Quick Crams Flashcards

1
Q

NNT

A

= 1/ARR (absolute risk reduction - ALSO KNOWN AS RISK DIFFERENCE or attributable risk)

ARR = (control event rate) - (experimental event rate)

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2
Q

Weight

A

= (age +4) x2

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3
Q

Bioavailability

A

= AUC(oral) / AUC(IV)

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4
Q

Volume of distribution

A

= Dose(IV) / plasma concentration

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5
Q

Mid parental height

A

= (M+F +/- 13) / 2

Range +/- 8cm

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6
Q

Height velocity

A

= difference b/w 2 heights divided by time x12 (measured per year)

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7
Q

Likelihood ratios

A
Positive = sens/(100%-spec)
Negative = (100-sens)/spec
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8
Q

Mixed venous sats

A

= (3xSVC)+(1xIVC) / 4

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9
Q

Qp:Qs

A

= (Ao sats - MV sats) / (PV sat - PA sat)

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10
Q

Pressure conversion mmHg and kPa

A

7.5

I.e. 100 kPa = 750mmHg

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11
Q

Osmolarity

A

= 2xNa + glucose + urea

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12
Q

Urine anion gap

A

= Na + K - Cl

Gap influenced by ammonium = positively charge. Therefore if gap negative, suggests high urinary ammonium, suggests kidneys can secrete H+ (i.e. not distal/type1 RTA).

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13
Q

Insensible losses

A

= 400mL/m^2/day

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14
Q

eGFR

A

= 36.5 x height(cm) / creatinine

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15
Q

CYP450 inducers

A

CRAP GPS

Carbamazepine (can autoinduce), rifampicin, alcohol, phenytoin, griseofulcin, phenobarbitone, sulfonyluea

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16
Q

CYP450 inhibitors

A

SICKFACES.COM

Sodium valproate, isoniazid, cimetidine, ketoconazole, fluconazole, alcohol, chlorampheicol, erythromycin, sulfonamide, ciprofloxacin, omeprazole, metronidazole

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17
Q

ABCB4

A

PFIC3 - MDR3 deficiency

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18
Q

EPCAM

A

Tufting enteropathy

Lynch syndrome

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19
Q

JAG1

A

Alagille’s

Also NOTCH2 but less common

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20
Q

MYO5B

A

Microvillus inclusion disease

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21
Q

NOD2

A

IBD/Crohn’s

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22
Q

SERPINA1

A

A1AT

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23
Q

ATP7B

A

Wilson’s disease

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24
Q

HRAS

A

Costello syndrome

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25
Q

APC

A

Familial adenomatous polyposis

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26
Q

STK11

A

Peutz Jeghers syndrome

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27
Q

RET

A

Hirschprungs

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28
Q

UGTP81

A

Gilberts

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29
Q

SBDS

A

Shwachmann Diamond syndrome

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30
Q

UGTA1A

A

Crigler Najjar

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31
Q

FOXP3

A

IPEX

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32
Q

SCL5A1

A

Glucose galactose malabsorption

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33
Q

ALDOB

A

Hereditary fructose intolerance

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34
Q

MECP2

A

Rett syndrome

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35
Q

FBN1

A

Marfan syndrome

Fibrillin 1

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36
Q

COL2A1

A

Stickler syndrome

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37
Q

NSD1

A

Sotos syndrome

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38
Q

SCN1A

A

Dravet syndrome

Genetic epilepsy with febrile seizures plus

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39
Q

KCNQ2 and 3

A

Benign familial neonatal convulsions

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40
Q

CYP21A and B

A

21 hydroxylase deficiency -> CAH

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41
Q

SHOX

A

Short stature homeobox
On X and Y chromosomes
Relevant for height in Turner, Klinefelter, etc

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42
Q

SPRED1

A

Legius syndrome

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43
Q

Causes pancreatic insufficiency

A

CF
Shwachmann Diamond
Pearson
Johanson-Blizzard

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44
Q

Hyperammonaemia acute treatment

A

Benzoate

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45
Q

Radial ray syndromes

A
Cornelia de Lange
Fanconi anaemia
Holt Oram
T18 (Edward)
VACTERYL
Others
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46
Q

Jervell LangeNeilsen syndrome

A

AR Long QT with congenital SNHL/deafness

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47
Q

Anticholinergic antidote

A

Physostigmine

Supportive

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48
Q

Cholinergic antidote

A

Atropine

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49
Q

Sympathomimetic/amphetamine antidote

A

Supportive
Adrenergic blocker but avoid BB
Benzos
Dantrolene

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50
Q

NMS antidote

A

Bromocriptine
Amantadine
Dantrolene

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51
Q

Serotonin syndrome antidote

A

Cyproheptadine
Olanzapine
Benzos

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52
Q

Benzos antidote

A

Flumazenil

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53
Q

Iron antidote

A

Desferrioxamine

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54
Q

Isoniazide antidote

A

Pyridoxine /B6

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55
Q

Malignant hyperthermia antidote

A

Dantrolene

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56
Q

Methaemoglobinaemia antidote

A

Methylene blue

Ascorbic acid

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57
Q

Opioid antidote

A

Naloxone

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58
Q

Paracetamol antidote

A

N acetyl cysteine

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59
Q

Sulphonylurea antidote

A

Octreotide

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60
Q

TCA antidote

A

Sodium bicarbonate

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61
Q

Warfarin antidote

A

Vitamin K
FFP
Prothrombinex

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62
Q

CCB antidote

A

Calcium

High dose insulin therapy

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63
Q

Dystonic reaction antidote

A

Benztropine

Diphenhydramine

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64
Q

Beta blocker antidote

A

Adrenaline
High dose insulin therapy
Calcium

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65
Q

Ethylene glycol antidote

A

Ethanol

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66
Q

Bupivacaine / local anaesthetic antidote

A

Intralipid

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67
Q

Hypertensive crisis antidote

A

Nitroprusside

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68
Q

SOS/VOD treatmetn

A

Defibrotide

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69
Q

Components cryoprecipitate

A

VWF, F8, fibronigen

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70
Q

Invasive pneumococcal infection <2yo/neonates

A

Consider toll like receptor defect

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71
Q

Recurrent Neisseria

A

Complement defect, MAC

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72
Q

Recurrent sinopulmonary infections

A

B cell defect or complement defect

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73
Q

Inability of B cells to differentiate into plasma cells capable of secreting all immunoglobulin types

A

Characteristic feature of CVID

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74
Q

Male neonate with encephalopathy and respiratory alkalosis

A

UCD/OTC

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75
Q

Normal distribution standard deviations

A
1 = 68% of population
2 = 95%
3 = 99.7%
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76
Q

Penicillin MOA

A

Block ability to cross link peptidoglycan polymers, inhibit cell wall synthesis

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77
Q

Vancomycin MOA

A

Bind terminal D-alanyl-D-alanine residues during cell wall synthesis

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78
Q

Ciprofloxacin MOA

A

Fluoroquinolone
Inhibits DNA gyrase
Resistance via efflux pump, proteins that bind and protect DNA gyrase, reduced affinity to quinolones

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79
Q

Aminoglycoside MOA

A

Bind 30S subunit

Prevent 50S subunit binding, therefore no protein synthesis

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80
Q

Macrolide MOA

A

Reversible binding 50S subunit

Prevent joining/binding amino acids together

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81
Q

Tetracycline MOA

A

Reversible binding 30S subunit

Prevent tRNA alignment

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82
Q

TMP/SMX MOA

A

Block folinic acid synthesis

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83
Q

Nitrofurantoin MOA

A

Damages bacterial DNA

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84
Q

DIOS treatment

A

Oral gastrografin

Others

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85
Q

Myopia, risk of retinal detachment, SNHL, MVP, joint hypermobility

A

Stickler syndrome
COL2A1
Abnormal production/assembly collage type 2

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86
Q

Unibrow, arched eyebrows, long eyelashes, hirsuit, ulnar ray defects

A

Cornelia de Lange

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87
Q

4-10yo with overgrowth and mild ID

A

Sotos syndrome

Homocysteinuria as well, but have ectopia lentis (down), stiff joints

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88
Q

Reactive arthritis, urethritis/balanitis/cystitis, conjunctivitis

A

Reiter syndrome

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89
Q

Recurrent aphthous ulcers, genital ulcers, uveitis

A

Behcet syndrome

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90
Q

AR periodic fever syndromes

A

FMF

Hyper IgD with period fevers

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91
Q

FMF

A

Recurrent short 1-3 day self limited episodes of fever, serositis, arthritis, rash (classically ankle/dorsum foot).
Variable frequency, weeks to years.
Colchicine
Amyloidosis is most serious complication

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92
Q

HIDS

A

<6mp
Fever 3-7 days, N/V/D, abdo pain (+/- LN, rash, arthritis, splenomegaly)
Improve with age

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93
Q

TRAPS

A

Tumour necrosis factor receptor associated periodic syndrome
Episodes of: fever, abdo pain, myalgia, rash, conjunctivitis, chest pain, arthralgia
Last >5 days, can last weeks
Steroids, not colchicine

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94
Q

PFAPA

A

Periodic fever, aphthous stomatitis, pharyngitis, adenitis.
Most common recurrent fever syndrome in children.
2-5yo
4-6 days, every 3-6 weeks like clockwork
Improve with age
Dramatic response to pred

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95
Q

Raised homocysteine

A

B12 or folate deficiency
B12 has raise methylmalonic acid as well

May be other causes

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96
Q

Pasturella

A

Type of bacteria

Animal bites, e.g. dogs (canis), cats (mulocida)

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97
Q

Fanconi syndrome causes

A

Acquired: drugs (aminoglycosides, cisplatin, ifosfamide, valproate, deferasinox), metals (lead, mercury, cadmium), vitamin D disorders

Congenital: Dent, cystinosis, tyrosinemia, galactosemia, Wilsons, hereditary fructose intolerance, mitochondrial myopathies

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98
Q

Central causes precocious puberty

A

Hypothalamic hamartoma (most common, a/w gelastic seizures), severe untreated hypothyroidism, other brain tumours, hydrocephalus, head trauma

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99
Q

CD40L

A
Hyper IgM syndrome
Needed for class switching
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100
Q

WASP gene

A

Wiskott Aldrich syndrome protein

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101
Q

BTK

A

X-linked agammaglobulinaemia

Bruton tyrosine kinase

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102
Q

Sweaty sock odour

A

Isovaleric acidaemia

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103
Q

NST Victoria conditions

A

Condition Synonyms

3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl CoA
lyase HMG CoA lyase
3-methylglutaryl CoA hydratase 3-methylglutaconic aciduria type 1
Argininosuccinic aciduria Argininosuccinate lyase
Citrullinaemia type 1 Argininosuccinate synthetase
Beta ketothiolase T2 deficiency, 3-oxothiolase
Maple syrup urine disease MSUD, branched chain keto acid dehydrogenase
(mild/intermittent forms may not be detected)
Carnitine palmitoyl transferase 1 CPT1
Carnitine palmitoyl transferase 2 CPT2
Carnitine uptake defect CUD, systemic carnitine deficiency, carnitine transporter defect,
OCTN2 defect
2 Carnitine-acyl carnitine translocase CACT
Cobalamin disorders cblC, cblD, cblF disease
Cystic fibrosis CFTR
Homocystinuria Cystathionine betasynthase, CBS (vitamin responsive forms may not
be detected)
Hypothyroidism
Glutaric aciduria type 1 Glutaryl CoA dehydrogenase, GA1
Holocarboxylase synthase HCS, multiple carboxylase deficiency, MCD
Isovaleryl CoA dehydrogenase Isovaleric acidaemia, IVA
Medium-chain acyl CoA
dehydrogenase MCAD
Methylmalonic acidaemia Methylmalonyl CoA mutase, MMA, cblA, cblB disease
Mitochodrial trifunctional protein Long-chain hydroxy acyl carnitine dehydrogenase, LCHAD, MTP
Multiple acyl CoA dehydrogenase MADD, glutaric aciduria type 2, GA2, ETF deficiency
Phenylketonuria PKU, phenylalanine hydroxylase, including tetrahydrobiopterin defects
Propionic acidaemia Propionyl CoA carboxylase, PA, ketotic hyperglycinaemia
Tyrosinaemia 2 Tyrosine aminotransferase
Very long chain acyl CoA
dehydrogenase VLCAD

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104
Q

Cystinosis treatment

A

Cysteamine

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105
Q

Apert syndrome

A

Acrocephaly, facial underdevelopment, syndactyly, learning disability.

Acrocephaly = oxycephaly = high pointed head, sutures involved coronal sagittal and lambdoid.

More severe than Crouzon

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106
Q

Crouzon syndrome

A

Acrocephaly, scaphocephaly, or brachycephaly
Hypertelerosim, exophthalmos, increased ICP, learning disability.
Milder than Apert

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107
Q

Sacphocephaly

A

Elongated narrow skull

Sagittal suture

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108
Q

Brachycephaly

A

Short, broad skull

Both coronal sutures involved

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109
Q

Plagiocephaly

A

Unilateral flattening of skull

Single coronal suture, occasionally lambdoid

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110
Q

Trigonocephaly

A

Narrow, pointed forehead

Metopic suture involved

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111
Q

Kleeblattschädel

A

Also known as cloverleaf deformity, occurs when multiple sutures fuse prematurely. The coronal, lambdoid, and metopic sutures are most frequently affected. Bulging of the skull through the open sagittal and temporosquamosal sutures produces a trilobate skull. Kleeblattschädel is a rare anomaly, with fewer than 130 cases reported in the literature. Kleeblattschädel is the most severe form of cranial dysostoses. Nearly all affected patients have hydrocephalus and intellectual disability.

