UKMEC 2

Known long QT
Coils UKMEC 3 initiation/ 1 continuation
DMPA and CHC UKMEC 2

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14
Q

IIH UKMEC

A

CHC 2, rest 1

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15
Q

GC VS CT infectivity

A

Single episode of UPSI

M->F spread
GC: 60-80% (40% with condom) 40/60/80
CT: 10% transmission rate (75% concordance within partners, condoms reduce by 40%)

F->M spread
GC: 20% (5% with condom)
CT: 10% same as above

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16
Q

Men symptoms and complications GC

A

Only 5-10% asymptomatic

Typical incubation of 2-5 days (up to 14)

Urethral discharge in 80%, typically profuse and purulent; dysuria in 50%

Complications are rare
(1) Infection of the median raphe (line down middle of scrotum -> perineum)
(2) Tysonitis – swollen parafrenal gland/s
(3) Meatal gland abscess / peri-urethral cellulitis/ abscess -> strictures and fistulae if left
(4) Epididymitis in <1%

Note: MSM: FVU, pharyngeal and rectal swabs all recommended even if no history of RAI

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17
Q

Women symptoms and complications GC

A

Women ~50% symptomatic vs asymptomatic

When present, symptoms usually appear within 10 days

Increased vaginal discharge, which again may be purulent, most common symptom
Dysuria without frequency, lower abdominal discomfort and less often IMB/ menorrhagia

Complications are rare
(1) Inflamed paraurethral (Skene) glands
(2) Bartholin’s abscess
(3) PID may develop in 10-20% of cases if left untreated

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18
Q

GC rectal

A

usually asymptomatic but can cause discharge (12%), pain or itching

In women: + rectal GC, + correlation with length of infection suggests transmucosal spread to rectal infection, with anal intercourse thought to be attributable in only ~10%

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19
Q

GC pharyngeal

A

asymptomatic in >90% of cases with almost 100% spontaneous clearance in 3 /12

Strongest association with disseminated infection

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20
Q

GC Conjunctival infection

A

Conjunctival infection in adults is rare and can present with purulent discharge and -> keratitis and blindness

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21
Q

GC disseminated infection

A

Occurs in <1%

4 x more likely in women, especially if recent menstruation, in pregnancy, and pharyngeal infection (which is likely to have been asymptomatic)

Skin signs in 67% - ‘gonococcal dermatitis’ – petechiae, necrotic pustules usually at extremities

Tenosynovitis in ~ 1/3 of cases -> migratory arthralgia

Rarely: endocarditis, hepatitis, meningitis

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22
Q

GC microscopy endocervical vs urethral vs proctoscopic

A

Endocervical microscopy sensitivity of only 45% - not routinely recommended for asymptomatic but should be performed if symptoms

Microscopy of urethral smears has good sensitivity for those with symptoms (95%) so is recommended -> POC diagnosis and treatment facilitation
Sensitivity less good for asymptomatic (65%) therefore not recommended here

Proctoscopy and microscopy 75% sensitivity&raquo_space;> blind swab microscopy only 40% sensitivity

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23
Q

Listeria

A

non-spore forming Facultative anaerobe

GRAM POSITIVE bacilli

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24
Q

obligate anaerobes

A

If you are asked about obligate anaerobes you are likely dealing with either:

Clostridium gram positive

Bacteroides (also called Prevotella) gram negative

Actinomyces not appropriately classified : Actinomyces mostly facultative, one strain is an obligate anaerobe

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25
Q

primordial germ cells

A

Early in development at the time of gastrulation a small group of cells are “put aside” – primordial germ cells.

The cells migrate initially through the primitive streak (at gastrulation) into the posterior endoderm that forms the hindgut

from there later into the genital ridge VIA VITILLINE DUCT that will be the site of the developing gonad.

