Early Pregnancy Flashcards

1
Q

What is RhD sensitization and why is it important in pregnancy?

A

RhD sensitization occurs when a Rh-negative individual is exposed to Rh-positive blood, leading to the development of antibodies. This can cause complications in future pregnancies, especially if a Rh-negative woman carries a Rh-positive baby, leading to hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN).

In the UK, around 85% of the population are RhD positive. The RHD gene is dominant so one copy from either parent makes pos.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Dose of anti-D

A

The recommended minimum dose for treating fetomaternal hemorrhage (FMH) is 500 IU for up to 4 mL of fetal red cells. Additional doses are based on the volume of fetal cells, calculated at 125 IU per 1 mL of fetal red cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

When should anti-D immunoglobulin (anti-D Ig) be administered?

A

Anti-D Ig should be given to D-negative pregnant women after events like
1. Sensitising events: miscarriage, trauma, invasive procedures (amniocentesis),
2. At 28 and 34 weeks of pregnancy as routine prophylaxis for non-sensitized D-negative women carrying an Rh-positive fetus,
3. After delivery of a Rh-positive baby ( within 72 hours ).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the purpose of anti-D Ig after a sensitizing event or delivery of a Rh-positive baby?

A

Anti-D Ig is used to prevent RhD sensitization by clearing Rh-positive fetal red cells from the maternal circulation, preventing complications in future pregnancies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the safety profile of anti-D Ig?

A

Anti-D Ig is derived from pooled plasma and undergoes safety measures like screening for viruses. Adverse reactions are rare but may include allergic reactions or anaphylaxis, especially in those with IgA antibodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What are the available preparations of anti-D Ig in the UK?

A

D-GAM® (IM use only) and Rhophylac® (IM or IV use) are the main preparations available. D-GAM® is not suitable for IV use due to the risk of severe hypersensitivity.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

How should anti-D Ig be administered?

A

Anti-D Ig is typically administered intramuscularly (IM) in the deltoid muscle. In women with bleeding disorders, IV or subcutaneous administration may be preferred. Doses are calculated based on FMH testing results.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What should be done if anti-D is detected in a sample from a pregnant woman?

A

The source of anti-D (immune or passive) should be determined. If it is unclear, prophylaxis should continue according to guidelines for D-negative women.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Passive vs Immune Anti-D Detection:

A

After anti-D Ig administration, detectable anti-D may be passive (from the injection) or immune (produced by the body). If anti-D is detected in a pregnant woman at 28 weeks, investigations should determine its origin. If it is unclear, prophylaxis should continue to be administered as per guidelines for D-negative women.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Timeline of Rh testing

A

Early Pregnancy: Blood tests check for blood group and if RhD-negative, additional check for anti-D antibodies

If NO anti-D antibodies: blood is rechecked at 28 weeks, and an anti-D immunoglobulin injection is offered to prevent rhesus disease.

If YES anti-D antibodies: closer monitoring is required. If a Doppler ultrasound shows faster-than-normal blood flow in the baby, foetal blood sampling (FBS) may be performed to check for anaemia.

At Birth: Blood is taken from the baby’s umbilical cord (Coombs test) to check their blood group and for anti-D antibodies.
If the mother has anti-D antibodies, the baby’s blood is tested for iron deficiency anaemia and newborn jaundice.

Future Testing: Routine testing may identify the baby’s RhD status to avoid unnecessary treatment for RhD-negative women without antibodies.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN)

A

A condition where fetal red blood cells are destroyed due to blood group incompatibility, primarily involving Rh or ABO blood types.

Leading to hemolysis, anemia, and hyperbilirubinemia.

Rh incompatibility usually affects subsequent pregnancies because maternal sensitization occurs during the first pregnancy, leading to more severe complications such as intrauterine hydrops fetalis in later pregnancies.

ABO incompatibility, however, can impact the first pregnancy since maternal antibodies preexist.

Diagnosis can occur before or after birth through laboratory tests and imaging studies, and treatments range from phototherapy and supplementation to transfusions in severe cases.

Most common: Rh-negative mother is sensitized to Rh-positive fetal red blood cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are common clinical manifestations of HDFN?

A

Neonatal jaundice, anemia, hydrops fetalis (in severe cases), hypotonia and kernicterus in untreated cases.

Around 50% of babies diagnosed with rhesus disease have mild symptoms that are easily treatable.

Symptoms can sometimes develop up to 3 months afterwards.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How is HDFN diagnosed antenatally?