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112
Q

Craniosynostosis syndromes

A
Apert
Crouzon
Pfeiffer
Carpenter
SAETHRE-CHOTZEN SYNDROME
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113
Q

COL1A1 and 2

A
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Treat with bisphosphonates
Clinical features:
Fractures with minimal or no trauma
Dental abnormalities (dentogenesis imperfecta)
Hearing loss
Blue sclerae
Osteoporosis
Wormian bones (extra bones within cranial sutures)
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114
Q

Interrupted eyebrows

A

Kabuki syndrome

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115
Q

Shwachman Diamond Syndrome

A
GIT
***Pancreatic Insufficiency***
Hematological 
***Bone Marrow Failure***
Malignancy: AML

Exocrine pancreatic dysfunction, cytopenias, and abnormalities of bone

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116
Q

USH2A

A

Usher syndrome
Genetic disorder affecting the cochlear and retina
Most common form of syndromic retinitis pigmentosa (2nd most common = Bardet-Biedl)

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117
Q

TCOF1

A

Treacher Collins

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118
Q

Types/causes of shock

A

Hypovolaemic (haemorrhage, gastroenteritis, intussusception, burns)
Distributive (septicaemia, anaphylaxis, spinal cord injury e.g. neurogenic)
Cardiogenic (arrhythmia, heart failure, valve disease)
Obstructive (congenital cardiac, tension pneumothorax, flail chest, tamponade, PE)
Dissociative (profound anaemia, carbon monoxide poisoning, methaemoglobinaemia)

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119
Q

Eikenella corrodens

A

Human bites (30%)
GN rod, normal mucosal commensal, hard to grow.
Penicillin, 3rd gen cephalosporin

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120
Q

Toxidromes - sympathomimetic

A

Amphetamines: MDMA, ecstasy, meth, ice
Cocaine, caffeine
Ritalin, LSD, theophylline
Everything up: tachycardic, tachypnoeic, hypertermic, dilated pupils (reactive), increased bowel sounds, diaphoresis
CF anticholingeric: no diaphoretic, reduced bowel sounds, urine retention

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121
Q

Toxidromes - anticholinergic

A

Examples: atropine, antihistamines, amitriptyline
Tachycardic, hyperthermic, dilated pupils
Reduced bowel sounds, normal RR, dry/no diaphoresis
Non reactive pupils
Picking behaviours

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122
Q

Toxidromes - serotonin syndrome

A

Examples: TCA, MAOI, SSRI, St Johns Wart, amphetamines, tramadol
CLONUS
Abrupt onset, rapidly resolving, myoclonus+tremor, hyperreflexia, mydriasis (dilated - d for dilated)

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123
Q

Toxidromes - neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A

Neuroleptics = antipsychotics, especially haloperidol
Life threatening idiosyncratic reaction due to dopamine blockade
Gradual onset usually 4-14 days, prolonged course
Fever, diaphoresis, unstable BP, altered conscious state, rigidity (diffuse)
Hyporeflexia
Normal pupils

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124
Q

Toxidromes - cholinergics

A

E.g. organic phosphorous compounds, nerve agents, nicotine poisoning, poisonous fungi
miosis, increased bowel sounds, diaphoresis
NORMAL HR, RR, temperature
Treat with atropine

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125
Q

Toxidromes - opioids

A

Bradycardia, bradypnoea, hypothermia, miosis, reduced bowel sounds, dry/no diaphoresis

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126
Q

Toxidromes - TCA

A

Sedation, coma, seizure, hypotension, tachycardia
BROAD QRS
Anticholinergic syndrome can occur too
Treat with sodium bicarbonate

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127
Q

Toxidromes - BB or CCB

A

Bradycardia, hypotension, reduced conscious state

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128
Q

Activated charcoal - indications, contraindications

A

(RCH guideline)

List of selected toxins where activated charcoal may be considered:
Amisulpride
Chloroquine, hydroxychloroquine or quinine
Calcium channel blockers, particularly verapamil and diltiazem
Carbamazepine
Colchicine
Beta Blockers
Flecainide
Methotrexate Paraquat/diquat

List of toxins where Charcoal is NOT helpful and contraindicated:
Acid and Alkalis / corrosives
Cyanide
Ethanol/methanol/glycols
Eucalyptus and Essential Oils
Fluoride
Hydrocarbons
Metals - including Lithium, Iron compounds, potassium, lead
Mineral acids - Boric acid

Adverse Effects:
Respiratory - aspiration, progressive respiratory failure; Death.
Beware oral use with drowsiness, or following the ingestion of substances which could cause rapidly reduced CNS depression or may cause seizures
Faecal discolouration
GI obstruction: by bezoar formation

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129
Q

Brugada syndrome

A

Due to a mutation in the cardiac sodium channel gene

RBBB V1-3 with STE and negative T wave
Tachyarrhythmia from fever - may mimic febrile convulsion
SCD a/w sleep/fever

Treat with ICD

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130
Q

VACTERL association

A

V – vertebral (60-80%, fused, misshapen, additional vertebra)
A – anal (90% - anal atresia)
C – cardiac (40-80%)
VSD most common
T – trachea-oesophageal fistula (50-80%)
R – renal (50%, most common = renal agenesis)
L – limb (50%, missing thumb or poorly developed forearms/hands)

Can occur with Fanconi anaemia

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131
Q

CHARGE syndrome

A

C – Coloboma
H – Heart anomalies
Most common: TOF*, ASD, AVSD, arch
A – choanal Atresia
R – Retardation of growth/development (ID)
G – genital anomalies (unilateral renal agenesis, renal hypoplasia, duplex kidney, UPJO or VUR)
E - Ear anomalies (asymmetric, small, cup-shaped, wide helix)

Caused by mutations of CHD7 on chromosome 8q12.

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132
Q

APECED

A

Autoimmune polyendocrinopathy-candidiasis-ectodermal dystrophy
Due to mutations in AIRE gene (important for synthesis of autoimmune regulator protein)

Classic triad:
Mucocutaneous candidiasis (presenting ft in 60%, all will have by age 40)
Hypoparathyroidism (30% initially, 80% eventually affected)
Hypocalcemia and hypomagnesemia can be difficult to control -> seizures
Adrenal failure (5% at presentation, 60% by age 15)

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133
Q

Albright hereditary osteodystrophy

A

Type 1a pseudohypoparathyroidism
Loss of function mutation of GNAS1 (PTH receptor)
Requires maternal transmission for expression
GNAS1 is also expressed in the thyroid, gonads and pituitary glands

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134
Q

Wolfram syndrome

A

AKA DIDMOAD

= diabetes insipidus, diabetes mellitus, optic atrophy and deafness

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135
Q

Evan’s syndrome

A

Auotimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA) + immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) and/or autoimmune neutropenia
Accounts for 15-30% of paediatric AIHA
Prognosis: more difficult to treat than AIHA alone and tends to have a chronic relapsing course
No specific underlying defect identified

Presentation:
Typically present with AIHA and then develop additional cytopenias months-years later
Or present with ITP and subsequently develop AIHA

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136
Q

Kawasaki criteria

A
Fever 5+ days, with 4/5:
Conjunctivitis
Rash
Oral changes
Extremity changes
Lymphadenopathy
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137
Q

Jones criteria

A

For rheumatic fever

MAJOR
Carditis
Polyarthritis
Chorea, Sydenhams
Erythema marginatum
Subcutaneous nodules

MINOR
Fever, polyarthralgia
Raised CRP/ESR
Prolonged PR on ECG

Supporting evidence of preceding strep infection w/i 45 days.

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138
Q

Cytokine release syndrome

A

Acute systemic inflammatory syndrome, fever and multiple organ dysfunction, d/t: CAR-T cell therapy, monoclonal antibodies, haploidentical allogenic transplant

Essentially an extreme infusion reaction. Usually within 2-3 days of inciting agent, but up to 2 weeks.

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139
Q

Fanconi anaemia

A

Fanconi anemia (FA) is an inherited bone marrow failure syndrome characterized by pancytopenia, predisposition to malignancy, and physical abnormalities including short stature, microcephaly, developmental delay, café-au-lait skin lesions, and malformations belonging to the VACTERL-H association.

DNA fragility syndrome
Pancytopenia
Congenital abnormalities at birth (25% will be normal)

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140
Q

Diamond Blackfan anaemia

A

Diamond-Blackfan anemia (DBA) is a congenital erythroid aplasia that classically presents in infancy. It is characterized by a progressive normochromic, usually macrocytic, anemia; congenital malformations (in approximately 50 percent of patients); and predisposition to cancer. Approximately 90 percent of patients with DBA are diagnosed within the first year of life, with 35 percent diagnosed within the first month.

Management
Steroids
Blood transfusions
Iron chelation therapy

DDX: TEC - Transient erythroblastopenia of childhood (TEC) is the most common cause of pure red blood cell aplasia in children and should be suspected in an otherwise healthy child with anemia and reticulocytopenia. TEC is a self-limited illness and typically presents between the ages of one and four years.

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141
Q

Warm vs cold AIHA

A

Warm-reactive AIHA – The most common form of primary AIHA in children, accounting for 60 to 90 percent of cases, involves warm-reactive autoantibodies, usually immunoglobulin G (IgG), that bind preferentially to the red cells at 37°C, leading to extravascular hemolysis mainly in the spleen, with resulting anemia, jaundice and, occasionally, splenomegaly. In some cases, IgG is present in sufficient quantity and proximity to fix complement, resulting in features of concomitant intravascular hemolysis.

Cold agglutinin disease – Cold agglutinin disease is relatively uncommon in children, amounting to approximately 10 percent of cases, most commonly occurring after Mycoplasma pneumoniae or Epstein-Barr virus infection. In this disorder, immunoglobulin M (IgM) autoantibodies bind erythrocyte I/i or, rarely, anti-PR antigens at colder temperatures and fix complement, which leads to anemia, either due to complement-mediated intravascular hemolysis or immune-mediated extravascular clearance, mainly by hepatic macrophages.

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142
Q

NF1 diagnostic criteria

A

2+ of:

6+ CALMs
Axillary/inguinal freckling
Optic glioma
2+ Lisch nodules (iris hamartomas)
2+ neurofibromas (or 1+ plexiform neurofibroma)
Distinctive osseous lesion (sphenoid dysplasia, tibial pseudoarthrosis)
First degree relative with NF1

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143
Q

TS criteria

A
MAJOR
Hypomelanotic lesion (3+ being >5mm)
3+ angiofibromas
2+ ungual fibromas
Shagreen patch
Retinal hamartomas
Coritcal dysplasias
Subependymal nodules
Subependymal giant cell astrocytoma
Cardiac rhabdomyoma
Lymphangioleiomyomatosis
2+ angiomyolipomas
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144
Q

Zellweger syndrome

A
Peroxisomal disorder
AR - PEX1 or 6 most common
Prognosis: 6 months
Increased VLCFA
High forehead, patent fontanelles
Severe hypotonia and poor sucking and swallowing
Poor subsequent neurological development
A/W cerebral gyral abnormalities
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145
Q

PEX 1 or 6

A

Zellweger syndrome

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146
Q

Cherry-red spot

A

Tay-Sachs disease (sphingolipidosis - lysosomal storage disorder)
Sandhoff disease
GM1 gangliosidosis type 1
Niemann-Pick disease (A, C, D) (sphingolipidosis)
Sialidosis type 2
Farber disease
Mucolipidosis 1

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147
Q

Metabolites: VLCFA

A

Peroxisomal disorders e.g. Zellweger, adrenoleukodystrophy

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148
Q

Metabolites: 7-dehydrocholesterol

A

Smith-Lemli-Opitz syndrome

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149
Q

Metabolites: urine glycosaminoglycans and oligosaccharides

A

Mucopolysaccharidoses and mucolipidoses

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150
Q

Metabolites: urinary reducing substances

A

Galactosaemia

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151
Q

Metabolites: urinary AASA

A

Pyridoxine-dependent seizures

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152
Q

PKU

A

Phenylketonuria - most common IEM in the UK, carrier rate 1 in 50.
Untreated: DD in first year of life, learning disability, behavioural problems, decreased pigmentation, dry skin
Treated: Asymptomatic
Dx: raised phenylalanine, usually NST
Rx: Dietary restriction

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153
Q

Galactosaemia

A

Neonatal: jaundice, hepatomegaly, coagulopathy, oil-drop cataracts
Later: FTT, proximal tubulopathy, rickets
A/W E. coli sepsis
Dx: urinary reducing substances, Gal-1-PUT (unless received transfusion, then screen parents)
Rx: Lactose-galactose free diet

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154
Q

Tay Sachs

A

2-6 mo old – progressive weakness and loss of motor skills; hypotonia, hyperreflexia, cherry red macula
Macrocephaly
Seizures, blindness, spasticity
Death by 2-5 yo usually; secondary to pneumonia

Lysosomal storage disorder / sphingolipidosis
Hex A and B

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155
Q

Myotonic dystrophy

A

Neuromuscular condition
Severity relates to size of CTG triplet repeat

Congenital: unrecognised in mother, preceding polyhydramnios, born unexpectedly flat with facial weakness, hypotonia, respiratory failure, arthrogryposes, joint contractures

Older children/adults: facial weakness, progressive weakness, difficulty relaxing muscular contraction, cardiac involvement

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156
Q

Lesch Nyhan syndrome

A

Motor Disorder + Self Mutilation + Hyperuricemia
X-Linked Recessive

Features
Motor: Dystonia, spasticity, choreoathetosis 
Self mutilating behaviour
Gout
Intellectual disability
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157
Q

47 XYY

A

Jacob’s syndrome

Mostly asymptomatic

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158
Q

Denys Drash

A

AD
Mutation WT1 transcription factor

Triad:
Ambiguous genitals, infant onset nephrotic syndrome, Wilms tumour

Gonadal dysgenesis, no uterus
Diffuse mesangial sclerosis
End stage renal failure 0-3 years
Wilm’s tumor 
Mean age of onset = 18 months
Gonadoblastoma in some
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159
Q

Pierson syndrome

A

Genetics
Mutation LAMB2 - B2 laminin

Clinical features
Nephrotic syndrome (mesangial sclerosis)
Hypoplasia ciliary/papillary muscles
Fundal pigment abnormalities
Strabismus
Bilateral fixed narrow pupil
Developmental Delay
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160
Q

Wolff-Chaikoff effect

A

Wolff-Chaikoff effect is an autoregulatory phenomenon, whereby a large amount of ingested iodine acutely inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis within the follicular cells, irrespective of the serum level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

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161
Q

SIADH

A

Criteria: water retention with hypo-osmolality, normal/slightly raised blood volumes, less than maximally dilute urine
Causes:
- CNS disorder (infection, trauma, hypoxia)
- Respiratory illness
- Reduced LA filling
- Malignancy (lymphoma, bronchogenic carcinoma, idiopathic)

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162
Q

Causes obstructive spirometry

A

Asthma
CF
Bronchiectasis
Obliterative bronchiolitis (often restrictive as well)

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163
Q

Causes restrictive spirometry

A

Chest wall deformity
Neuromuscular disease (including GBS)
Fibrosing alveolitis
Interstitial pneumonitis

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164
Q

FEV1

A

Forced expiratory volume in first second

Gives a measure of large/medium airway obstruction

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165
Q

FEF25-75

A

Forced expiratory flow at 25 and 75% of the pulmonary volume (FEF25-75%) is defined as the mean forced expiratory flow during the middle half of the FVC.
Reflects small airway function

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166
Q

Total lung capacity

A

Total volume air in lungs at full inspiration

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167
Q

Vital capacity

A

The total volume of air that can be displaced from the lungs by maximal expiratory effort

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168
Q

Residual volume

A

The volume of air remaining in the lungs after maximum forceful expiration

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169
Q

Inspiratory capacity

A

The maximum volume of air that can be inspired after reaching the end of a normal, quiet expiration. It is the sum of the TIDAL VOLUME and the INSPIRATORY RESERVE VOLUME

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170
Q

Functional residual capacity

A

The volume remaining in the lungs after a normal, passive exhalation
Expiratory reserve volume + residual volume

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171
Q

Inspiratory reserve volume

A

It is the amount of air that can be forcibly inhaled after a normal tidal volume

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172
Q

Tidal volume

A

The amount of air that moves in or out of the lungs with each respiratory cycle

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173
Q

Expiratory reserve volume

A

The amount of extra air — above a normal breath — exhaled during a forceful breath out

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174
Q

Causes variable intrathoracic obstruction spirometry

A

This pattern, also known as dynamic or non-fixed intrathoracic obstruction, demonstrates truncation (flattening) of the envelope of the maximal expiratory curve, due to expiratory flow limitation.