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26
Q

whats formed from the urogenital ridge

A

from int mesoderm

Gonads
ductal system
primordial germ cells (primitive streak, ORIGIN YOLK SAC)

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27
Q

quadruple screening

A

Hcg
Quad
UE3
Inhibin A
aFP

14+3 - 20

Amniocentesis

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28
Q

comb screening

A

Comb
Hcg
Imaging
Papp A

10-14

CVS

<1:150 low risk

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29
Q

Likelihood Ratios

A

LR+ = Sensitivity / (1 - Specificity)
LR- = (1- Sensitivity) / Specificity

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30
Q

Actinomyces

A

Gram positive anaerobe

“Sulphur granules with filamentous organisms” seen on histopathology review

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31
Q

Treatment of partners of PID

A

doxycycline 100mg BD 7/7

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31
Q

first line for treatment of confirmed mycoplasma associated PID

A

moxifloxacin

current partners should also be tested +/- treated for M gen as per result

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32
Q

Theca Lutein cysts

A

Form of functional ovarian cyst associated with pregnancy 

Seen as large, (almost always) bilateral, multiple ovarian cysts  

Differential diagnosis:
OHSS
Mucinous ovarian malignancy 
Highly associated with GTD
Present in >20% of molar pregnancies 

Following evacuation of a molar pregnancy typically self-resolve within 2-4 months  

More likely to occur if:
GTD
Ovulation induction/ clomiphene > natural conception 
Multi-fetal pregnancies
Patient with pre-existing PCOS or type 2 diabetes  
Rarely found in typical/ uncomplicated pregnancies  

In these rare reports the cyst(s) have been seen to spontaneously resolve following delivery 
Not commonly associated with torsion (<2%) 

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33
Q

Ovarian malignancy

A

epithelial tumours (~80%), germ cell tumours (~15%)
sex cord stromal tumours (<=5%)

Most common type of ovarian malignancy is high grade serous ovarian carcinoma (HGSOC)

Almost all cases have a mutation in the p53 tumour suppressor gene

Risk factors = more ovulations (early menarche, late menopause, nulliparity)

Protective factors = fewer ovulations (CHC use, pregnancy)

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34
Q

Krukenberg tumours

A

GI tumours to the ovary (typically from stomach cancer)

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35
Q

Epithelial ovarian tumours including 5 types

A

Most common form of ovarian neoplasm

CA125 glycoprotein/ tumour marker is released by 85% of epithelial ovarian tumours

Benign (adenomas) or malignant( (adenocarcinoma)

Often bilateral, especially serous forms

5 types of epithelial tumours

(1) High grade serous ovarian cancer (HGSOC - most common)

(2) Low grade serous ovarian cancer (LGSOC – younger demographic, better prognosis)

(3) Endometroid (associated with endometriosis)

(4) Clear cell (rare but very aggressive)

(5) Mucinous (often benign, usually unilateral)

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36
Q

Germ cell tumours: ovarian

A

More common in younger women, contain extraembryonic elements of germ cell layers

2nd most common form of ovarian neoplasm (making up ~15% of cases)

Arise from cells of the germ cell layers, younger demographic

Can be benign or malignant

Usually unilateral (can be bilateral in minority)

Most common benign germ cell tumour = mature teratoma (“dermoid cyst”)

Most common malignant germ cell tumour = dysgerminoma
»Dysgerminoma is more common in those with abnormal karyotypes (e.g. 45 XO Turner’s)
»Contains syncytiotrophoblast cells -> raised hCG

Other malignant forms = immature teratoma (younger patients), yolk sac tumours
»Both of these may secrete aFP (majority of yolk sac secrete AFP&raquo_space; ~1/3 immature teratomas)

NB: Gonadoblastoma is very rare form of ovarian neoplasm with mixed germ cell and sex cord origins

Typically begin as a benign growth, but strongly associated with dysgerminoma (malignant)

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37
Q

dysgerminoma

A

Most common malignant germ cell tumour

Dysgerminoma is more common in those with abnormal karyotypes (e.g. 45 XO Turner’s)

Contains syncytiotrophoblast cells à raised hCG

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38
Q

Sex cord stromal ovarian tumours:

A

Significantly less common, secrete hormones <5%

Derived from sex cords of the developing gonads (granulosa cells/ stroma, theca cells/ fibroblasts)

3 types:
(1) Fibromas and thecomas – typically benign
(2) Granulosa cell tumours – most common type of SCST and are malignant
(3) Sertoli-Leydig tumours – either

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39
Q

Granulosa cell tumours

A

<5% of ovarian tumours but >95% of sex cord stromal ovarian tumours

Generally produce oestrogen

Can occur in adulthood (most commonly) or pre-puberty (rare); can cause oestrogenic symptoms

Juvenile granulosa cell tumours may be associated with precocious puberty

Post-menopausal granulosa cell tumours may be associated with post-menopausal bleeding