A

Maternal tests: ABO and Rh typing, antibody screening, and titer monitoring.

Fetal tests: Ultrasound for hydrops fetalis, Doppler ultrasound of the middle cerebral artery (high flow in anaemia), and amniocentesis for bilirubin levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the key postnatal test for HDFN?

A

A positive direct antiglobulin (Coombs) test, along with anemia, reticulocytosis, and hyperbilirubinemia in the neonate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What conditions should be considered in the differential diagnosis of HDFN?

A

Physiologic jaundice, prematurity, G6PD deficiency, thalassemia, sepsis, Gilbert syndrome, hypothyroidism.

Polyhydramnios and placentomegaly from various fetal conditions.

Nonimmune hydrops fetalis from cardiac, chromosomal, or infectious causes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are some signs suggesting nonimmune hydrops fetalis?

A

Cyanosis unresponsive to oxygen (cardiac disease).

Hypotonia (congenital myopathy or hypothyroidism).

Hepatosplenomegaly with dysmorphism (metabolic storage diseases).

Dermatitis with hepatosplenomegaly (TORCH infections).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are complications of untreated severe HDFN?

A

Hydrops fetalis.
Kernicterus.
Anemia.
Long-term neurological dysfunction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Complete molar pregnancy

A

duplication of a single spermatozoa inside an empty ovum (75-80%) or dispermic fertilisation of an empty ovum (20-25%).

They contain two sets of paternal chromosomes with a karyotype of 46 XX (most commonly) or 46 XY.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Partial molar pregnancy

A

dispermic fertilisation of a normal ovum (90%) and contain one set of maternal chromosomes and two sets of paternal chromosomes with a karyotype of 69 XXX (most commonly), 69 XXY or 69 XYY

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Molar pregnancy: presentation

A

Irreg PV bleeding
+ve PT
USS features

Less common presentations:
hyperemesis, excessive uterineenlargement, hyperthyroidism, early-onset pre-eclampsia and abdominal distension due totheca lutein cysts.

Very rarely women can present with haemoptysis or seizures due to metastatic diseaseaffecting the lungs or brain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Molar pregnancy: Can oxytocic infusions be used during surgical removal?

A

The use of oxytocic infusion prior to completion of the removal is not recommended.

If the woman is experiencing significant haemorrhage prior to or during removal, surgical removal should be expedited and the need for oxytocin infusion weighed up against the risk of tissue embolisation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How should women with an elevated human chorionic gonadotrophin after a possible pregnancy event be managed?

A

Referral to a GTD centre should be considered for all women with persistently elevatedhuman chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) either after an ectopic pregnancy has been excluded, orafter two consecutive treatments with methotrexate for a pregnancy of unknown location.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which women should be investigated for GTN after a non-molar pregnancy?

A

Any woman who develops persistent vaginal bleeding after a pregnancy event is at risk ofhaving GTN.

A urine hCG test should be performed in all cases of persistent or irregular vaginal bleeding lasting more than 8 weeks after a pregnancy event.

Symptoms from metastatic disease, such as dyspnoea and haemoptysis, or new onset ofseizures or paralysis, can occur very rarely.

Biopsy of secondary deposits in the vagina can cause major haemorrhage and is notrecommended.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the optimum follow-up following a diagnosis of GTD?

A

For complete molar pregnancy, if hCG has reverted to normal within 56 days (2 months) of the pregnancy event then follow-up will be for 6 months from the date of uterine removal.

If hCG has not reverted to normal within 56 days of the pregnancy event then follow-up will befor 6 months from normalisation of the hCG level.

Follow-up for partial molar pregnancy is concluded once the hCG has returned to normal on two samples, at least 4 weeks apart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is the optimum treatment for GTN?

A

Women with GTN may be treated with single-agent or multi-agent chemotherapy.

Treatment used is based on the FIGO 2000 scoring system for GTN following assessment at the treatment centre.

PSTT and ETT are now recognised as variants of GTN. They may be treated with surgerybecause they are less sensitive to chemotherapy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the recommended interval between a complete or partial molar pregnancy and trying toconceive in the future?

A

Women are advised not to conceive until their follow-up is complete.

Women who undergo chemotherapy are advised not to conceive for 1 year after completion of treatment, as a precautionary measure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the monitoring of women following a successful pregnancy after a previous molar pregnancy?

A

Women who have a pregnancy following a previous molar pregnancy, which has not required treatment for GTN, do not need to send a post-pregnancy hCG sample.