This pattern may occur with tracheomalacia of the intrathoracic airway, bronchogenic cysts, or with tracheal lesions, which are often malignant.
Granulomatous polyangiitis

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175
Q

Causes variable extrathoracic obstruction

A

The flow-volume loop pattern associated with dynamic (non-fixed) extrathoracic obstruction (eg, vocal fold paralysis, extrathoracic tracheomalacia, polychondritis, mobile tumors) is characterized by truncation of the envelope of the maximal inspiratory curve.

Vocal cord paralysis
Subglottic stenosis
Goitre

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176
Q

Causes fixed upper airway obstruction

A

Firm tracheal lesions (eg, tracheal stenosis) can limit the modulating effect of transmural pressures on airway luminal diameter with the result that flow is limited during both inspiration and expiration, causing flattening of both limbs of the flow-volume loop.

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177
Q

Leigh disease

A
Subacute necrotising encephalopathy
Hypotonia progressive deterioration in neurological abilities 
Present <2 years:
Hypotonia
Feeding difficulties
Respiratory irregularities
Weakness of extraocular movements
Ataxia 
Irritability
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178
Q

Sturge Weber

A

Port wine stain, facial naevus, ipsilateral leptomeningeal angioma -> leads to ischaemia, focal seizures, hemiparesis, variable ID.
MRI, ophthal*** (glaucoma)

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179
Q

Von Hippel Lindau

A

Tumour suppressor gene

Clinical presentation:
Cerebellar haemangioblastomas and retinal angiomas
Raised ICP
Cystic lesions of kidneys, pancreas, liver and epididymis
Renal carcinoma (most common form of death)
Phaechromocytoma are frequently associated

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180
Q

IPEX

A

FOXP3
Due to decreased number or poor functioning regulatory T cells

Clinical features:
I – immune dysregulation (dermatitis)
P – polyendrocrinopathy (T1DM or thyroiditis)
E – enteropathy
X – X-linked
Consider in: male infant with T1DM + chronic intractable diarrhoea + FTT

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181
Q

Ataxia telangiectasia

A

DNA repair disorder

FEATURES
Ataxia is earliest manifestation
Abnormal eye movements
Telangiectasias, can have other skin lesions e.g. CALMS
Immune deficiency, affecting both cellular and humoral immunity, occurs in approximately 70 percent of patients
Progressive lymphopenia +/- antibody deficiency
Increased risk of leukaemia and lymphoma

May have elevated AFP levels (this can help diagnosis)

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182
Q

Pompe disease

A

Glycogen storage disorder 2. Really a lysosomal storage disorder. Accumulation of glycogen in lysosomes.
Infantile: Cardiomyopathy and hypotonia.
Hypotonia, weakness, hyporeflexia, macroglossia, giant QRS complexes.
Enzymology on fibroblasts diagnosis. Elevated CK.
Death w/i 12 months (improving with enzyme replacement therapy).

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183
Q

Joubert syndrome

A

Ciliopathy

FEATURES
Hypotonia
Hyperpnoea (disappears by 6mo)
Oculomotor apraxia
Ataxia
Global developmental delay
May be associated with
Retinal dystrophy
Kidney disease
Liver disease
Polydactyly
Hirschprung

MRI – molar tooth sign
Underdeveloped cerebellar vermis and malformed brain stem

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184
Q

Kallman syndrome

A

Olfactory and GnRH-releasing neurons do not function normally

Hypogonadotrophic hypogonadism
Hyposmia/anosmia

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185
Q

Niemann-Pick Disease

A

Sphingomyelinoses
Splenomegaly + neurological deficit + lipid storage
A+B different from C

Type A – 1:100 in Ashkenazi Jews - Infantile
Hepatosplenomegaly
Developmental delay -> death
ILD (lung infiltrates)
Macular cherry red spots
Type B – less severe, later onset - visceral
Hepatosplenomegaly
Thrombocytopaenia
ILD
Hyperlipidaemia
No neuro involvement

Type C
Neonate – ascites, abnormal LFT, jaundice (conj bili earliest sign), pulmonary infiltrate, hypotonia
Hepatosplenomegaly
Neurological deterioration
Cherry-red spot
Vertical ophthalmoplegia
Adults – dementia, depression, BPAD, schizophrenia

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186
Q

ODD vs conduct disorder

A

ODD at least 6 months

Conduct disorder worse and at least 12 months

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187
Q

Neonatal atrial flutter

A

In the newborn with atrial flutter, direct current cardioversion is the usual primary therapy.
Adenosine challenge may reveal flutter waves.

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188
Q

Mycobacterium avium intracellulare lymphadenitis

A

Lymphadenitis is the most common manifestation of nontuberculous mycobacterial (NTM) disease in childhood. It typically occurs in children between one and five years of age. The cervicofacial nodes, particularly the submandibular nodes, are most frequently involved.

NTM lymphadenitis generally presents as a unilateral, nontender node (<4 cm in diameter) that slowly enlarges over several weeks. The overlying skin then gradually changes from pink to violaceous and thins to become parchment-like and may eventually suppurate through a sinus tract.

Fever and other systemic findings are variable and are more common if the lymph nodes become secondarily infected by pyogenic bacteria (eg, staphylococcal or streptococcal species).

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189
Q

VSD and AR syndrome

A

Prolapsed aortic cusp, with resulting AR, is usually associated with outlet VSD and occasionally perimembranous VSD. 5% of VSD patients (higher in Far Eastern countries).

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190
Q

Transient antiphopsholipid antibodies

A

Lupus anticoagulants are acquired inhibitors that may produce a prolonged aPTT. They are commonly seen in children, frequently associated with recent infections, particularly viral infections, and usually are transient. Lupus anticoagulants seen in these clinical settings are neither a risk for bleeding nor for thrombosis.

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191
Q

General movement assessment

A

The General Movements Assessment is a non-invasive and cost-effective tool with demonstrated reliability for identifying infants at risk for cerebral palsy.

A normal General Movements Assessment at 3 months in a term high-risk infant is likely associated with a low risk for moderate/severe cerebral palsy. The finding of cramped synchronized General Movements is a strong predictor for the diagnosis of cerebral palsy by 2 years of age in the term population with neonatal encephalopathy.

GMA was feasible in an Australian context and accurately identified CP with a sensitivity and specificity comparable with European standards and published neuroimaging data. For detecting CP, we had a sensitivity of 98% and specificity of 94%.

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192
Q

Cleidocranial dysostosis/dysplasia

A
Exam stem (2018): 15.You are asked to see an 8-year-old boy with retained deciduous and supernumerary teeth. On further examination you note he has short stature, his fontanelle is still open, and he has hypermobile shoulders
as shown.

UTD

It is characterized by delayed closure of the cranial sutures, distinctive craniofacial features, poor dentition, and hypoplastic clavicles. The skull sutures may take years to close or, in some cases, may never close. Patients with CCD have a broad forehead, midface hypoplasia, and significant dental anomalies that require very close surveillance, including supernumerary teeth, lack of eruption of permanent teeth, and abnormal deciduous dentition.

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193
Q

Klippel–Feil syndrome.

A

Klippel-Feil syndrome is a rare bone disorder distinguished by the abnormal fusion of two or more bones in the neck. Children with the disorder may have a short, webbed neck, decreased range of motion in the head and neck area, and/or a low hairline at the back of the head.

Limitation in range of motion of the neck is the most common physical sign.

Classic Triad (less than 50%)
Limited neck motion
Low hairline
Short neck

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194
Q

Overview of osteogenesis imperfecta features

A

Clinical manifestations of OI include:
●Excess or atypical fractures (brittle bones)
●Short stature.
●Scoliosis.
●Basilar skull deformities, which may cause nerve compression or other neurologic symptoms.
●Blue sclerae.
●Hearing loss (usually detected in later childhood to early adulthood).
●Opalescent teeth that wear quickly (dentinogenesis imperfecta).
●Increased laxity of the ligaments and skin.
●Wormian bones (small, irregular bones along the cranial sutures).
●Easy bruisability.

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195
Q

Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy

A

Facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy (FSHD) is the third most common type of muscular dystrophy. It is a complex genetic disorder characterized in most cases by slowly progressive muscle weakness involving the facial, scapular, upper arm, lower leg, and hip girdle muscles, usually with asymmetric involvement.

The age of symptom onset varies from infancy to middle age, but is usually in the second decade.

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196
Q

Ehlers Danlos clues

A

The diagnosis of EDS in one of its forms should be suspected when a patient presents with some combination of features seen in one or several of the types of EDS, including joint hypermobility, multiple joint dislocations, translucent skin, poor wound healing, easy bruising, and unusual scars. This diagnosis should also be considered in any young individual who experiences spontaneous rupture of an organ (eg, gut or uterus) or dissection of a major blood vessel.

A variety of clinical features are seen in the different forms of Ehlers-Danlos syndrome (EDS), often resulting in skin hyperextensibility, joint hypermobility, and tissue fragility.

Joint dislocations or subluxations are common in most forms of EDS, and joint pain and premature degenerative arthritis are often consequences of the disorder. Pes planus is common in all forms, and pectus excavatum and a high arched palate can also be present in all of the forms of EDS. Musculoskeletal pain is common in patients with joint hypermobility, and complex regional pain syndrome has been described as a rare complication with both the hypermobility and classic forms of EDS.

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197
Q

Gram negative diplococci

A

Neisseria meningitidis, gonorrhoea

Moraxella

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198
Q

Gram negative coccobacilli

A

H. influenzae
B. pertussis
Pasteurella
Brucella

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199
Q

Gram negative bacillus

A
E. coli, enterobacter, Klebsiella (EEK)
Serratia
Pseudomonas
Salmonella, Shigella, Yersinia
Proteus
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200
Q

Gram negative comma-shaped

A

C. jejuni
V. cholerae
H. pylori

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201
Q

Gram positive bacilli

A

Listeria (aerobic)

Clostridium (anaerobic)

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202
Q

Gram positive cocci

A

Catalase positive = Staph
Coagulase positive = S. aureus, negative = CONS (saprophyticus, epidermidis)

Catalase negative = Strep
Alpha haemolysis: viridans, pneumoniae
Beta haemolysis: pyogenes (group A), agalactiae (group B)
No haemolysis (gamma?): bovis, Enterococci (group D)

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203
Q

Gram positive branching filaments

A

Nocardia

Actinomyces

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204
Q

FRT clinical syndromes - fever alone

A

Malaria*
Typhoid
Dengue
Hepatitis A

*Malaria should be considered in any child with undifferentiated fever up to two years after returning from an endemic region
Falciparum malaria is the most common serious infection and cause of death in returning travellers

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205
Q

FRT clinical syndrome - fever and diarrhoea

A
Malaria*
Typhoid
Dengue
Hepatitis
Travellers’ diarrhoea**
Cholera
Dysentery (bloody diarrhoea)

*Malaria should be considered in any child with undifferentiated fever up to two years after returning from an endemic region

**Travellers’ diarrhoea: >3 diarrhoeal episodes in a 24-hour period after travel plus one of the following: cramping, abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, fever

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206
Q

FRT clinical syndromes - fever and respiratory

A

Malaria*
Pneumonia
Influenza
Tuberculosis (TB)

*Malaria should be considered in any child with undifferentiated fever up to two years after returning from an endemic region

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207
Q

Dengue

A

The incubation period of DENV infection ranges from 3 to 14 days; symptoms typically develop between 4 and 7 days after the bite of an infected mosquito. As per RCH lecture, if >14 days cannot be Dengue.

Dengue fever — DF (also known as "break-bone fever") is an acute febrile illness defined by the presence of fever and two or more of the following but not meeting the case definition of dengue hemorrhagic fever:
●Headache
●Retro-orbital or ocular pain
●Myalgia and/or bone pain
●Arthralgia
●Rash
●Hemorrhagic manifestations (eg, positive tourniquet test, petechiae, purpura/ecchymosis, epistaxis, gum bleeding, blood in emesis, urine, or stool, or vaginal bleeding)
●Leukopenia

Dengue hemorrhagic fever — The cardinal feature of DHF is plasma leakage due to increased vascular permeability as evidenced by hemoconcentration (≥20 percent rise in hematocrit above baseline), pleural effusion, or asciteS. DHF is also characterized by fever, thrombocytopenia, and hemorrhagic manifestations (all of which may also occur in the setting of DF).

In the setting of DHF, the presence of intense abdominal pain, persistent vomiting, and marked restlessness or lethargy, especially coinciding with defervescence, should alert the clinician to possible impending DSS (Dengue shock syndrome). Dengue shock syndrome — DSS consists of DHF with marked plasma leakage that leads to circulatory collapse (shock) as evidenced by narrowing pulse pressure or hypotension.