90% present early, at stage 1, and are generally managed surgically

Majority of cases have a mutation in FOXL2 (required for ovarian differentiation)

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40
Q

Meig’s syndrome/ triad

A

Fibroma – benign and always non-secretory

Ascites
Pleural effusion
Ovarian fibroma

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41
Q

Mmx SUI

A

Duloxetine 40mg BD

Selective serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitor/ SSNRI

Theory: increases serotonin and noradrenaline level within Onuf’s nucleus (S2-S4)

à Increased activity of pudendal nerve à improved tone of external urethral sphincter and therefore improvement in function

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42
Q

Mirabegron

A

Beta-3 adrenoreceptor agonist à detrusor relaxation/ reduced voiding

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43
Q

Wilson and Jungner Criteria for Screening Tests (1968)

A

We must have knowledge of the disease (3)
» condition important
» recognisable asypm latent / early symptomatic stage
» natural course of the condition understood

We must have knowledge of the proposed test (3)
» Suitable
» Acceptable to pop
» Continuous (not just a ‘once and for all’ project)

We must have an effective treatment for the disease (3)
» Accepted treatment
» Facilities for diagnosis and treatment available
» Agreed policy on whom to treat

The screening must be cost appropriate (1)
» Costs of case finding economically balanced

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44
Q

% that hpv is responsible for cancers

A

> 90% of cases of anal cancer,

> 40% of cases of penile/ vulval cancers

> 99% of cervical cancer
(16 and 18 responsible for >70% of cervical cancers)

45
Q

Chemicals applied to cervix at colp

A

Acetic acid; neoplastic cells w higher nuclear:cytoplasmic ratio –> white (“acetowhite”)

Iodine solution; normal tissue à brown, neoplastic cells are glycogen deficient and do not stain brown

46
Q

CINs

A

CIN = Cervical Intra-epithelial Neoplasia of the squamous cells of the external cervix

CIN 1 (low-grade or mild dysplasia) – 1/3 thickness of surface layer affected; starts at base
»> CIN 1 = “HPV infection correlate” and NOT pre-cancerous condition by definition
»> Usually resolves if HPV clears
»> CIN 1 = repeat colposcopy should be arranged for further testing in 12 months

CIN 2 and 3 are high grade changes - 20% of high grade changes (CIN 2+3) progress to cervical cancer. pre-cancerous condition.

47
Q

CIN 2

A

moderate – 2/3 thickness of surface layer is affected; starts at base

Up to 5% progress to cervical cancer if not treated appropriately

For CIN 2 some cases (~40%) will self resolve but this can take up to 2 years

Excisional treatment is usually offered for CIN 2 (LLETZ)

Conservative management > excision may be appropriate if <2 quadrants of the cervix are effected, as long as the patient is agreeable to follow up

If patients want conservative management they should be followed up with 6 monthly colposcopy until resolution (maximum of 2 years)

If persistent CIN 2 at 2 years then excision should be recommended

48
Q

CIN 3

A

high-grade or severe dysplasia – full thickness of surface layer is affected

Highest rates of progression to cervical cancer (up to 30% progression)

For CIN 3 excision is always recommended (LLETZ)

If CIN completely excised à follow up smear with ‘test of cure’ for high risk HPV strains in 6 months

If this TOC is negative for high risk HPV strains à discharge to 3 yearly recall

49
Q

CGIN

A

Cervical Glandular Intra-epithelial Neoplasia; glandular cells within the endocervical canal

Most strongly associated with HPV type 18

May be more difficult to achieve clear margins/ have higher recurrence risk – skip lesions

Cone biopsy&raquo_space; LLETZ usually given as treatment (need to get deeper into endocervical canal)

If CGIN is completely excised -> follow up smear with ‘test of cure’ for high risk HPV strains is recommended at 6 and 18 months following treatment

If both of these TOCs are negative for high risk HPV strains -> discharge to 3 yearly recall

50
Q

BV on gram stain

A

Absence of polymorphs (pus cells)

Use of Hay-Ison Gram-stain method for scoring:

Grade 0 – epithelial cells with no bacteria

Grade 1/ normal – epithelial cells with lactobacilli dominant

Grade 2/ intermediate – epithelial cells w some lactobacilli and mixed bacteria

Grade 3/BV consistent – epithelial cells w mixed bacteria and few/ absent lacto

Grade 4 – epithelial cells with gram + cocci only (typically streptococci)