Histological examination of placental tissue from any normal pregnancy, after a molar pregnancy, is not indicated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the long-term outcome of women treated for GTN?

A

Near 100% cure rate

Further pregnancies are achieved in approximately 80% of women following treatment for GTN with either methotrexate alone or multi-agent chemotherapy.

There is an increased risk of premature menopause for women treated with combination agent chemotherapy. Women, especially those approaching the age of 40 years, should be warned of the potential negative impact on fertility, particularly when treated with high-dose chemotherapy

29
Q

Risk of GTN following molar / partial molar pregnancy?

A

After surgical evacuation of complete hydatidiform mole, approximately 15–20% of women go on to
develop GTN requiring chemotherapy.

The risk after partial molar pregnancy is much lower,
at around 0.5–1%

If human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) levels spontaneously revert to
normal after uterine evacuation, the risk of post-molar GTN has been reported as only 0.4%

30
Q

Are fertility and pregnancy outcomes affected after GTD?

A

Fertility rates after hydatidiform mole have been reported to be equivalent to those of
the general population.

Risk of GTD in subsequent pregnancy is about
1–2%.

Fertility is preserved after chemotherapy for GTN in the vast majority. There has been concern that fertility levels may be reduced after
chemotherapy for GTN, particularly multi-agent chemotherapy.However, evidence from case series2 suggests that pregnancy outcomes are favourable when compared to the general population, even in women who conceive within 12 months of treatment.

31
Q

Contraception and Molar pregnancy

A

Hormonal contraception can be started immediately after uterine evacuation for
GTD.

most methods of contraception can be safely used after treatment for GTD and can be started immediately after uterine evacuation,
with the exception of intrauterine contraception (IUC).

IUC should not be inserted in women with persistently elevated hCG levels or
malignant disease (UKMEC 4)

IUC should not normally be inserted until hCG levels have normalised but may be
considered on specialist advice with insertion in a specialist setting for women
with decreasing hCG levels following discussion with a GTD centre (UKMC 3)

Women should be advised that additional contraceptive precautions (e.g. barrier
methods/abstinence) are required if hormonal contraception is started 5 days or more after treatment for GTD. Additional contraceptive precaution is not required
if contraception is initiated immediately or within 5 days of treatment for GTD.

32
Q

Is emergency contraception (EC) safe to use after GTD?

A

Emergency contraception (EC) is indicated if unprotected sexual intercourse
(UPSI) takes place from 5 days after treatment for GTD.

Cu IUD is UKMEC 3/4 though

33
Q

Sterilisation following GTD

A

Tubal occlusion should ideally be performed after some time has elapsed after
surgical evacuation for GTD. Women who request tubal occlusion to be performed
at the time of surgical treatment should be advised of the possible increased
failure rate and risk of regret.

WHOMEC recommends that women with persistently elevated hCG levels or malignant disease should delay being sterilised.

34
Q

Misoprostol

A

Misoprostol is a synthetic prostaglandin E1 analogue which acts on receptors found in the uterus/cervix and the gastric mucosa. Its main effects include:

(1) Uterotonic/cervical ripening:
- Collagenase activation causing collagen breakdown within the cervical stroma
- Myometrial smooth muscle contraction
- Reduction in cervical tone

(2) Gastroprotection:
- Inhibits gastric parietal cell acid secretion
- Increases bicarbonate production

35
Q

Mullerian agenesis (Mayer-Rokitansky-Kuster-Hauser syndrome)

A

Congenital absence or underdevelopment of the Müllerian ducts, resulting in agenesis or hypoplasia of the uterus and upper two-thirds of the vagina.

Normal ovaries and external genitalia are present. The ovaries remain functional leading to normal development of secondary sexual characteristics.

Epidemiology:
Affects approximately 1 in 4,500 female births.
Second most common cause of primary amenorrhea after gonadal dysgenesis.

Pathophysiology:
Arrest of embryological development of the Müllerian ducts between the 4th and 12th week of gestation. Exact etiology is unknown but likely multifactorial.

May have associated renal, skeletal, and cardiac anomalies due to shared embryological origins.

Clinical Features:
Reproductive: Primary amenorrhea with normal secondary sexual characteristics (due to functional ovaries and normal hormonal profile).
Infertility (absent uterus).

Anatomical:
Short or absent vaginal canal. Normal external genitalia.

Associated Anomalies:
Renal (e.g., unilateral agenesis, ectopic kidney).
Skeletal (e.g., scoliosis, vertebral anomalies).
Less commonly, hearing and cardiac defects.