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208
Q

FRT clinical syndromes - short incubation <10 days

A
Arboviral infections, eg Dengue, Yellow fever
Influenza
Campylobacter
Shigella
Chikungunya

Nonspecific (crossing multiple incubation periods in RCH guideline): malaria, typhoid, viral haemorrhagic fever, rickettsial infection

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209
Q

FRT clinical syndrome - intermediate incubation (10-21 days)

A

Measles (median 13 days)
Q fever

Nonspecific (crossing multiple incubation periods in RCH guideline): malaria, typhoid, viral haemorrhagic fever, rickettsial infection

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210
Q

FRT clinical syndromes - long incubation >21 days

A
Hepatitis
Rabies
Amoebic liver abscess
Tuberculosis
Filariasis
HIV

Nonspecific (crossing multiple incubation periods in RCH guideline): malaria, typhoid, viral haemorrhagic fever, rickettsial infection

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211
Q

FRT clinical syndromes - acute abdomen of GI haemorrhage

A

Typhoid (only one listed on RCH guideline)

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212
Q

FRT clinical syndromes - jaundice

A

Viral hepatitis, measles

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213
Q

FRT clinical syndromes - fever persisting >2 weeks

A

Malaria, enteric fever, EBV, CMV, toxoplasmosis, acute HIV, acute schistosomiasis, brucellosis, TB, Q fever

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214
Q

FRT clinical syndromes - fever onset >6 weeks after returning

A

Plasmodium vivax or P ovale, acute hepatitis (B, C or E), TB, amoebic liver abscess

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215
Q

Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

A

Idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH) is also called pseudotumor cerebri. It is a disorder defined by clinical criteria that include symptoms and signs isolated to those produced by increased intracranial pressure (eg, headache, papilledema, vision loss), elevated intracranial pressure with normal cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) composition, and no other cause of intracranial hypertension evident on neuroimaging or other evaluations. IIH primarily affects females of childbearing age who are overweight.

A typical presentation of IIH is that of an overweight female of childbearing age who complains of headaches and is found to have papilledema on funduscopic examination.

Symptoms
●Headache (84 to 92 percent)
●Transient visual obscurations (68 to 72 percent)
●Intracranial noises (pulsatile tinnitus; 52 to 60 percent)
●Photopsia (48 to 54 percent)
●Back pain (53 percent)
●Retrobulbar pain (44 percent)
●Diplopia (18 to 38 percent), typically from nonlocalizing sixth nerve palsy
●Sustained visual loss (26 to 32 percent)
●Neck pain (41 percent)

Signs
●Papilledema (hallmark)
●Visual field loss
●Sixth nerve palsy

Elevated opening pressure on LP is an essential element of the diagnosis of IIH.

The earliest visual field defect in IIH is often an inferior nasal step defect followed by peripheral nasal loss. Arcuate defects may appear next followed by a gradual depression of the entire field, most pronounced peripherally.

RCH revision lecture neurologist said diplopia d/t 6th nerve palsy.

Rx with acetazolamide

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216
Q

NAI - red flag injuries

A

(RCH)
Age dependent

Essentially anything in <6mo

TEN 4 FACES Clinical Decision Rule (adapted from Pierce et al, 2009) - If these criteria are met, have clinical concern for abuse:
Bruising in TEN location (Torso, Ear, Neck) in child <4years-old
Any bruising in child <4-6months-old
Injury to FACES (Frenulum, Angle of jaw, Cheek, Eyelid, Sclera) in child of any age

Any rib fracture
Multiple fractures of varying age
Skull fractures other than single parietal skull fracture
Any other fracture in a non-ambulant child
Any long bone fracture EXCEPT
- supracondylar humerus
- distal radius
- mid-clavicular
- distal tibial

Any suspected or proven intracranial injury except multivehicle collision or high distance fall

Any altered conscious state, collapse or arrest. Consider abusive head trauma, ingestion/poisoning, toxins and suffocation

Immersion (near drowning in bath or similar)
Strangulation or suffocation
Female genital mutilation

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217
Q

Gastroschisis and omphalocele

A

Gastroschisis and omphalocele are defects of the abdominal wall that occur in utero, can be detected prenatally using fetal ultrasonography, and result in herniation of abdominal contents. In contrast to omphalocele, there is no sac covering the intestines in gastroschisis.

An omphalocele commonly occurs along with other birth defects (such as heart defects and kidney defects) and with specific genetic syndromes (such as Down syndrome, trisomy 18, trisomy 13, and Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome).

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218
Q

NAI concerning fractures

A

Posteromedial rib fracture.
Metaphyseal corner fracture.

Key points:
All fractures in non-ambulatory children are concerning for abuse.
In infants, fractures are more commonly attributed to abuse than to accidents.
No specific fracture type is pathognomonic for abuse.
Certain locations and types of fractures generate significant concern for an abusive cause (specifically posteromedial rib fractures and metaphyseal corner fractures).
Certain skull fractures are concerning for abuse (see VFPMS Guideline: Head injury).
Multiple fractures and/or fractures of different ages generate suspicion regarding abuse.
Dating of fractures is inexact.
Many children with fractures will have minimal or no external sign of injury

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219
Q

Cataplexy

A

Cataplexy is the most specific symptom of narcolepsy. It is seen in approximately 80 percent of children with narcolepsy. It typically emerges around the same time as excessive sleepiness or in the months thereafter.

Typical cataplexy is characterized by sudden, transient loss of muscle tone; the weakness or paralysis usually arises in response to strong emotions such as laughter, surprise, anger, fright, or anticipation of reward. Consciousness is fully preserved. Episodes usually last under a minute with full return of function thereafter. The severity of attacks ranges from a slight head or shoulder drop (partial cataplexy) to buckling of the knees and sudden collapse to the floor (full cataplexy).

Persistent cataplexy characterized by facial weakness is common in children, manifested by the jaw dropping open, eyelid drooping (ptosis), head rolling, or tongue thrusting movements. This has given rise to the term “cataplectic facies,” which is a unique clinical feature of childhood narcolepsy.

Excessive daytime sleepiness (EDS) is an essential clinical feature of narcolepsy and is the most common presenting symptom in both children and adults.

The classic tetrad of narcolepsy type 1 symptoms is EDS, cataplexy, hypnagogic hallucinations, and sleep paralysis.

Hypnagogic hallucinations consist of vivid, dream-like imagery at sleep onset; the same phenomena can more occasionally occur on awakening, when they are then referred to as hypnopompic hallucinations. Sleep paralysis is a momentary inability to move the body, most commonly on awakening in the morning or during the night, but occasionally as one is drifting off to sleep.

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220
Q

Oppositional defiant disorder treatment

A

Parent management training

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221
Q

Anorexia nervosa treatment

A

Family based therapy

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222
Q

Syndromes a/w Hirschprung disease

A
Trisomy 21
Bardet Biedl
Cartilage hair hypoplasia
Congenital central hypoventilation syndrome
Familial dysautonomia
MEN2
Mowat-Wilson syndrome
Smith-Lemli-Opitz 
Waardenburg syndrome
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223
Q

Premature adrenarche

A

Adrenarche refers to the progressive maturation of the adrenal cortex that normally becomes manifest after five years of age and is associated with an increased serum dehydroepiandrosterone sulfate (DHEAS) level. Pubarche is the physical manifestation of adrenarche and is characterized by the development of pubic hair, axillary hair, adult apocrine body odor, acne, and increased oiliness of hair and skin.

Pubarche is considered premature if it develops before age eight years in girls and nine years in boys. Premature adrenarche, indicated by a premature elevation of DHEAS levels, is the most common cause of premature pubarche. Premature adrenarche is considered to be a variant of normal development. It is a diagnosis of exclusion.

If no other evidence secondary sexual characteristics, normal linear growth velocity, no history exogenous androgen exposure, and normal bone age, nil further required. Otherwise check DHEAS, 17OH, androstenedione and testosterone. Raised DHEAS but normal/<200 17OH still consistent with premature adrenarche.

As per UTD, puberty often starts 1-2 years earlier than average for these kids, and as per a paper, final height is normal.

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224
Q

Loeys-Dietz syndrome (LDS)

A

Gene: TGFBR1/2
Similar to Marfans: Aortic aneurysm/dissection
Differences: Bifid uvula/cleft palate, arterial tortuosity, hypertelorism, diffuse aortic and arterial aneurysms, craniosynostosis, clubfoot, cervical spine instability, thin and velvety skin, easy bruising.

Most patients with a TGFBR1 or TGFBR2 mutation have Loeys-Dietz syndrome, which is often characterized by hypertelorism (widely spaced eyes), a split uvula or cleft palate, tortuous arteries, and aortic aneurysms.

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225
Q

Time of onset food poisoning

A

Hours - Staph, Bacillus cereus
24hrs-days - E. coli, Salmonella, Campylobacter, Shigella
7 days - Protozoans e.g. Crytosporidium

For suspected foodborne, illness, the timing of symptom onset following exposure to the suspect food can be informative. Ingested preformed toxins (eg, those produced by Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus) cause illness within hours of exposure, whereas ingested pathogens that subsequently produce toxin (eg, enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli) or directly damage or invade across the intestinal epithelial cell wall (eg, Salmonella, Campylobacter, Shigella) usually result in symptoms after approximately 24 hours or longer. Protozoal pathogens (eg, Cryptosporidium parvum) generally produce enteric illness after an incubation period of approximately seven days.

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226
Q

Juvenile myelomonocytic leukaemia

A

Associated with NF1 and Noonan syndrome

The vast majority of children with JMML have somatic and/or germline mutations of genes involved in the RAS/MAPK signaling pathway. A group of distinctive genetic syndromes arise from germline mutations in genes of the RAS/MAPK pathways. These mutations induce constitutive activation of the pathway, and are collectively known as “RASopathies,” or neuro-cardio-facio cutaneous syndromes.

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227
Q

Bronchiolitis obliterans

A

Adenovirus

Bronchiolitis obliterans describes a pattern of histologic abnormalities affecting the small airways, characterized by large-airway bronchiectasis and fibroproliferative thickening of the bronchiolar walls that narrows the bronchiolar lumen and may progress to the complete obliteration of bronchioles. In children, the most common cause is postinfection (postinfectious bronchiolitis obliterans), which has been particularly described after adenovirus and, less commonly, with mycoplasma pneumonia.

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228
Q

Fluid intake goals prevention nephrolithiasis

A

In all children with nephrolithiasis, adequate fluid intake is a key component to reducing the risk of recurrent stones. High fluid intake increases the urine flow rate and lowers the urine solute concentration, thereby reducing the likelihood of new stone formation. Fluid intake is targeted to maintain the following 24-hour urine volumes based upon age:
●Infants – ≥750 mL
●Small children below five years of age – ≥1000 mL
●Children between 5 and 10 years of age – ≥1500 mL
●Children greater than 10 years of age – ≥2000 mL

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229
Q

Rasopathies

A

Noonan ,NF1, Costello, cardiofacialcutaneous syndrome

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230
Q

Aurer rod

A

AML

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231
Q

Reed Sternberg cell

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

EBV

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232
Q

Th1 phenotype

A

IFN gamma
Macrophages
IgG

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233
Q

Th2 phenotype

A

IL4/5/13
Mast cells, eosinophils
IgE

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234
Q

Th17 phenotype

A

IL 17, 22

Neutrophils, monocytes

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235
Q

6 week milestones

A

Head lag
Fix and follow 90 degrees
Smile

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236
Q

3 month milestones

A

Raise head prone, no head lage
F+F 180 degrees, hand to midline
Vowel sounds, turn to sound

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237
Q

6 month milestones

A

Roll, sit with support
Transfer, reaches, mouthing
Babble, turns to name
Play with feet, holds bottle when feed

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238
Q

9 month milestones

A

Sit without support, stand with support
2 syllable bable
Finger feeds

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239
Q

12 month milestones

A

Crawl, pull to stand
Pincer grip
2 words with meaning
Wave, clap

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240
Q

15 month milestones

A

Walks well
Several words, echolalia
Drink from cup, points with purpose

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241
Q

18 month milestones

A

Scribble
50 words, 1 step commands
Spoon, takes shoes/socks off

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242
Q

2 year milestones

A

Climb stairs one at a time, kick ball
Vertical line, 8 block tower
2 step command
Plays alone, spoon and fork

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243
Q

3 year milestones

A

Tricycle, jump
Circle
3-4 words sentence
Less stranger danger, knife and fork, dress self

244
Q

4 year milestones

A

Hops
Cross and square, man with 3 parts
Count to 10
Brush teeth

245
Q

5 year milestones

A

Climbs stairs one foot per step
Triangle, 6 part man, buttons
Role play

246
Q

Azathioprine metabolism

A

AZA -> 6MP
6MP -> 6TU, 6MMP, 6TGN

6TU = inactive, urine excretion
6MMP = inactive, hepatotoxic
6TGN = active, myelosuppression

TPMT metabolises to 6TU and 6MMP
Allopurinol increases ratio of 6TGM to 6MMP, therefore increasing myelosuppression and reducing hepatotoxicity

Xanthine oxidase metabolises 6MP to 6TU

247
Q

Heliotrope rash

A

Dermatomyositis

Bilateral lilac discolouration of the eyelids (particularly the upper eyelids) with swelling of the eyelids and skin around the eyes.

248
Q

Dermatitis herpetiformis

A

Dermatitis herpetiformis is a rare but persistent immunobullous disease that has been linked to coeliac disease. The name herpetiformis is derived from the tendency for blisters to appear in clusters, resembling herpes simplex. However, dermatitis herpetiformis is not due to viral infection.

Mean age 7. Buttocks, elbows, knees, back of neck, scalp. Itchy.

249
Q

Congenital hepatic fibrosis

A

ARPKD - invariably associated with CHF

250
Q

Atomoxetine side effects

A

Increased suicidal ideation

Cardiotoxicity

251
Q

Information bias

A

Information bias is any systematic difference from the truth that arises in the collection, recall, recording and handling of information in a study, including how missing data is dealt with.