51
Q

Spironolactone MOA

A

mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists (non selective - can bind to androgen and progesterone receptors)

Reduces NA absorption (water follows NA by osmosis)

Reduces K secretion

Both in DT (principal cells)

(Reduces H+ secretion in CT - alpha intercal –> decrease in PH)

K sparing

Drosperinone is derived from 17alpha spironolacton

HYPERkalemia, HYPOnatremia, HYPOtension

52
Q

Ectopic measurements

A

FP NO MSD
>=25mm on TV - 2nd opinion
<25MM on TV - rescan 7/7
TA always 2nd scan 14/7

FP YES CRL
>=7 -2nd opinion
<7 - rescan 7/7
TA always 2nd scan 14/7

53
Q

How does oestrogen interact with RAAS

A

Stimulates synthesis of angoitensinogen (the precursor to Ang I)
But downregs ACE (so Ang 1 not converted to Ang 2) - reduces inflammatory response.

54
Q

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

A

21 hydroxylase
17 less common

Needed for corticosteroid and mineralocorticoid production.
But not needed for progesterone and androgen.

–> so steroid synthesis is directed towards making androgens

REDUCED cortisol: high ACTH, prog, androgens.
(due to neg feedback on pituitary)
–> androgens dominate over oestogen –> male like genitalia, precesious puberty and virualization.

REDUCED aldosterone: salt and water wasting.
(hypotension, hyponatremia, hypERkalemia)

INCREASED 17OH progesterone.
<200 no CAH
200-800 ACTH stimulation test
> 800 CAH dx

XX: Uterus, vagina, fallopian tube and ovaries.

XY: go through puberty earlier

Rx: steroids

55
Q

Levator ani arterial and nerve supply

A

A: inferior gluteal

N pudendal, perineal and inferior rectal (S3/4)

56
Q

Posterior vs anterior pituitary originates:

A

Posterior pituitary - neural tube ectoderm

Anterior pituitary- surface ectoderm epithelial tissue of nasal cavity –> Rathke’s pouch –> anterior pituitary

57
Q

Layers of adrenal gland cortex

A

glomerulosa GC
fasciculata MC
reticularis Androgens

58
Q

Plasma ACTH and cortisol in adrenal insufficiency

A

Plasma ACTH: A low serum cortisol with an elevated plasma ACTH hormone level indicates Addison’s disease as it suggests a primary insufficiency of the adrenal gland.

On the other hand, if there is a low serum cortisol accompanied by a normal or low ACTH level, this would suggest a secondary cause of adrenal insufficiency.

59
Q

(Addison disease)

A

adrenocortical insufficiency
primary adrenal insufficiency

Acute (crisis) or chronic

Adrenal cortex gets progressively damaged
ZG: low aldosterone - low NA, high K, low BP, acidosis.
ZF: low cortisol - high ACH and MSH - hyperpigmentation in joints
Rarely ZR affected: decreased sex drive and hair in women.

Causes
AI (unsure why)
TB
Met carcinoma

60
Q

Cushing’s syndrome,

A

increased cortisol levels

ACTH dep: cortisol excess is driven by ACTH, either from the pituitary or ectopic sources.

** pituitary adenoma **

(( ACTH-dependent types (and some adrenal cancers) –> elevated androgens. ))

ACTH indep: cortisol excess is independent of ACTH. Includes exogenous causes (consumption of cortisol) and adrenal lesions (adenomas, carcinomas).

Ix
(1) 24-hour urinary cortisol –>
high = cushings

(2)plasma acth
LOW ACTH indep
HIGH ACTH dep

(3A) ACTH indep (low plasma ACTH) –> CT adrenal gland

(3B) ACTH dep (high plasma ACTH) –> Dex suppresion test
ACTH suppressed by hd dexamethazone - Pit source (MRI PITUITARY)
ACTH unsuppressed - Ectopic source.

61
Q

hyper- aldosteronism

A

Primary = conns
Adrenal adenoma

Secondary
high aldosterone, high renin
RA stenosis / HF etc

62
Q

phaeochromocytoma

A

a rare neuroendocrine tumour of the adrenal glands - chromaffin cells

It can present with palpitations, diaphoresis, pallor, and paroxysmal hypertension

Diagnosed by increased levels of metanephrines and normetanephrines.