Diagnosis:
Clinical Evaluation:
History of amenorrhea.
Physical examination revealing a shortened vaginal canal.
Hormonal and Chromosomal Testing:
Normal karyotype (46,XX).
Normal levels of FSH, LH, and estrogen (distinguishing from gonadal dysgenesis).

Imaging:
Pelvic ultrasound or MRI to confirm absent uterus and evaluate for renal anomalies.

Differential Diagnosis:
Androgen insensitivity syndrome (46,XY with testicular feminization).
Transverse vaginal septum or imperforate hymen.

Management:
Psychological Support:
Early counseling to address emotional and psychological concerns.
Surgical/Vaginal Reconstruction:
Non-surgical: Vaginal dilators to create a functional vaginal canal (first-line).
Surgical: Neovagina creation if non-surgical methods fail.

Fertility Options:
Assisted reproductive techniques (e.g., surrogacy, adoption).

Monitoring and Multidisciplinary Care:
Address associated anomalies with urological and orthopedic input.

Prognosis:
Normal life expectancy and sexual function achievable with appropriate treatment.
Infertility is a major concern but can be managed with modern reproductive options.

36
Q

MURCS Syndrome (Müllerian-Renal-Cervicothoracic-Somite Abnormality)

A

Rare congenital disorder that is a variant of Müllerian agenesis, characterized by:

Müllerian agenesis.
Urinary (renal) anomalies.
Renal and Cervicothoracic somite abnormalities (skeletal anomalies).

It is considered a broader syndrome involving both MRKH syndrome features and additional systemic anomalies.

Clinical Features:
(1)Müllerian Agenesis:
Primary amenorrhea. Absent uterus and upper two-thirds of the vagina. Normal secondary sexual characteristics.

(2)Renal Anomalies:
Renal agenesis (unilateral or bilateral). Ectopic kidney or horseshoe kidney. Ureteric abnormalities.

(3)Skeletal Anomalies:
Cervical or thoracic vertebral defects (e.g., fused vertebrae, scoliosis, Klippel-Feil syndrome).

(4) Additional Features:
May include hearing loss or cardiac defects.

Diagnosis:
Clinical Presentation:
History of primary amenorrhea with normal pubertal development.
Imaging:Pelvic ultrasound or MRI to identify Müllerian anomalies. Renal ultrasound for associated kidney anomalies. X-rays or CT scans for skeletal abnormalities.

Genetic Testing:
Not routine but may help identify syndromic links in familial cases.

Differential Diagnosis:
MRKH Syndrome (distinguished by absence of significant skeletal or renal abnormalities).

VACTERL association (Vertebral, Anorectal, Cardiac, Tracheoesophageal, Renal, and Limb anomalies).

Management:
Müllerian Agenesis: Vaginal dilators or surgical neovagina for sexual function.

Renal Anomalies:
Nephrology follow-up to monitor renal function and treat any complications.

Skeletal Anomalies:
Orthopedic and neurological evaluation for spinal deformities.

37
Q

Methotrexate

A

Competitive inhibitor of dihydrofolate reductase (DHFR).
DHFR is a key component of the tetrahydrofolate pathway, which is required for synthesis of amino and nucleic acids.

38
Q

Mifepristone

A

Competitive progesterone receptor antagonist

Mechanism of action:
Inhibits progestogenic effects on the endometrium and myometrium
Degeneration of the decidual endometrium (which can cause detachment of the trophoblast and reduced synthesis of bHCG by the syncytiotrophoblast)
Cervical softening and dilatation
Increases contractility of myometrium and its sensitivity to prostaglandins

39
Q

Complications and risks of abortion medical

A

CHOICES

Continuing pregnancy (1–2 in 100)

Hit again (further intervention to complete procedure) <14 weeks: 70 in 1000 /// >14 weeks: 13 in 100

Opening (rupture) of uterus Less than 1 in 1000 for secondtrimester medical abortions - uterine scar (prev CS is a risk factor)

Infection Less than 1 in 100 (prophylactic abx used in STOP)

Continued blood loss req transfusion <20 weeks: less than 1 in 1000 ///
>20 weeks: 4 in 1000

E (surg only)

S (surg only)

The medications can cause nausea, vomiting,
diarrhoea, chills and fever (1 in 10).

Abdominal cramping can last, on and off, for a
week and bleeding for two to three weeks.