252
Q

Russel Silver genes

A

Chromosome 11 or 7

Loss of paternal genes

253
Q

ROHHAD

A

Rapid-onset Obesity, Hypothalamic dysfunction, Hypoventilation, Autonomic Dysregulation Syndrome

*Rapid weight gain in childhood (over 6-12months) – usually first feature
Followed by endocrine abnormalities (Cushings, *GH def., precious puberty, hypothyroidism)
Autonomic dysreg eg temperature instability
Central hypoventilation syndrome may increase over time
Cardiorespiratory arrest

+/- Seizures, Dev delay/behavioural issues
At risk of neural crest tumours: ganglioneuroma/neuroblastoma

254
Q

Langerhans cell histiocytosis

A

Monocyte lineage
Bone lesions (osteolytic, skull)
Skin lesions (refractory dermatitis)
Can have hypothalamic involvement e.g. central DI, poor growth

255
Q

Pendred syndrome

A

AR defect pendrin protein = anion exchanger
SNHL + goitre
Dyshormonogenesis, subclinical hypothyroidism

256
Q

Superior axis

A
AVSD
TA
Noonans
LTGA
ALCAPA
257
Q

Vitamin A deficiency

A

Xerophthalmia - night blindness, dry eyes

258
Q

Vit D def

A

Low Ca
Low PO4
Rickets

259
Q

Vit E def

A

Neuropathy, ataxia, retinal degeneration, haemolytic anaemia

260
Q

Vit K def

A

Bleeding (2, 7, 9, 10), raised INR/APTT

261
Q

Folate deficiency

A

Hypersegmented neutrophils, megloblastosis, anaemia
A/W low zinc and B12
Raised homocysteine

262
Q

B1 def

A

Thiamine
Beriberi
Cardiomyopathy and polyneuritis

263
Q

Vitamin A deficiency

A

Xerophthalmia - night blindness, dry eyes

264
Q

Vit D def

A

Low Ca
Low PO4
Rickets

265
Q

B12 def

A

Megaloblastic anaemia, atrophic glossitis, neuropathy/demyelination
Raised methylmalonic acid

266
Q

Vit K def

A

Bleeding (2, 7, 9, 10), raised INR/APTT

267
Q

Folate deficiency

A

Hypersegmented neutrophils, megloblastosis, anaemia

A/W low zinc and B12

268
Q

B1 def

A

Thiamine
Beriberi
Cardiomyopathy and polyneuritis

269
Q

B2 def

A

Riboflavin

Angular stomatitis, glossitis, seborrheic dermatitis, corneal vascularisation

270
Q

B3 def

A

Niacin

Pellagra -> dermatitis, diarrhoea, dementia, weakness

271
Q

B12 def

A

Megaloblastic anaemia, atrophic glossitis, neuropathy/demyelination
Raised methylmalonic acid

272
Q

Vit C def

A

Ascorbic acid

Scurvy -> haemorrhage (gums), follicular hyperkeratosis, haemolytic anaemia

273
Q

Hypocalcaemia - signs

A

Tetany, seizures, Chvostek/Trousseau signs

274
Q

Hypophosphataemia - signs

A

Myopathy, rhabdomyolysis, osteomalacia/rickets

275
Q

Hypomagnesaemia - sign

A

A/W hypokalaemia (renal potassium wasting)/hypocalcaemia

Fasciculations, tremors, spasm, personality changes, seizures

276
Q

Iron deficiency

A

Most common deficiency
Microcytic hypochromic anaemia
Pagophagia is specific
Cardiomegaly

277
Q

HBIG

A

Neonates of mothers who are surface antigen positive

278
Q

Copper deficiency

A

Sideroblastic anaemia (nucleated red cells), neurtopenia, FTT, osteoporosis

279
Q

Selenium deficiency

A

Cardiomyopathy (dilated) -> Keshan disease

280
Q

Iodine deficiency

A

Goitre, hypothyroidism, cretinism (Id, hearing impairment, spastic diplegia, strabismus)

281
Q

VZV infectious periods

A

2 days prior to rash, until all lesions crusted

282
Q

ZIG indications

A

Susceptible pregnant women, neonates whose mother develop VZV -7 to +2 days either side of delivery, neonates <30 days if mother no history of infection or neg serology, neonates <28/40.

283
Q

HBIG

A

Neonates of mothers who are surfance antigen positive

284
Q

Highest risk needle stick injury virus

A

HBV

Then HCV, then HIV

285
Q

PIMS TS criteria/details

A

PIMS-TS should be considered in an unwell child who presents with fever (≥3 days), signs of shock, rash and abdominal pain.

Critera:

  • Fever, inflammation (neutrophilia, CRP, lymphopenia), organ dysfunction (shock, cardiac, resp, GI, neuro), “additional features”
  • Exclusion of bacterial sepsis, staph/strep shock syndromes, infections a/w myocarditis (e.g. enterovirus)
  • COVID 2-6 weeks prior

Generally older cf KD (11 vs 2 yrs)
More GI symptoms
Higher rates myocarditis and aKI

286
Q

Obesity - syndromic, DD

A

PWS

Albright hereditary osteodystrophy (?pseudohypoparathyroidism), Bardet-Biedl

287
Q

Grey baby syndrome

A

Chloramphenicol during 3rd trimester

Cyanosis, abdo distension, vasomotor collapse, death

288
Q

Imprinting - PWS/Angelman

A

Chromosome 15
PWS - paternal = absent paternal expression, or both maternal
Angelman - maternal = absence of maternally functioning genes

289
Q

Imprinting - BWS/RSS

A
Chromosome 11 (also 7 for RSS)
Paternally expressed growth factors -> BWS = two paternal, RSS = two maternal (or absence etc)
290
Q

Imprinting pedigree e.g. maternal imprinting

A

No children of an affected female are affected

Half the children of an affected male or male with mutation will be affected

291
Q

Septo-optic dysplasia

A
Clinical diagnosis
2+:
- optic nerve hypoplasia
- pituitary hormone abnormalitieis
- midline brain defects, including agenesis of corpus callosum and/or septum pellucidum

Early forebrain maldevelopment
Variable phenotype
Aetiology unclear

292
Q

Red man syndrome

A

Vancomycin infusion reaction
Parenteral administration (bioavailability <10%)
Flushing, erythema, pruritis. Rarely life threatening.
DT direct activation of mast cells
DDX anaphylaxis

293
Q

Grey baby syndrome

A

Chloramphenicol during 3rd trimester

Cyanosis, abdo distension, vasomotor collapse, death

294
Q

Friedreich ataxia

A

Most common hereditary ataxia, carrier frequency 1 in 85
Features
- onset 10-15yo
- progressive ataxia, absent LL reflexes, extensor plantars, reduced vibration/proprioception
- deformities e.g. scoliosis, foot deformities
- cardiomyopathy
- diabetes

FXN -> frataxin

  • involved in iron sulphur cluster synthesis, relates to respiratory chain proteins
  • deficiency = susceptibility to oxidative stress
  • 96% due to GAA (‘Genetic AtaxiA’) repeat expansion in intron 1 of FXN
295
Q

UCD not causing hyperammonemia

A

Arginase deficiency

296
Q

UCD typical presentation

A

Severe defects typically present in term newborns who appear well for the first 24 to 48 hours after birth. The infant becomes symptomatic after feeding has started because human milk or infant formula provides a protein load. Initial signs include somnolence, inability to maintain normal body temperature, and poor feeding, usually followed by vomiting, lethargy, and coma, a presentation that is identical to that of an infant with sepsis. However, the absence of risk factors for sepsis and a nondiagnostic sepsis evaluation should prompt consideration of a metabolic disorder.

A common early sign in newborns with hyperammonemia is central hyperventilation leading to respiratory alkalosis.

297
Q

Hyperammonemia ddx

A

UCD
Organic acidaemias
Fatty acid oxidation defect
Disorders pyruvate metabolism

Acidosis -> organic acidaemia, pyruvate metabolism
Normal pH/alkalosis, hypoglycaemia and hypoketonemia -> fatty acid oxidation defect

298
Q

Biliary cyst

A

The majority of patients with biliary cysts will present before the age of 10 years. The classic presentation includes the triad of abdominal pain, jaundice, and a palpable mass, and is more common in children than adults. Infants typically present with obstructive jaundice and abdominal masses, children more often present with abdominal pain and nausea/vomiting.

Biliary cysts must be differentiated from cystic biliary atresia. In infants with biliary cysts, the intrahepatic bile ducts are normal or dilated rather than sclerosed.

299
Q

Glycogen storage disease

A

Liver, muscles, kidneys. Inability to break down glycogen.
Hepatic forms = hepatomegaly and hypoglycaemia.
Muscle forms = weakness and fatigue.

Massive hepatomegaly in the absence of splenomegaly (glycogen not stored in spleen, helps differentiate from lysosomal storage disorders).
Abnormal fat distrubtion. FTT. Bruising.
Nephromegaly.

Hypoglycaemia. Raised lactate. Hyperuricaemia. Hyperlipidaemia.

300
Q

Facial features fetal alcohol syndrome

A

Short palpebral fissure, thin vermillion border, smooth philtrum.

Clinical findings in a newborn with FAS include a characteristic pattern of facial anomalies, with short palpebral fissures, a thin upper lip, and a long, smooth philtrum.

Pre and postnatal growth retardation, neonatal irritability, microcephaly, learning disability, hyperactivity in childhood, cardiac defects (VSD, ASD), small nails on fifth fingers/toes, facial anomalies.

Small
Dysmorphic
Microcephaly, ID
CHD
Postnatal growth failure
301
Q

Which antiepileptic is associated with the highest risk of congenital malformation?

A

Google:

Among the AEDs, valproate was associated with the highest risk of malformation (10.93%; 95% CI, 8.91-13.13).

302
Q

Shockable rhythm - voltage

A

4J/kg DC shock, asynchronous

Adult “dose” - biphasic defib 120-200J, monophasic up to 360J.

303
Q

Thrombin time

A

The thrombin time (TT) measures the final step of coagulation, the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin. The thrombin time is prolonged if fibrinogen levels are low or if an anticoagulant that inhibits thrombin is present in the sample.

304
Q

Detecting heparin in coags

A

If heparin is present, the TT will be significantly prolonged and the reptilase time will be normal.

eparin is an indirect thrombin inhibitor that complexes with antithrombin (AT), converting AT from a slow to a rapid inactivator of thrombin (factor IIa), factor Xa, and, to a lesser extent, factors IXa, XIa, and XIIa.

The reptilase time (RT) is similar to the TT in measuring the conversion of fibrinogen to fibrin [26]. However, unlike the TT and the aPTT, the RT is insensitive to the effects of heparin because reptilase, an enzyme derived from the venom of Bothrops snakes, is not inhibited by antithrombin or the antithrombin-heparin complex.

305
Q

Kingella kingae

A

K. kingae, a gram-negative organism present in oral microbiome, is being increasingly identified as a cause of osteomyelitis in children 6 to 36 months of age, and some reports suggest K. kingae is the most common cause of osteomyelitis in Switzerland and France. It may rarely cause osteomyelitis in older children. K. kingae often affects nontubular bones (eg, sternum, vertebrae, calcaneum) and generally produces milder symptoms than osteomyelitis caused by gram-positive pathogens.

K. kingae is a fastidious organism that is difficult to isolate by conventional culture techniques. Inoculation of specimens into blood culture vials and, especially, molecular diagnostic methods (eg, polymerase chain reaction amplification) may increase detection.

K. kingae osteomyelitis generally affects children between 6 and 36 months of age and is typically milder and more indolent than osteomyelitis due to other pathogens. In one series of 43 children with K. kingae osteoarticular infections, only 15 percent of children were febrile at presentation, and 39 percent had normal inflammatory markers. K. kingae may disproportionately affect nontubular bones (eg, sternum, vertebrae, calcaneum).

306
Q

Osteomyelitis organisms/features

A

GRAM POSITIVE

Staphylococcus aureus: All ages; possible associated skin or soft tissue infection; MRSA may be associated with venous thromboembolism and pulmonary disease.

Coagulase-negative staphylococci: Neonates in intensive care unit; children with indwelling vascular catheters (eg, for chronic hemodialysis).

Group B Streptococcus: Infants younger than 3 months (usually 2 to 4 weeks).

Streptococcus pneumoniae: Children younger than 2 years who are incompletely immunized; children older than 2 years with underlying medical conditions (eg, sickle cell disease, asplenia, splenic dysfunction, immunodeficiency, chronic heart disease, chronic lung disease, diabetes mellitus).

GRAM NEGATIVE

Kingella kingae: Children 6 to 36 months; indolent onset; oral ulcers preceding musculoskeletal findings; may affect nontubular bones.

Nonsalmonella gram-negative bacilli (eg, Escherichia coli, Serratia): Birth to 3 months; children with sickle cell disease; instrumentation of the gastrointestinal or urinary tract; immunocompromised host (eg, CGD).

Salmonella species: Children with sickle cell disease or related hemoglobinopathies; exposure to reptiles or amphibians; children with gastrointestinal symptoms; children in resource-limited countries.

307
Q

Iron deficiency iron studies

A

Transferrin and TIBC up, everything else down.

308
Q

Degeneration of grey matter metabolic disorders

A
Tay Sachs
Gaucher
Niemann Pick
Batten
Leigh
Menkes
309
Q

Degeneration of cerebral white matter metabolic disorders

A

Krabbe
Metachromatic leukodystrophy
Canavan disease

310
Q

Metachromatic leukodystrophy

A

A rare autosomal recessive lysosomal storage disease that causes progressive demyelination of the central and peripheral nervous system.

Three major subtypes of MLD are primarily distinguished by the age at disease onset:
●Late infantile onset (age 6 months to 2 years)
●Juvenile onset (age 3 to <16 years)
●Adult onset (age ≥16)
Peripheral neuropathy occurs in all forms and may be a presenting feature, particularly in the late infantile form.

The late infantile form of MLD typically appears at six months to two years of age. Infants and toddlers may present with developmental delay or regression of motor skills due to the peripheral nerve involvement even before any evidence of brain magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) changes. Other early signs can include gait difficulties, seizures, ataxia, hypotonia, extensor plantar responses, and optic atrophy. Deep tendon reflexes are sometimes reduced or absent, reflecting the peripheral neuropathy.

Brain MRI reveals symmetric white matter lesions with a periventricular and/or frontal predominance.

311
Q

Krabbe disease

A

Most patients with Krabbe disease present with symptoms within the first twelve months of life. A peripheral motor-sensory neuropathy occurs in most patients.

Symptoms usually develop from ages two to twelve months with infantile onset Krabbe disease. Manifestations include irritability, feeding difficulty, reflux, developmental delay, limb spasticity, axial hypotonia, optic atrophy, and decreased growth. Deep tendon reflexes may be increased early when spasticity predominates but diminish and are lost as neuropathy worsens. Irritability is the most common initial symptom.