63
Q

paraganglioma (PPGL).

A

PPGLs are rare neuroendocrine tumours arising from
neural crest-derived cells of the sympathetic and
parasympathetic nervous systems.

results from excessive production
of catecholamines by the chromaffin cells located in the
extra-adrenal sympathetic paraganglia, typically in the
abdomen and pelvis.

PPGL can be
sporadic, it can also form part of hereditary syndromes,
such as Von Hippel–Lindau syndrome, multiple endocrine
neoplasia-type 2 (MEN-2) and neurofibromatosis type 1
(NF1) – all of which have autosomal dominant patterns
of inheritance.

High blood pressure, headache

64
Q

Hypoaldosteronism causes

A

(1) hyporenin hypoaldosteronism
both low
- diabetic nephropathy, nsaids

(2) non-hyporenin hypoaldost
renin n/high
aldosterone low
ACEi
Chronic heparin
Primary adrenal insufficiency
Genetic

(3) Aldosterone resistance
Renin n/h
aldosterone n/h
Aldosterone receptor antagonists
Trimethoprim/ sulfamethoxazole
Genetic disorders

65
Q

which mutations have been linked to increasing quinolone resistance in GC

A

mutations in gyrA and gyrB)

66
Q

epithelial ovarian tumour - types/ semicirc

A

80%

Serous (high G and low G)
Endometroid (assoc with endometriosis)
MUcinous = Unilat
i

Circle = clear cell (rare but v aggresssive)

67
Q

Three germ cell ovairian tumours

A

15%

(1) Mature teratoma - benign, dermoid cyst

(2) dysgerminoma- malig
Most common malignant germ cell tumour. raised hCG
more common in those with abnormal karyotypes (e.g. 45 XO Turner’s)

(3) immature teratoma - malig secrete aFP

68
Q

Sex cell ovarian tumours; three types

A

(1) Fibromas and thecomas – typically benign
Fibroma = meigs syndrome

(2) Granulosa cell tumours – most common type of SCST and are malignant
Produce oestrogen - PMB, precious puberty. FOXL2

(3) Sertoli-Leydig tumours – either

69
Q

LS % to vulval SCC

70
Q

Wickham’s striae

A

shiny flat topped papules with “white lacy lines”
mucosal
LP

71
Q

LP vs LS

A

LS
Does not affect vaginal walls
White and flat lesions
5% risk vulval scc

LP
Affects vaginal walls
Red and raised
Wickham’s striae - mucousal lesions
Lesions else where
Lower risk of vulval squamous cell carcinoma of <3%

72
Q

LP and the Ps

A

Skin lesions 6Ps
Puritic
Polygonal
Purple
Planar
Papule
Plaque

73
Q

FGM types

A

Type I – Clitoridectomy
Partial/ total removal of clitoris/ prepuce

Type II – Excision
Partial/ total removal of clitoris and the inner labia +/- outer labia

Type III – Infibulation
Narrowing of the vaginal opening by creating a covering seal. The seal is formed by cutting and repositioning the inner or outer labia, with or without removal of the clitoris..

Type IV – Other

74
Q

Solifenacin

A

Selective and competitive M3 antimuscarinic agent

75
Q

What do they look for on cytology

A

(1) DYSKARYOSIS: high nuclear: cytoplasmic ratio (hyperchromatic nucleu)

(2)POILKILOCYTOSIS: Abnormal shape

(3) KOILIOCYTOSIS: Abnormal density (bigger nucleus)

76
Q

HPV associated with CGIN

A

HPV type 18

TOC at 6 and 18 months following treatment (rather than others just 6 months)

77
Q

Breast screening

A

50 - 70, 3 yearly
(First invitation should be received before 53rd birthday)

It is recommended that breast screening for trans women should continue beyond the age of 70 if oestradiol continues to be used

Mammograms require at least 2 x-rays to be taken of each breast
Mammograms interpreted using standardised BI-RADS system

78
Q

Breast cancer

A

Most common ca in women in uk

Types:
1. Invasive ductal carcinoma (IDC) makes up 80%

79
Q

Significant family hx of breast ca: definition and tests

A

1st degree male relative diagnosed with breast cancer at any age

1st degree female relative diagnosed with breast cancer at <40 years

1st degree relative with bilateral breast cancer first diagnosed <50 years

2 x 1st degree relatives diagnosed with breast cancer at any age

1 x 1st degree and 1 x 2nd degree relative diagnosed with breast OR ovarian cancer at any age