40
Q

Complications and risks of abortion surgical

A

CHOICES

Continuing pregnancy 1 in 1000 (higher in <7/40)

Hit again (further intervention to complete procedure) <14 weeks: 35 in 1000 /// >14 weeks: 3 in 100

Opening (rupture) of uterus (no surgical stats)

Infection Less than 1 in 100 (prophylactic abx used in STOP)

Continued blood loss req transfusion <20 weeks: less than 1 in 1000 ///
>20 weeks: 4 in 1000

Entry (uterine perf) 1–4 in 1000

Shock (cervical, and other cervical injury from dilation and manipulation) 1 in 100

The medications can cause nausea, vomiting,
diarrhoea, chills and fever (1 in 10).

Abdominal cramping can last, on and off, for a
week and bleeding for two to three weeks.

41
Q

Cervical prep for STOP

A

Before 12 weeks of pregnancy:
* mifepristone 200mg orally, 24–48 hours before the procedure,
* misoprostol 400 micrograms sublingually, 1–2 hours before the procedure,
* misoprostol 400 micrograms vaginally or buccally, 2–3 hours before the procedure.

12–18+6 weeks of pregnancy:
* combination of mifepristone and misoprostol
(using above regimens, sometimes need more than one dose of miso), or
* osmotic dilators plus either mifepristone or misoprostol, or with both mifepristone and misoprostol (using above regimens in all cases).

19–24 weeks of pregnancy:
* osmotic dilators plus either mifepristone or misoprostol, or with both mifepristone and misoprostol (using above regimens in all cases).

Osmotic dilators are advised for cervical preparation from 14 weeks gestation. Misoprostol can also be considered as an alternative (up to 18 weeks gestation), however its efficacy is inferior to osmotic dilators.

42
Q

Anti-D and abortion

A

If available, anti-D should be offered to non-sensitised RhD-negative individuals from 12 weeks of
pregnancy and provided within 72 hours of the abortion.

43
Q

Abx in STOP

A

The optimal regimen is not known but nitroimidazoles (e.g. metronidazole), tetracyclines (e.g.
doxycycline) and penicillins have been shown to be effective.
The following regimen can be considered for surgical (or incomplete) abortion antibiotic prophylaxis:
* oral doxycycline 100mg twice a day for 3 to 7 days, starting within 2 hours of the procedure
(there is evidence that a 3-day course is as effective as a 7-day course).

44
Q

Meiotic non-disjunction

A

Failure of chromosome separation during cell division (anaphase)
Most common mechanism of trisomy

Strongly associated with increasing maternal age

45
Q

Robertsonian translocation

A

Results from breakage of two acrocentric chromosomes (numbers 13, 14, 15, 21, 22) at or close to their centromeres, with subsequent fusion of their long arms to form one chromosome.

Loss of Genetic Material: The short arms of the chromosomes contain repetitive sequences (such as ribosomal RNA genes), so their loss usually does not result in major health issues. However, the loss can impact fertility or cause chromosomal imbalances in offspring.

Most common 13/14
Next most common 14/21

Carrier is healthy (they have 45 chromosomes instead of the usual 46, but can pass on unbalanced translocations to their offspring)

Balanced Robertsonian Translocation:No loss of genetic material, meaning the person with the translocation typically shows no symptoms.

Unbalanced Robertsonian Translocation: If an individual inherits an unbalanced combination (e.g., an extra chromosome), it can lead to genetic disorders like Down syndrome (trisomy 21), if an extra copy of chromosome 21 is involved.

Trisomy 13 - patau syndrome (not compatible with life) (In up to 1 in 10 pateau caused by translocation)
Trisomy 21 - down syndrome

46
Q

Primary oocytes remain suspended in which stage of meiosis until ovulation?

A

Prophase I
During oogenesis immature oogonium mature into the primary oocyte

Primary oocytes start meiosis however are quickly suspended in prophase I until ovulation

The LH surge at ovulation causes meiosis I to resume however it becomes suspended again at metaphase II

At fertilisation, meiosis recommences and completes

Summary of Pauses and Suspensions in Oogenesis:
(1) Prophase I (Primary Oocyte): Arrested from fetal development until puberty.

(2) Metaphase II (Secondary Oocyte): Arrested just before ovulation, resuming at fertilization.

(3) Completion of Meiosis II: Happens only after fertilization when the secondary oocyte is activated by the sperm.

47
Q

Meiosis vs Mitosis

A

Mitosis and meiosis are both types of cell division, but they differ in several ways:

(1) Purpose
Mitosis is a process that occurs during growth and tissue repair, while meiosis is a process that occurs during sexual reproduction.