In late infantile onset Krabbe disease, patients present between 13 months and 36 months. Initial symptoms include abnormal gait, irritability, slurred speech, or vision difficulties. Clinical indicators include appendicular hypertonia, axial hypotonia, abnormal protective reflexes, abnormal deep tendon reflexes, constipation, and abnormal pupillary response. Visual difficulty, apneic episodes, seizures, and temperature instability are more likely as the disease progresses. The median age of death is six years.

In children with infantile-onset Krabbe disease, the most frequent MRI abnormalities involve the deep cerebral white matter, dentate nucleus, and cerebellar white matter.

312
Q

Approach to metabolics - failure to make/break complex molecules

A

Dysmorphic syndromes at birth d/t abence of structural molecules important for embryogenesis.

Smith-Lemli-Opitz - cholesterol synthesis defect
Zellweger syndrome - peroxisomal
Congenital disorders of glycosylation / glycosylation defects

Many appear normal at birth and become progressively more obvious with time.

313
Q

Approach to metabolics - intoxication

A

Symptom free period before decompensation with toxic metabolite build up, e.g. once feeds established in neonates.
Classically collapse day 3 of life.
DDX sepsis, duct dependent cardiac problem.

Aminoacidopathies - tyrosinaemia, MSUD
UCD
Organic acidaemias
Sugar intolerances - galactosaemia

314
Q

Approach to metabolics - energy insufficiency

A

Immediate onset symptoms in congenital lactic acidosis:

  • respiratory chain defects (?mitochondrial)
  • pyruvate metabolism defects

Presentation only when delay in fuel provision (may not present for months):

  • fat oxidation defects e.g. medium chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase
  • glycogen storage disease
  • defects in gluconeogenesis e.g. fructose bisphophaatse deficiency
315
Q

Hypoketotic hypoglycaemia ddx

A

Hyperinsulinism
Fat oxidation defect
Liver failure
Mitochondrial disorder

316
Q

Raised serum urate ddx

A

End product of purine breakdown.

Lesch-Nyhan syndrome (X linked disorder purine metabolism)
GSD type 1
Rhabdomyolysis

Familial juvenile hyperuicaemic nephropathy

317
Q

Neonatal chlamydia conjunctivitis

A

The most frequent clinical manifestation of C. trachomatis infection in the newborn is conjunctivitis.

The incubation period for C. trachomatis conjunctivitis is 5 to 14 days after delivery. Presentation before five days is unusual.

Clinical findings of conjunctivitis range from mild swelling with a watery eye discharge, which becomes mucopurulent, to marked swelling of the eyelids with red and thickened conjunctivae (chemosis). A pseudomembrane may form as the exudate adheres to conjunctiva. The conjunctivae may also be very friable, resulting in bloody discharge.

Among infants born to mothers with cervical C. trachomatis infection, 5 to 30 percent develop pneumonia. Approximately one-half of these infants have a history of conjunctivitis.

Pneumonia due to C. trachomatis is recognized in most affected infants between 4 and 12 weeks of age, although essentially all are symptomatic before eight weeks. Cough and nasal congestion without significant discharge are common.

Oral azithromycin is the preferred treatment for neonatal C. trachomatis infections, including both conjunctivitis and pneumonia. Erythromycin base, 50 mg/kg/day in four divided doses for 14 days, is an alternative. Gram negative.

318
Q

GLUT 1 deficiency syndrome

A

A low CSF glucose in a child with no symptoms of infection and an otherwise normal CSF profile often is ignored, but may be the critical laboratory finding in the diagnosis of a rare disorder called glucose transporter protein syndrome (GLUT1 deficiency syndrome), which has a deficiency of the enzyme necessary for the transport of glucose into the CSF. Diagnosis can be confirmed by an erythrocyte glucose uptake assay that shows low uptake. Molecular genetic testing for pathogenic variants in SLC2A1 can also be used to identify some of these patients. Infants with this disorder have slowly progressive neurologic deterioration, seizures (often absence-type), and occasionally microcephaly. Although few cases have been reported, it is probably underdetected. Glucose load may bring about transient improvement. Children with this disorder are treated with the ketogenic diet.

319
Q

Myoclonic epilepsy with red-ragged fibres

A

Myoclonic epilepsy with ragged red fibers (MERRF) is characterized by myoclonus, typically as the first symptom, and is associated with generalized epilepsy, ataxia, and myopathy. Additional features can include dementia, optic atrophy, bilateral deafness, peripheral neuropathy, spasticity, lipomatosis, and/or cardiomyopathy with Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome. Childhood onset after a normal early development is common.

MERRF is caused by mutations in mitochondrial DNA. More than 80 percent of patients suffering from MERRF harbor an A to G mutation at nucleotide 8344 in the mitochondrial MT-TK gene encoding tRNA(Lys).

320
Q

Conduct disorder is a known precursor to which personality disorder?

A

Antisocial personality disorder

321
Q

Urticarial vasculitis

A

Urticarial vasculitis should be considered when the hives are painful rather than pruritic, last longer than 48 hours, leave residual bruising or pigmentation changes, or recur whenever glucocorticoids are tapered. Patients with urticarial vasculitis may also report fever, chills, and arthralgias. Urticarial vasculitis may occur in isolation or in patients previously diagnosed with other systemic inflammatory diseases, such as Sjögren syndrome or systemic lupus erythematosus. Skin biopsy is indicated if signs or symptoms of vasculitis are present.

322
Q

Dermatographism

A

Patients with this condition develop the rapid onset of a wheal-and-flare reaction after firm stroking, scratching, or the application of pressure to the skin. Dermographism is the most common of the inducible urticarias and is often an incidental finding in the evaluation of other skin conditions, most commonly atopic dermatitis, chronic spontaneous urticaria, and the other inducible urticarias discussed in this topic.

In simple dermographism, a wheal is provoked by stroking, scratching, or rubbing the skin. The wheal typically appears within 6 to 7 minutes and begins to fade 15 to 30 minutes later.

323
Q

Which feature best differentiates urticarial vasculitis from chronic idiopathic urticaria?

A

Persistence of individual lesions

Urticarial vasculitis is also hypocomplementaemic, while normal urticaria has normal levels of complement.

324
Q

You are requested to urgently review a 15-year-old boy with autism spectrum disorder presenting with
acute onset torticollis. He has recently commenced risperidone 2 mg for behavioural disturbance.
What is the most appropriate treatment for his torticollis?
A. Benztropine.
B. Ibuprofen.
C. Lorazepam.
D. Olanzapine.
E. Promethazine.

A

Acute dystonic reaction. AMH:

Dystonias:
Torticollis, carpopedal spasm, trismus, perioral spasm and oculogyric crisis, as well as medical emergencies, such as laryngeal spasm and opisthotonos, may occur. Dystonias are more common in children and young adults, and more likely with high doses. They often occur within 24–48 hours of starting treatment or increasing dose, and respond rapidly to anticholinergics such as benzatropine. In some cases treatment with a benzodiazepine may also help. It may be possible to reintroduce the drug at a lower dose, or consider an alternative.

325
Q

Angelman syndrome testing

A

If AS is suspected, the workup should include methylation studies first, followed by chromosome microarray

326
Q

Multiple focal liver or spleen lesions on imaging for persistent fever

A

Suspect candida

Clinical suspicion — Although many children with invasive candidiasis have no obvious clinical manifestations, we suspect candidemia or invasive candidiasis in children with risk factors who have:
●Unexplained fever or signs of severe sepsis while receiving adequate antibiotics
●Skin lesions suggestive of invasive candidiasis (eg, multiple, nontender, erythematous, pustular or nodular lesions
●Eye findings suggestive of invasive candidiasis
●Multiple focal liver or spleen lesions on imaging for persistent fever

327
Q

Antibiotic choice (oral) for presumed MRSA cellulitis/abscess - exam stem is 3yo with cellulitis/abscess not responding to cephalexin.

A

TMP/SMX.

ETG:
For patients at increased risk of community-associated MRSA, use trimethoprim+sulfamethoxazole or clindamycin.

UTD:
Isolates resistant to oxacillin or methicillin are resistant to other beta-lactam agents, including cephalosporins (with the exception of ceftaroline and ceftobiprole). Definitive therapy for invasive methicillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA) infections depends upon the type of infection, susceptibility of the isolate, and results of testing for inducible resistance to clindamycin.

At home — Treatment of MRSA at home usually includes a 7- to 10-day course of an antibiotic (by mouth) such as trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (brand name: Bactrim), clindamycin, minocycline, linezolid, or doxycycline.

Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin, moxifloxacin, gatifloxacin) and macrolides (e.g., erythromycin, clarithromycin, azithromycin) are NOT recommended for treatment of MRSA because of ready development of resistance.

328
Q

Examples mitochondrial inheritance disorders

A

Mitochondrial myopathy
Diabetes mellitus and deafness (DAD)
Leber’s hereditary optic neuropathy (LHON)***prev Q
- visual loss beginning in young adulthood
Leigh syndrome, subacute sclerosing encephalopathy
- after normal development the disease usually begins late in the first year of life, although onset may occur in adulthood
- a rapid decline in function occurs and is marked by seizures, altered states of consciousness, dementia, ventilatory failure
Neuropathy, ataxia, retinitis pigmentosa, and ptosis (NARP)
Myoneurogenic gastrointestinal encephalopathy (MNGIE)
MERRF syndrome
MELAS syndrome
Mitochondrial DNA depletion syndrome

329
Q

Treatment hereditary angioedema

A

In HAE, deficiency or dysfunction of C1 inhibitor (C1-INH) leads to excessive production of the vasoactive mediator bradykinin, which leads to episodic increases in vascular permeability and angioedema. The bradykinin-mediated angioedema of HAE is fundamentally different from the angioedema that occurs with allergic reactions (which is mediated by histamine and other mast cell mediators), and it does not respond to epinephrine, antihistamines, or glucocorticoids. Instead, first-line therapies for HAE act by replacing C1-INH or by blocking the production or function of bradykinin.

Treatment:
C1 inhibitor
Bradykinin B2-receptor antagonist — Icatibant

Ineffective:

  • Adrenaline (bradykinin mediated, no histamine mediated)
  • Steroids
330
Q

Pulmonary haemosiderosis triad

A

Hemoptysis, iron deficiency anemia and diffuse pulmonary infiltrates

331
Q

Chikungunya

A

West Africa

Chikungunya virus is an arthropod-borne alphavirus transmitted by mosquitoes that causes acute febrile polyarthralgia and inflammatory arthritis as well as acute cutaneous eruptions and other systemic manifestations.

332
Q

Leptospirosis

A

Leptospirosis is a zoonosis with protean clinical manifestations caused by pathogenic spirochetes of the genus Leptospira.
Various mammals are natural hosts; humans are infected incidentally after animal or environmental exposure.

The clinical course of leptospirosis is variable. Most cases are mild and self-limited or subclinical, while some are severe and potentially fatal. The illness generally presents with the abrupt onset of fever, rigors, myalgias, and headache in 75 to 100 percent of patients, following an incubation period of 2 to 26 days (average 10 days).
Conjunctival suffusion, characterized by conjunctival redness, is an important but frequently overlooked sign

333
Q

Typhoid/enteric fever

A

Enteric fever is characterized by severe systemic illness with fever and abdominal pain. Caused by Salmonella enterica (various subtypes).

Enteric fever is a febrile illness with onset of symptoms 5 to 21 days after ingestion of the causative microorganism in contaminated food or water.

Classic presentation:

  • week 1: rising, stepwise fever and bacteraemia, chills, relative bradycardia or pulse-temperature dissociation
  • week 2: abdominal pain, rose spots (faint salmon-coloured macules) on trunk and abdomen
  • week 3: HSM, GI bleeding, perforation d/t ileocecal lymphatic hyperplasia of Peyers patches
  • septic shock may develop.

In the absence of acute complications or death from overwhelming sepsis, symptoms gradually resolve over weeks to months.

334
Q

Diffuse intrinsic pontine glioma

A

The clinical course for children with DIPG is rapid. Most symptoms start less than four weeks before seeking medical attention. Symptoms are caused by dysfunction of pontine structures, including long tracts and cranial nerve nuclei.

Diplopia is usually the first sign secondary to abducens nerve palsy. Damage to the facial nucleus will produce facial weakness or paralysis. Damage to the long motor tracts will produce weakness and hyperreflexia. Dysfunction of the cerebellopontine connections will cause ataxia, dysmetria, dysarthria.

A classic triad in DIPG is present in about 50% of the patients, which includes long tract signs, cerebellar signs, and cranial nerve neuropathies.

Hydrocephalus occurs in less than 10% of the cases.

Account for approximately 80% of pediatric brainstem tumors and with male to female ratio as 1:1. It is more common in younger age group. These tumors are almost always highly malignant and fatal.

The most common symptoms are cranial nerve palsies, most often of cranial nerves VI and VII but sometimes including III, IV, IX, and/or X, as well as long tract signs like hemiparesis.

335
Q

Types of ocular allergy

A

Seasonal allergic conjunctivitis (SAC), perennial allergic conjunctivitis (PAC), vernal keratoconjunctivitis (VKC), atopic keratoconjunctivitis (AKC), and giant papillary conjunctivitis (GPC).

VKC and AKC are chronic, bilateral, and severe forms of allergic inflammation affecting the ocular surface. These two relatively uncommon types of allergic eye disease can cause severe damage to the ocular surface, leading to corneal scarring/ulceration and vision loss if not treated properly (this occurs more commonly with AKC than VKC).

336
Q

Vernal keratoconjunctivitis

A

A type of ocular allergy.

Pruritis (all patients) +/- photophobia, thick mucus discharge, pain, blurred vision.
Bilateral eye involvement and presence of giant cobblestone-like papillae on the upper tarsal conjunctiva (conjunctiva lining the upper eyelid) are nearly universal findings in patients with VKC. Horner-Trantas dots are another sign.

Corneal shield ulcers are a vision-threatening complication of VKC.

337
Q

West syndrome

A

Infantile spasms
Hypsarrhythmia
Arrest of psychomotor development

Present <12mo, clusters brief contractions (flex/ext) especially on wakening.
Poor prognosis
Treat with steroids, unless tuberous sclerosis then treat with vigabatrin

Broad aetiology - TS, T21, many others

338
Q

Lennox-Gastaut

A

The eponym “Lennox-Gastaut” syndrome is appropriate for a patient who has slow spike-wave activity in the EEG, exhibits mental retardation, and has intractable seizures of various types.