3 x 2nd degree relatives diagnosed with breast cancer at any age

—-> specialist referral for genetic testing (BRCA 1, BRCA 2 and TP53 genes)

80
Q

Prognosis of breast cancer based on receptor status

A

Oestrogen receptors (present in 70-80%)

Progesterone receptors

> > > > Hormone sensitive (ER + PR +) cancers have more favourable prognoses
Suitable for treatment with SERM agents (e.g. Tamoxifen) during follow up if ER +

HER2 (human epidermal growth factor receptor 2) receptors

Triple negative (no receptors)

81
Q

MEN with BRCA (1 or 2)

A

mutations the risk of breast cancer is between 1.2-8%

Also have double the risk of prostate cancer compared to male baseline risk (10% -> 20%)

82
Q

BRCA 1 and 2

A

BRCA mutations are responsible for >90% of inherited breast (and ovarian) cancers

BRCA1 – highest risk
Long arm of chromosome 17, ***triple neg breast cancers
(Aggressive, difficult to treat and poorer prognosis)

Lifetime risk breast ca 70%
Ovarian ca 45%

BRCA 2 – lower risk
Long arm of chromosome 13,

Lifetime risk of breast ca is 40%
Ovarian cancer is 15%

83
Q

Patients with identified BRCA mutation who do NOT wish to undertake risk reducing surgery

A

offered annual screening with MRI and/ or mammography as per their age

25-39 MRI
40-50 MRI plus mam
51-71 mamm +/- MRI

84
Q

Li Fraumeni syndrome

A

= Transcription factor p53 (TP53) mutation

The most frequently identified genetic mutation across all cancer types

Identified in ~30% of all breast cancer cases

Most TP53 mutations are acquired -> spontaneous cancer cases (NOT inherited/familial - but is AD)

Tested if breast ca <30, adrenocortical carcinoma, early onset GI ca

People with known TP53 gene mutation should have breast cancer screening annually via MRI: From age 20+. Mammography not recommended for people with TP53 mutations (NICE)

85
Q

Bowel screening

A

Offered to people of all genders between ages of 50 – 74 years

Home FIT kit –> looks for traces of blood in the stool à if + invited for further tests (colonoscopy)

Invited to take part routinely every 2 years

After age 75 you can request a kit every 2 years if you wish to continue with the screening

86
Q

Lynch syndrome (Hereditary Non-Polyposis Colorectal Cancer HNPCC):

A

AD

~3% of colorectal cancer due to Lynch syndrome

Implicated genes – MLH1, MSH2, MSH6 and PMS2

Screening colonoscopy every 2 years, from 25

Lynch syndrome increases risk of
Endometrial ca
Ovarian ca
No screening is recommended for gynaecological cancers with Lynch syndrome

> > If confirmed Lynch syndrome, risk reducing surgery (TAHBSO) can be considered
Usually recommended after the age of 35 (with add-back HRT cover)

Limited evidence linking Lynch syndrome and breast cancer; no additional screening recommended

87
Q

AAA screening

A

From 65 for men

Trans women will have similar AAA risk levels to cis men and should consider requesting screening if not registered as male with their GPs (not routinely invited)

No AAA
Small AAA (3 – 4.4 cm) – annual monitoring USS
Medium AAA (5.4 – 5.4cm) – USS every 3 months
Large AAA (5.5cm +) - prophylactic repair

88
Q

CAH

A

21-hydroxylase deficiency

Autosomal recessive genetic inheritance via chromosome 6

Classical: ambiguous genitalia +/- adrenal crisis at birth
Non: milder - early pubertal changes (secondary to androgen excess) or absent/ irregular menses

17-hydroxyprogesterone HIGH

–> should be measured in the follicular phase and will be raised in CAH. 8AM d 1-5

–> Testosterone can be normal or high

–> If 17- hydroxyprogesterone is borderline, it will have to be confirmed by an ACTH stimulation test to diagnose CAH.