(2) Products
Mitosis produces two identical daughter cells, while meiosis produces four non-identical, haploid sex cells or gametes (sperm and ova in humans)

(3) Number of chromosomes
Mitosis produces diploid cells, while meiosis produces haploid cells, which have half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

(4) Tetrad formation
Tetrad formation occurs during meiosis, but not during mitosis. In prophase I of meiosis, homologous chromosomes pair up to form a tetrad, which consists of four chromatids.

Steps
Before either mitosis or meiosis occurs, cells go through a preparatory process called interphase, where they grow and make a copy of their genetic information.

The steps of mitosis are prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase, and cytokinesis.

The steps of meiosis are prophase I, prometaphase I, metaphase I, anaphase I, telophase I, and cytokinesis I; and then again II

48
Q

Steps of mitosis

A

Mitosis has six phases apart from interphase. The first five phases divide the nucleus and its genetic information in half, while the final step splits the entire parent cell into two identical daughter cells. The phases of mitosis are:

Prophase: Chromosomes, which contain genetic information, condense and prepare to attach to the spindle—a cellular machine that moves chromosomes during cell division.

Prometaphase: The nuclear membrane—a structure that typically contains the chromosomes—breaks apart, the spindle forms, and chromosomes attach to its strong, hollow fibers.

Metaphase: Chromosomes align along the spindle’s center.

Anaphase: Chromosomes pull apart and move toward the spindle’s poles, which also move apart.

Telophase: New nuclear envelopes form around the two separated sets of chromosomes.

Cytokinesis: Cells divide.

49
Q

Steps of meiosis

A

Meiosis has similar steps to mitosis but with two sets of divisions. The first division results in two cells that each have two sets of chromosomes, like in mitosis. The second division creates four cells that each contain one set of chromosomes, because the genetic information isn’t copied a second time. One unique feature of meiosis, which takes place during the first round of prophase (prophase I), is a process called crossing over. DNA is mixed between matching chromosomes from the different parents, increasing the genetic diversity.

50
Q

Aneuploidy

A

Aneuploidy is where there is loss or gain of a whole chromosome.

This is often due to nondisjunction where there is failed separation of chromosomes during anaphase, so either whole chromosomes (error occurring in meiosis I) or chromatids (error occurring in meiosis II) move to the same pole of the cell. This leaves one gamete short of some genetic information, and the other with additional genetic information.

Monosomy – one copy of a chromosome, e.g. Turner syndrome (45, X)
Trisomy – three copies of a chromosome, e.g. Edward’s syndrome (trisomy 18)

51
Q

Translocation

A

Abnormalities in chromosome structure are often due to translocations, where there is an exchange of material between two chromosomes, resulting in an abnormal rearrangement. If there is no gain or loss of genetic material, this is a balanced translocation, however, if the exchange of chromosomal material results in extra or missing genes in a daughter cell, it is known as unbalanced and can have clinical effects.

There are two types of chromosomal translocation. Reciprocal translocations take place when the chromosomes break within the arms of the chromosome and Robertsonian translocations take place when whole chromosomes join end to end.

52
Q

Types of chromosomal abnormalities

A

Aneuploidy: abnormal number of chromosomes in a cell (e.g. Trisomy Downs 21, Monosomy Turner X)

Translocation: rearrangement of chromosomes where part of one chromosome breaks off and attaches to another chromosome. Can be balanced (where there is no loss or gain of genetic material) or unbalanced (where genetic material is lost or gained). (e.g. Philadelphia chromosome, which is a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22, linked to chronic myelogenous leukemia.)

Inversion: This occurs when a segment of a chromosome is reversed or inverted. The genetic material is rearranged, but the amount of genetic material does not change. It can lead to issues if the inversion disrupts important genes or the chromosome’s ability to pair properly during cell division.

Duplication: A portion of the chromosome is duplicated, resulting in extra copies of a segment of DNA. This can lead to disorders if the duplicated genes are expressed abnormally. (e.g. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease type 1A, duplication on chromosome 17)

Deletion: A segment of the chromosome is missing, resulting in the loss of genetic material. Depending on the size and location of the deletion, this can lead to various genetic disorders, such as cri-du-chat syndrome.

Isochromosome: A chromosome that has identical arms due to the loss of one arm and duplication of the other. This can lead to conditions like Patau syndrome (trisomy 13).