2-8yo
Multiple seizure types
Frequent drop attacks
Slow spike and wave <2.5Hz on EEG
ID

Rx: valproate and benzodiazepines

339
Q

Slow spike and wave (<2.5Hz)

A

Lennox Gastaut

340
Q

Dravet syndrome

A

AKA severe myoclonic epilepsy of infancy
Present 1st year of life with prolonged/complex febrile seizures
Initially normal development and EEG, then at 1-4 years developmental arrest and develop other seizure types.
ID
EEG slows, generalised polyspike
Generally drug resistant

EEG: slow + generalised polyspike

341
Q

3 Hz and spike-wave

A

Absence seizures

Provoked by hyperventilation

342
Q

Centro-temporal spikes/ Rolandic spikes

A

Benign (focal) epilepsy of childhood with centrotemporal spikes (BECTS)
AKA benign rolandic epilepsy

343
Q

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

A

Myoclonus, GTC, absence

Onset in adolescence
Myoclonic seizures on wakening from sleep
Treat with valproate (90% respond). Carbamazepine may exacerbate.

EEG: 4-6Hz polyspike wave bursts provoked by photic stimulation.

344
Q

Childhood epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes

A

AKA benign rolandic epilepsy

4-10yo, common (10-15% of epilepsy).
Focal sensorimotor seizures from sleep, involve face and tongue, +/- GTC
Predominantly nocturnal partial seizures.
Normal exam and development, excellent prognosis, remit by mid-teens.
Not all are treated (carbamazepine, midazolam).

Benign (childhood) epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes (BCECTS or BECTS), also known as rolandic epilepsy, is the most common type of focal epilepsy affecting children; it makes up approximately 10 to 20 percent of all childhood epilepsies.

345
Q

EEG: 4-6Hz polyspike wave bursts provoked by photic stimulation

A

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

346
Q

Landau-Kleffner syndrome

A

Acquired epileptic aphasia, regression in language
2-8yo
Marked behavioural disturbance
EEG: continuous status epilepticus of sleep
Difficult to treat

347
Q

EEG: continuous status epilepticus of sleep

A

Landau-Kleffner syndrome

348
Q

AED side effects: visual field constriction

A

Vigabatrin

349
Q

AED side effects: SJS/TEN

A

Lamotrigine (1 in 100) -> slow titration

CBMZ a/w HLA-B*1502, Chinese, Thai

350
Q

AED side effects: teratogenicity

A

All (NTD) but especially valproate has highest risk

351
Q

EEG: occipital spike and slow wave

A

Benign occipital epilepsy

352
Q

Type 1 hypersensitivity

A

IgE mediated
Mast cell degranulation
Conditions: asthma, food allergy, hayfever, anaphylaxis

353
Q

Type 2 hypersensitivity

A

IgG/IgM cytotoxicity (cell surface target/antigen)
Altered signalling, complement activation
Conditions: haemolysis

354
Q

Type 3 hypersensitivity

A

Ab-Ag complexes, IgG (soluble antigen)
Immune complexes
Conditions: serum sickness, dermatitis, erythema nodosum

355
Q

Type 4 hypersensitivity

A

T cell mediated, delayed
Mechanism: Th1, Th2, cytotoxic T cells
Conditions: contact conditions, tuberculin, chronic asthma

356
Q

Mnemonic for types of hypersensitivity

A

ACID

Anaphylaxis
Cytotoxic
Immune complex
Delayed

357
Q

Adjustment disorder

A

A. The development of emotional or behavioral symptoms in response to an identifiable stressor(s) occurring within 3 months of the onset of the stressor(s).
B. These symptoms or behaviors are clinically significant, as evidenced by one or both of the following:
1. Marked distress that is out of proportion to the severity or intensity of the stressor
2. Significant impairment in social, occupational, or other important areas of functioning.
C. The stress-related disturbance does not meet the criteria for another mental disorder and is not merely an exacerbation of a preexisting mental disorder.
D. The symptoms do not represent normal bereavement.
E. Once the stressor or its consequences have terminated, the symptoms do not persist for more than an additional 6 months.

Specifiers: with depressed mood, with anxiety, with disturbance of conduct, mixed, unspecified

358
Q

Differentiate HLHS from critical AS

A

HLHS has no murmur

Both present with circulatory collapse with ductal closure (hours-days).

AS: ejection click, harsh murmur, reduced peripheral perfusion and pulses

HLHS: critically ill w/i hours to days, tachypnoea, dyspnoea, crackles, weak pulses, single S2, no murmur

359
Q

Truncus arteriosus

A

Think of 22q11

Hx:

  • cyanosis may be seen immediately
  • CHF develops days-weeks
  • dyspnoea, FTT, resp infections

Ex:

  • varying degrees of cyanosis and CHF with tachypnoea and dyspnoea
  • bounding pulses
  • systolic click
  • systolic and diastolic murmur

Ix:

  • ECG = normal QRS, BVH
  • CXR = cardiomegaly, plethora
360
Q

Catalase positive organisms

A

Mnemonic: SPACE

Staphylococcus
Pseudomonas
Aspergillus
Candida
Enterobacter
361
Q

AED: Carbamazepine

A

A first-line choice for focal seizures, focal seizures which become bilateral convulsive seizures, and Childhood epilepsy with Centro temporal spikes.

Carbamazepine may worsen seizures in the primary generalised epilepsies such as CAE and JME.

Side effects: Incoordination (e.g. gait unsteadiness) or drowsiness can occur when a patient first starts carbamazepine. These are usually transient. Rash: in particular Steven-Johnsons Syndrome (SJS), is the most important adverse effect to watch for (esp HLAB*1502, Han Chinese, Thai).

362
Q

AED: Ethosuximide

A

There is now class 1 evidence for efficacy in CAE (childhood absence epilepsy) and it is regarded as the drug of choice.

The main side effect is GI symptoms (abdominal pain). Others: hiccups, joint pain.

363
Q

AED: Lamotrigine

A

Lamotrigine is most commonly used in generalised epilepsies. It has also been shown to be efficacious in focal seizure disorders.
The PBS indication is for epileptic seizures with the following clinical criteria:
The condition must have failed to be controlled satisfactorily by other anti-epileptic drugs; OR
Patient must be a woman of childbearing potential.

Care must be taken when combined with valproate (see later section).
Lamotrigine was found to be less efficacious than sodium valproate and ethosuximide in Childhood Absence Epilepsy.

Rash is the most serious side effect to monitor. Steven Johnson Syndrome.
Patients often feel better on lamotrigine as it is a mood stabiliser.

364
Q

AEDs: Lamotrigine + Valproate

A

There is a significant synergistic drug interaction with valproate (valproate is an enzyme inhibitor, lamotrigine clearance is reduced and thus lamotrigine levels are higher).
This can increase risk of rash significantly.
Lower doses of lamotrigine and slow escalation are required.

365
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

Most common disorder of NMJ. D/T antibodies against post synaptic acetylcholine receptors.

Onset >1 yo. Adolescent girls most common.
Extraocular muscles first -> PTOSIS
Fatiguability

Rx

  • Anticholinesterasedrugs, immunosuppressants
  • Thymectomy
  • PLEX, IVIG
366
Q

AED: Valproate

A

A good ‘all rounder’. Often used first line in genetic generalised epilepsies (e.g. CAE, JAE, JME) and can be effective in Childhood Epilepsy with Centro temporal spikes and in refractory epilepsies such as Dravet Syndrome.
Avoid use in confirmed (or suspected) mitochondrial disorders.
In the very young (<2 years old), consider the risk of hepatotoxicity. The aetiology of the neurological problem is helpful in deciding whether to use or not.
There are significant concerns regarding teratogenicity and all women of child bearing age must be alerted to this.

Appetite and weight gain (very common and can be intolerable).
Hepatotoxicity is idiosyncratic and those at most risk are children under the age of 2, metabolic aetiology, and/or multiple drugs, avoid mitochondrial disorders

367
Q

Gitelman syndrome

A

Inborn AR defect of distal tubule NaCl cotransporter.

Often asymptomatic. Transient episodes of weakness and tetany with abdo pain and vomiting.

Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis.
Raised RAAS.
HYPOMAGNESAEMIA.
Hypocalciuria.

368
Q

AED side effects: hyponatraemia

A

Oxcarbazepine
Carbamazepine

Oxcarbazepine is a structural analog of carbamazepine that follows a different metabolic pathway (different metabolites).

369
Q

Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis

A

Antibodies to N-methyl-D-aspartate receptor. Usually preceded by intercurrent illness, sometimes a/w Mycoplasma.

Movement disorder (chorea, dystonia)
Autonomic instability
Neuropsychiatric symptoms
Seizures

Rx: immunomodulation e.g. steroids, IVIG, PLEX, cyclophosphamide, rituximab.

370
Q

ADEM

A

Acute disseminated encephalomyelitis (ADEM), also known as postinfectious encephalomyelitis, is a demyelinating disease of the central nervous system that typically presents as a monophasic disorder associated with multifocal neurologic symptoms and encephalopathy.

ADEM is an uncommon illness; the estimated annual incidence is 0.2 to 0.5 per 100,000 children. The average age of onset in children is between 3 to 7 years.

Classic ADEM:

  • Preceding febrile illness
  • Symptom onset 4-13 days afterwards
  • Fever, headache, vomiting, and meningismus
  • Encephalopathy (REQUIRED)
  • Multifocal neuro deficits, progress over 4-7 days

When to suspect ADEM — The diagnosis should be suspected in a child who develops multifocal neurologic abnormalities with encephalopathy (eg, confusion, excessive irritability, or altered level of consciousness), particularly if onset occurs within two weeks after a viral infection.

The mainstay of treatment for ADEM is high-dose intravenous glucocorticoids. Additional options include intravenous immune globulin and plasma exchange.

371
Q

Myotonic dystrophy

A

Common. AD.
Two types, DM1 and DM2.
CTG triplet repeat.

  • Skeletal muscle weakness and myotonia (abnormally slow or delayed muscle relaxation following normal muscle contraction with a characteristic neurophysiologic signature on electromyographic [EMG] testing)
  • Cardiac conduction abnormalities
  • Cataracts
372
Q

ESBL organisms

A

Mainly Klebsiella and E. coli.
Also Proteus, Pseudomonas, Enterobacter, Serratia, Salmonella, Yersinia, Shigella.

Inducible enzymes carried on plasmids

373
Q

Polydactylyl

A

Most common congenital digital anomaly of the hand and foot.
May be in isolation - Tends to be autosomal dominant
May be syndromic - Tends to be autosomal recessive

Ulnar Polydactyly associated with:
Meckel Syndrome
Ellis-Van-Creveld Syndrome
T21
Smith Lemli Optiz

Radial Polydactyly associated with:
Holt Oram Syndrome
Fanconi Anaemia

374
Q

Guillain-Barre syndrome

A

Acute demyelinating disease of peripheral nerves characterised by progressive weakness.
Usually post viral/immunisation.

Sudden onset weakness, usually lower limbs. Ascending paralysis. Symmetrical.
Pain often a prominent feature.
50% have sensory involvement.
Respiratory muscle weakness may occur.

Ix:

  • High CSF protein
  • Slowed motor neuron conduction velocity
  • Conduction block

Deteriorate 10-20 days then plateau. Recovery. 2-3% mortality.

Treatment is symptomatic/supportive. Consider plasma exchange, IVIg.

375
Q

Myasthenia gravis

A

Most common disorder of NMJ. D/T antibodies against post synaptic acetylcholine receptors.

Onset >1 yo. Adolescent girls most common.
Extraocular muscles first -> PTOSIS
Fatiguability

Rx

  • Anticholinesterasedrugs, immunosuppressants
  • Thymectomy
  • PLEX, IVIG
376
Q

Bartter syndrome

A

Inborn AR defect in Na/K/2Cl cotransporter in thick ascneding loop of Henle -> NaCl and water wasting.

Polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, FTT, constipation.
ECF contraction -> increased renin/aldosterone -> Na+H2O resorption and K and H secretion.
Normal BP.

Hypochloraemic, hypokalaemic, alkalosis.

Inappropriately high urinary NaCl levels. Elevated urine Ca.

Rx with K supps and prostaglandin inhibitors (NSAIDs).

377
Q

Gitelman syndrome

A

Inborn AR defect of distal tubule NaCl cotransporter.

Often asymptomatic. Transient episodes of weakness and tetany with abdo pain and vomiting.

Hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis.
Raised RAAS.
HYPOMAGNESAEMIA.
Hypocalciuria.
High urinary chloride excretion – Fractional excretion of chloride >0.5 percent.
378
Q

Ataxia ddx

A
Post viral
Occult neuroblastoma
Drugs (carbamazepine, phenytoin, benzos, antihistamines)
Posterior fossa tumour
Migraine
Ataxia-telangiectasia
Friedreich ataxia
379
Q

Costello syndrome

A

Rasopathy

FTT (infancy)
Characteristic hands***
- Loose skin
- Typical hand/ wrist position
- Lots of redundant skin
- Deep palmar creases

High Risk Solid Malignancy (10-15%)

380
Q

Kartagener syndrome

A

Situs inversus + chronic sinusitis + bronchiectasis

Absent dynein arms

381
Q

Surfactant deficiencies

A

ABCD mnemonic from lecture:

A is for acceptable 
- rarely seen by resp physicians
B is for bad
- RDS from birth
- Improves with surfactant, but returns when that wears off
- Need transplant
ABCA is for About B to C for acuteness
- wide range of phenotypes
C is for can live 
- chronic interstitial lung disease type pattern
- avg onset 2-3mo of life
D is for didn't study (i.e. don't know)

Proteins B and C relevant for surface tension (hydrophobic lipoproteins)
Proteins A and D relate to immune defence and immunomodulation
Produced by type 2 alveolar cells

382
Q

ESBL organisms

A

Mainly Klebsiella and E. coli

383
Q

Polydactylyl

A

Most common congenital digital anomaly of the hand and foot.
May be in isolation - Tends to be autosomal dominant
May be syndromic - Tends to be autosomal recessive

Ulnar Polydactyly associated with:
Meckel Syndrome
Ellis-Van-Creveld Syndrome
T21
Smith Lemli Optiz

Radial Polydactyly associated with:
Holt Oram Syndrome
Fanconi Anaemia

384
Q

COL5A1 and 5A2

A

Ehlers Danlos syndrome

385
Q

Ellis-Van-Creveld Syndrome

A

AKA chondroectodermal dysplasia
6 finger dwarfism

Narrow chest
Short ribs
Postaxial polydactyly with a complete extra metacarpal
Ectodermal dysplasia with hypoplastic nails and teeth
Structural heart disease: most common = ASD, single atrium

386
Q

Rasopathies

A

What are the Rasopathies?
Mutation in genes encoding proteins involved in the Ras/MAPK signal transduction pathway

Which syndromes are Rasopathies?
Neurofibromatosis 
Noonan Syndrome
Costello Syndrome
Cardiofaciocutaneous Syndrome
What features do they have in common?
Dysmorphic and coarse features
Intellectual disability
Short
Cardiac defects
\+/- Cancer predisposition
387
Q

PTPN11

A

Noonan syndrome

388
Q

Noonan syndrome

A

Rasopathy
PTPN11

Key points:
Relatively common cause of short stature – can be treated by growth hormone
Screen for brain tumours if treating with GH
May occur with NF-1 mutations also
Common cardiac: pulmonary stenosis, LVH

389
Q

Costello syndrome

A
FTT (infancy)
Characteristic hands***
- Loose skin
- Typical hand/ wrist position
- Lots of redundant skin
- Deep palmar creases

High Risk Solid Malignancy (10-15%)

390
Q

Kartagener syndrome

A

Situs inversus + chronic sinusitis + bronchiectasis

391
Q

CATCH22

A
Cardiac abnormalities
Abnormal facies
Thymic aplasia/abnormality
Cleft palate
Hypocalcaemia
Chromosome 22
392
Q

Hyperkalaemia ECG

A

The earliest manifestation of hyperkalaemia is an increase in T wave amplitude.