89
Q

Hymenal origin

A

Endoderm (from the urogenital sinus epithelium)

90
Q

Embryological development of vagina

A

Müllerian ducts –> inferior/ fused structure –> uterus, cervix and upper 1/3 vagina

Urogenital sinus –> lower 2/3 of the vagina develop from the (sinovaginal bulbs - fuse to form vaginal plate)

— both of these are from intermediate mesoderm—

—Happens at about 10 weeks Entire process is complete by 20 weeks of gestation (think: in time for anatomy scan!) —

91
Q

MRKH

A

Primary ammenorrhoea (make up 15% of primary)
Absent vagina (upper 2/3 and cervix)
Non-functioning uterus
Normal ovaries!

T1: above

T2: other assoc (40%-50%)
Renal tract (most commonly!)
Hearing difficulties (middle ear)
Bone effects (fused or absent vertebrae)

92
Q

Androgen insensitivity syndrome (previously testicular feminisation syndrome)

A

46XY genotype
Defective androgen receptors

Phenotypic females, often tall and without pubic hair due to lack of androgenic stimulation

Present with primary amenorrhoea

Testes should be removed to prevent gonadoblastoma

93
Q

diethylstilboestrol (DES)

A

Drug has been discontinued since 1971
Previous oestrogenic compound used for management of recurrent miscarriage

Exposure associated with
Vaginal adenosis
T shaped uterus

94
Q

Congenital anomalies of the cervix;

A

(1) Cervical agenesis
Can occur in isolation or alongside uterine/ vaginal agenesis (MRKH syndrome)

Incomplete or failed development of the Mullerian/paramesonephric ducts

Primary amenorrhoea

If isolated cervical agenesis -> development of heamatometra

(2) Cervical duplication/ didelphys
Most commonly in association with uterine didelphys
Does not typically interrupt menses
Failed fusion of Mullerian/paramesonephric ducts

95
Q

Congenital anomalies of the uterus

A

Mullerian anomalies have an incidence of between 1-3%

96
Q

What % of 1st and 2nd trimester miscarriage is linked to mullerian anomalies

A

~15% of recurrent first trimester miscarriage patient cohort have one, and

~25% of those who have had a second trimester miscarriage)

97
Q

Strassman metroplasty

A

Operation done on bicornuate uterus if recurrent preg loss

98
Q

uterine anomalies associated with vaginal septum

A

uterine didelphys - vaginal septum in 75% of cases

Septate uterus - less assoc

99
Q

When do females have max number of oocytes

A

20 weeks gestation

100
Q

Causes of high inhibin levels

101
Q

Inhibin levels

A

Tend to be inhibin B levels measured.

Granulosa cell tumours (inhibin B 60 fold increase, 90-100%)

Mucinous epithelial ovarian tumours. (55%)

Assessing infertility issues: Inhibin B levels can be used to assess ovarian reserve and it is suggested that levels can also predict the success of ovulation-inducing drugs
Day 3 of the cycle!

102
Q

ospemifene

A

SERM for vaginal atropy in people not suitable for oestrogen

103
Q

Testosterone levels in women in 20s compared to women in 40s

A

A women in her mid 40s has approx. half as much circulating testosterone as a woman in her 20s

104
Q

Prevalence of OP in older men/ women

A

1 in 3 older women
1 in 5 older men

(Peak in 20s, BMD begins to reduce from age 30)

105
Q

When is rate of BMD loss greatest in women

A

1 year prior to menopause –> 2 years following menopause

106
Q

DXA T score and Z score

A

T score = comparison of BMD to average of young person (aged 20-29) of the same sex

Normal T score = +1 to -1

Osteopenia T score = -1 to -2.5

Osteoporosis T score = <-2.5 

Z score = compared BMD to people of the same age and gender

107
Q

Drug therapy known to impact BMD

A

PPI

SSRIs

Medroxyprogesterone acetate (long term/significant history of use in particular)

Aromatase inhibitors

Thiazolidinediones

Most anticonvulsants

108
Q

Vitamin D sources

A

But between October and early March we do not make enough vitamin D from sunlight.

Vitamin D is also found in a small number of foods:
oily fish – such as salmon, sardines, herring and mackerel

red meat

liver (avoid liver if you are pregnant)

egg yolks

fortified foods – such as some fat spreads and breakfast cereals

108
Q

Special populations that should take vit D

A

OP (BMS rec 1000units)

Pregnant/ people in gen - 400 IU (10mcg)

Trans and non binary - OTC 400 IU (10mcg)