Ring Chromosome: A chromosome that forms a ring shape due to the ends of the chromosome being fused together. This can lead to genetic disorders because of the loss of genetic material at the ends of the chromosome.

53
Q

Pregnancy test MOA

A

Urine pregnancy testing is a type of sandwich enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) and utilises monoclonal antibodies to detect HCG present within urine.

Mechanism:
When urine comes into contact with the test strip, it passes through the capillary bed. Along the strip, there are three important zones:
Reaction zone
Test zone
Control zone

As urine passes into the ‘reaction’ zone, monoclonal antibodies specific to HCG bind to any HCG present within the urine and these HCG-antibody complexes are carried along the strip. Any unbound antibodies will also be carried along the strip.

At the ‘test’ zone, there are more anti-HCG antibodies which are fixed to this area of the strip. They will bind to the HCG component of the HCG-antibody complexes and a chemical reaction between them results in a colour change. This causes the test zone of the strip to change colour. If there is no HCG within the sample, the antibodies will not bind and no colour reaction will take place.

The antibody complexes will continue to travel along the strip to the ‘control’ zone. Antibodies located in the control zone will bind to the antibody component of the HCG-antibody complex. If there is no HCG present, the antibodies at the control zone will still bind to the antibodies that have traveled up from the reaction zone and a colour change will occur. This confirms that the test has worked.

54
Q

In women aged 40-44 years, what proportion of pregnancies result in miscarriage?

A

51%

55
Q

Diagnostic ultrasound scanning in early pregnancy is commonly performed at what frequency?

A

Pelvic ultrasound typically uses frequencies of 3.5 – 7.0 megahertz (MHz), with the

  • transabdominal transducer using 3.5 – 5.0 MHz
  • transvaginal transducer >5 MHz

For comparison, the upper limit of human hearing is approximately 20 kilohertz (KHz)

56
Q

MTOP UPT following

A

(1) low-sensitivity urine pregnancy test (detection limit 1000IU hCG) from 2 weeks after treatment or

(2) high-sensitivity test (detection 50IU hCG or less) from 4 weeks after treatment.

57
Q

What % of twins in the UK are monochorionic?

A

30%

58
Q

Fetal Haemaglobin

A

The primary form of haemaglobin from around 12 weeks gestation to 6 months post-partum (50% when born)

Synthesis begins at around 6 weeks gestation

Composed of the heme subunits: alpha, alpha, gamma, gamma

The gamma subunit has a high binding affinity for oxygen and is encoded by chromosome 11

59
Q

The vitelline duct connects the embryo to the yolk sac during early embryonic development. Failure of vitelline duct closure leads to what congenital abnormality?

A

The yolk sac derives from the hypoblast and is connected to the midgut of the embryo via the vitelline duct (also known as the omphaloenteric duct or omphalomesenteric duct). Development begins during week 2 of embryonic development and becomes visible on ultrasound from 5 weeks gestation.

The yolk sac spontaneously separates from the embryo via obliteration of the vitelline duct. Failure of the vitelline duct to close results in Meckel’s diverticulum, the most common congenital abnormality of the small bowel (often asymptomatic).

60
Q

Gestational choriocarcinoma
Define
Prevalence
Ultrasound appearances

A

Malignant transformation of trophoblastic tissue

Rare: 1 in 50,000 pregnancies

More common with abnormally developing pregnancies such as complete molar pregnancy (50%) or ectopic pregnancy/miscarriage (25%)

2% of complete molar pregnancies result in choriocarcinoma

Metastatic spread is most commonly to the lungs

Management: Chemotherapy

Ultrasound appearances:
Heterogenous mass within an enlarged uterus
Invasion of the myometrium
Cystic spaces associated with haemorrhage
No fetal parts

61
Q

Confirming miscarriage on USS

A
  1. Look for Fetal HB. No HB:
    (a) if visible fetal pole, measure the crown–rump length (CRL)
    (b) if no visible fetal pole, measure mean gestational sac diameter (MSD)
  2. CRL TVS
    < 7 mm : second scan min 7 days after first
    7mm or more : seek second opinion and/or second scan min 7 days after first
  3. CRL TA
    record the size of the CRL and perform a second scan a minimum of 14 days after the first before making a diagnosis.
  4. MSD TVS
    < 25.0 mm : second scan min 7 days after first
    25.0 mm or more : seek second opinion and/or second scan min 7 days after first
  5. MSD TA
    record the size of the MSD and perform a second scan a minimum of 14 days after the first before making a diagnosis.
62
Q

Using ultrasound scans for diagnosis of tubal ectopic pregnancy

A

There IS a tubal ectopic:
an adnexal mass, moving separate to the ovary (sometimes called the ‘sliding sign’), comprising a gestational sac containing a
(1) yolk sac or
(2) fetal pole (with or without fetal heartbeat)

There is a HIGH PROBABILITY:
an adnexal mass, moving separately to the ovary, with
(1) an empty gestational sac (sometimes described as a ‘tubal ring’ or ‘bagel sign’) or
(2) a complex, inhomogeneous adnexal mass, moving separate to the ovary.

There is a POSSIBILITY:
(1) an empty uterus or
(2) a collection of fluid within the uterine cavity (pseudo-sac); this collection of fluid must be differentiated from an early intrauterine sac, which is identified by the presence of an eccentrically located hypoechoic structure with a double decidual sign [gestational sac surrounded by 2 concentric echogenic rings] in the endometrium.

63
Q

endometrial cast

A

An endometrial cast, also known as a decidual cast, is a rare condition where the entire uterine lining is shed in one piece, rather than gradually over several days.

Pink, fleshy, and solid, with a shiny appearance, size of palm.

Causes: Hormone disruption or imbalance, such as from birth control medication, hormonal treatments, or ectopic pregnancy.

Can be mistaken for POC on o/e - still important to do hcgs

64
Q

Postabortion hemorrhage

A

excessive bleeding that requires a clinical response such as transfusion or hospital admission, and/or bleeding in excess of 500mL

0-3 per 1,000 cases following medical abortion up to 9 weeks gestation or vacuum aspiration before 13 weeks gestation,

0.9-10 per 1,000 cases following uterine evacuation at or after 13 weeks gestation

Causes of bleeding include placenta previa or accreta, uterine atony, retained products of conception, cervical or vaginal laceration, uterine injury, and coagulopathy

65
Q
A

Take thurough hx:
obstetric complications – especially hemorrhage, having had two or more cesarean deliveries, a bleeding disorder, gestational age of more than 20 weeks, fetal death, obesity, increased maternal age, and placenta previa or accreta

prevent or prepare for increased bleeding —such as assessing a preabortion hemoglobin or hematocrit, ensuring uterotonic medications are readily available, preparing for possible transfusion, or referral to a higher-level facility

Administration of prophylactic oxytocin or syntocinon (five or 10 units) has not been shown to decrease postprocedure bleeding following first-trimester vacuum aspiration in a clinically meaningful way

When administered prior to dilatation and evacuation (D&E) procedures performed between 18-24 weeks, 30 units of oxytocin

66
Q

From which gestation are osmotic dilators advised for cervical preparation during STOP?

A

Osmotic dilators are advised for cervical preparation from 14 weeks gestation. Misoprostol can also be considered as an alternative (up to 18 weeks gestation), however its efficacy is inferior to osmotic dilators.

67
Q

Uterine atony

A

The most common cause of post-partum haemorrhage. Inadequate contraction of the myometrium results in heavy bleeding. The uterus feels soft and distended on palpation.

Risk factors include: increased maternal age, high BMI, previous caeserean section, abnormal placentation, bleeding disorders and gestation >20 weeks

Acute management:
1. Bimanual uterine massage
2. Uterotonics
3. Re-aspiration/evacuation
4. Intrauterine tamponade (Foley balloon)
5. Urgent senior surgical review

When bleeding continues after assurance of complete uterine evacuation and no visible lacerations, providers must consider other complications, such as perforation, coagulopathy or placenta accreta

If coagulopathy (e.g. DIC) is present, blood products may be required. Surgical measures including hysterectomy, uterine compression sutures, uterine artery ligation or uterine artery embolization can be performed for severe bleeding that cannot be controlled by other measures. Providers at health centers without available operating theaters or expertise should have clear protocols for resuscitation and transfer to a higher level of care. Individuals at risk of shock require intravenous line placement, supplemental oxygen, fluid resuscitation and replacement of blood products as indicated.

68
Q

Uterotonic medications and dosages:

A

Methylergonovine (Ergometrine)
0.2mg intramuscularly or intracervically; can be repeated every 2-4 hours. Avoid in people with hypertension.

Misoprostol
800mcg buccally or sublingually

Oxytocin
10-40 units per 500-1000mL fluid intravenously or 10 units intramuscularly

Intrauterine tamponade
Sterile gauze or, 30-75mL Foley catheter balloon, condom catheter or obstetric balloon placed in uterus

69
Q
A