Peaked T waves
P wave widening/flattening, PR prolongation
Bradyarrhythmias: sinus bradycardia, high-grade AV block with slow junctional and ventricular escape rhythms, slow AF
Conduction blocks (bundle branch block, fascicular blocks)
QRS widening with bizarre QRS morphology

393
Q

Hypokalaemia ECG

A

The earliest ECG manifestation of hypokalaemia is a decrease in T wave amplitude.

Increased P wave amplitude
Prolongation of PR interval
Widespread ST depression and T wave flattening/inversion
Prominent U waves (best seen in the precordial leads V2-V3)
Apparent long QT interval due to fusion of T and U waves (= long QU interval)

394
Q

Midaz for status epilepticus

A
  1. 3mg/kg buccal/IN
  2. 15mg/kg IM/IV

Max 10mg.

395
Q

Desmopressin in vWD/platelet disorders

A

DDAVP releases endogenous VWF from the endothelium.

DDAVP is appropriate for treating minor bleeding or for minor surgical procedures in individuals >2 years of age with VWD (typically mild to moderate type 1 and some type 2) and who have previously demonstrated an adequate response in a DDAVP trial.

A response is typically considered to have occurred if there is an increase in VWF activity and factor VIII activity to at least >30 international unit (IU)/dL (ideally >50 IU/dL) that persists for more than four to six hours.

DDAVP is not used in the following:
●Children <2 years, due to serious side effects in this age group
●Individuals with type 3 VWD, due to lack of response
●Individuals with lack of response in a DDAVP trial
●Individuals with cardiovascular disease, due to an increased risk of thrombosis

Great care should be taken if administering DDAVP to individuals with a seizure disorder due to the potential risk of hyponatremia.

Treatment with DDAVP has been reported to be effective in preventing bleeding after dental extraction and minor surgery in patients with milder platelet defects, including storage pool disease.

396
Q

vWF/vWD

A

Von Willebrand factor (VWF) is a large multimeric glycoprotein that performs two critical functions in primary hemostasis: it acts as a bridging molecule at sites of vascular injury for normal platelet adhesion, and under high shear conditions, it promotes platelet aggregation. VWF has a third function that is important in fibrin formation, acting as a carrier for factor VIII in the circulation that maintains the normal level of factor VIII by decreasing the clearance of factor VIII fivefold.

A bleeding disorder called von Willebrand disease (VWD) occurs when VWF is deficient or qualitatively abnormal.

Mild to moderate mucocutaneous bleeding is most common in types 1 and 2.
Severe bleeding is more common with types 2 and 3.

397
Q

Cohort study

A

Observational (no intervention).
Prospective.
Categorise currently healthy individuals according to some feature (alcohol, smoking, diet) and follow the groups forward in time to see whether one is more likely to develop disease.

398
Q

Case-control study

A

Observation (no intervention).
Retrospective.
Compared diseased and healthy groups and look back in time to see what they have done differently in the past that may have led to disease.

399
Q

Cross-sectional study

A

Observational.
Present time point.
Consider differences between groups at a single point in time currently.

400
Q

Cross over study

A

Each patient receives treatment AND placebo in a random order (compared with parallel trials).
Removes many between-patient confounders.
Only suitable for chronic disorders that are not cured but for which treatment gives temporary relief.

401
Q

Intention-to-treat analysis

A

Basically sticking with the original trial groups regardless of compliance with whichever arm the patient was allocated to. More realistic.

402
Q

Ecological studies

A

Comparing between different regions/countries.

403
Q

Sampling bias

A

Some members of the eligible population are more likely to be included in the sample than others.

404
Q

Recall bias

A

One group is more likely to recall events than the other. Often a problem for case-control studies.

405
Q

Publication bias

A

Important when considering systematic reviews.

Process whereby some studies are more likely to be published, e.g. the ones demonstrating significant difference.

406
Q

Relative risk

A

The proportion in one group divided by the proportion in the other group = relative difference/relative risk/risk ratio.
A value of 1 indicates no difference.

407
Q

Odds ratio

A

An approximation to the relative risk for case-control studies.

408
Q

Type 1 error

A

False positive.

Rejecting the null hypothesis when it is actually true, i.e. interpreting results as significant when they are not.

409
Q

Type 2 error

A

False negative.
Accepting the null hypothesis when it is actually false, i.e. interpreting results as insignificant when they are not.
Generally “fix” with power/more numbers.

410
Q

Tests to compare binary outcomes between two groups

A

Chi-squared

Fisher exact test

411
Q

Tests to compare numeric, normally distributed outcomes

A

T test

Paired t test if samples are paired/matched

412
Q

Tests to compare numeric, non normally distributed outcomes

A

Mann-Whitney U-test

413
Q

Test to compare normally distributed numeric outcome between more than two groups

A

Analysis of variance (ANOVA)

414
Q

Regression analysis

A

Used if adjustment is to be made for confounders before comparing the main outcome between groups.

415
Q

Correlation coefficient

A

AKA Pearson coefficient of linear correlation
Denoted by r
Indicates how closely points lie to a line
Values -1 to 1. 0 = less linear.
Correlates linear (parametric) relationship

416
Q

Spearman rank correlation

A

Correlates non-parametric (non-linear) relationship.

417
Q

Sensitivity

A

Proportion of true positives identified by the test

418
Q

Specificity

A

Proportion of true negatives identified by test

419
Q

Positive predictive value

A

Proportion of those who test positive who actually have the disease
PPV and NPV depend on prevalence of the disease

420
Q

Negative predictive value

A

Proportion of those who test negative who do not have the disease
PPV and NPV depend on prevalence of the disease

421
Q

Likelihood ratios

A

Compare the probability of the test result given the individual HAS the disease, to the probability if the DON’T have it. Calculated from sensitivity and specificity. Not dependent on prevalence.

LR positive result = sens/(1-spec)
LR negative result = (1-sens)/spec

422
Q

Post test odds

A

= likelihood ratio x pretest odds

423
Q

Anaphylaxis adrenaline dose

A

10mcg/kg

0.01mL/kg 1:1000 IM (0.1mL/kg 1:10,000 but not really used IM more IV).

424
Q

HEEADSSS acronym

A
Home
Education and employment
Eating and exercise
Activities
Drugs and alcohol
Sexuality/gender
Self harm, suicide, depression
Safety
425
Q

Inheritance of complete androgen insensitivity

A

X-linked recessive

426
Q

Androgen insensitivity

A

Loss-of-function mutations of the gene that encodes the androgen receptor (AR) result in androgen insensitivity syndrome (AIS) in 46,XY individuals with functional testes and unhindered testosterone formation. AIS encompasses a clinical continuum of decreased to absent androgen effects, varying from a completely female phenotype to a male phenotype with undervirilization or infertility.

Complete androgen insensitivity (CAIS):

  • CAIS often presents in an adolescent or young adult woman seen for primary amenorrhea and found to have little or no axillary and pubic hair.
  • The clinical presentation may also be at birth or during infancy for inguinal masses (containing testes) or hernias in an otherwise healthy female child. The labia and clitoris are unambiguous, and the vagina is short and blind ending.
  • Other features include normal-appearing testes, an absent uterus, and a 46,XY karyotype.

Partial androgen insensitivity (PAIS) — Less severe defects in androgen action cause a variety of forms of 46,XY disorders (or differences) of sex development (DSD) that vary from women with mild degrees of virilization to fertile but undervirilized men.

427
Q

Aspirin overdose - maximising urinary excretion

A

Alkalinisation of urine

428
Q

Lissencephaly - timing of abnormality

A

Neuronal migration

429
Q

Methaemaglobinaemia - enzyme

A

Cytochrome b5 reductase

430
Q

Congenital toxoplasmosis

A

Classic triad of congenital toxoplasmosis consists of chorioretinitis, hydrocephalus, and intracranial calcifications (diffuse/nonspecific, cf CMV which is periventricular).

Most infants with congenital toxoplasmosis are asymptomatic or without apparent abnormalities at birth.

431
Q

Congenital rubella

A

Clinical manifestations of CRS include sensorineural deafness, cataracts, cardiac malformations (eg, patent ductus arteriosus, pulmonary artery hypoplasia), and neurologic and endocrinologic sequelae.

Neonatal manifestations may include growth retardation, radiolucent bone disease (not pathognomonic of congenital rubella), hepatosplenomegaly, thrombocytopenia, purpuric skin lesions (classically described as “blueberry muffin” lesions that represent extramedullary hematopoiesis), and hyperbilirubinemia.

432
Q

Congenital CMV

A

Congenital cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is the leading cause of nonhereditary sensorineural hearing loss and can cause other long-term neurodevelopmental disabilities, including cerebral palsy, intellectual disability, vision impairment, and seizures.

At birth, most infants with congenital CMV are asymptomatic, but approximately 10 percent have symptoms. Clinical manifestations include petechiae, jaundice at birth, hepatosplenomegaly, thrombocytopenia, small size for gestational age, microcephaly, intracranial calcifications (PERIVENTRICULAR), sensorineural hearing loss, chorioretinitis, and seizures.

Sensorineural hearing loss is the most common sequela of congenital CMV and is detected at birth in approximately one-third of infants with symptomatic disease. Many infants with congenital CMV infection are identified solely on the basis of a failed newborn hearing screen. Delayed-onset hearing loss also occurs, although the risk is lower if antiviral treatment is provided in infancy.

433
Q

Perinatal HSV

A

Most newborns with perinatally acquired HSV appear normal at birth, although many are born prematurely. HSV infection in newborns usually develops in one of three patterns, which occur with roughly equal frequency:

  • Localized to the skin, eyes, and mouth
  • Localized central nervous system (CNS) disease
  • Disseminated disease involving multiple organs

The initial manifestations of CNS disease frequently are nonspecific and include temperature instability, respiratory distress, poor feeding, and lethargy; they may progress quite rapidly to hypotension, jaundice, disseminated intravascular coagulation, apnea, and shock. Vesicular skin lesions may or may not be present and develop late in some patients; the absence of skin lesions complicates recognition of the infection.

434
Q

Congenital varicella syndrome

A

Most cases of congenital varicella syndrome occur in infants whose mothers were infected between 8 and 20 weeks gestation. Characteristic findings in neonates may include:
●Cutaneous scars, which may be depressed and pigmented in a dermatomal distribution
●Cataracts, chorioretinitis, microphthalmos, nystagmus
●Hypoplastic limbs
●Cortical atrophy and seizures

435
Q

Congenital syphilis

A

Early congenital syphilis is arbitrarily defined by clinical manifestations with onset before two years of age. Clinical manifestations in untreated infants usually appear by three months of age, most often by five weeks.

Approximately 60 to 90 percent of live-born neonates with congenital syphilis are asymptomatic at birth. The presence of signs at birth depends upon the timing of intrauterine infection and treatment. Among symptomatic infants, the most common findings include:

●Hepatomegaly
●Jaundice
●Nasal discharge ("snuffles")
●Rash
●Generalized lymphadenopathy
●Skeletal abnormalities
436
Q

FGFR3

A

Achondroplasia

437
Q

Rhizomelic shortening

A

Long bone shortening that affects the proximal aspects of the upper and lower extremities

438
Q

Achondroplasia complications

A
Recurrent otitis media
Obstructive sleep apnoea
Obesity
Leg bowing
Spinal canal stenosis 
Cervical medullary compression
439
Q

Goldenhar syndrome

A

AKA ocular-auricular-vertebral syndrome (OAVS)
Part of craniofacial microsomia spectrum
Defect in 1st and 2nd branchial arch

440
Q

Carpenter syndrome

A

Craniosynostosis: Coronal and other = CLOVER HEAD
Prominent metopic ridge
Polydactyly
Syndactyly of hands and feet
ID
Cardiac anomalies common: VSD, PDA, PS, TGA, ASD, TOF

441
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome

A

X-linked disorder WASP gene
Combined B and T cell defects (and neutrophils)
***Poor antibody responses to CHO antigens

Investigations
Thrombocytopenia (microthrombocytopenia - small plts)
Antibodies – often elevated IgE and low IgM
Esosinophilia
Absent antibody response to CHO antigen

TIME:
T – thrombocytopenia (micro!)
I – immune deficiency (recurrent sinopulmonary infections)
M – malignancy (lymphoma/leukemia)
E – eczema
442
Q

Smith Lemli Opitz

A

Defect in cholesterol biosynthetic enzyme (C7-reductase) -> required to convert 7-dehydrocholesterol to cholesterol

Clinical features
Micrognathia
Low set posteriorly rotated ears
Syndactyly of the second and third toes
Males – ambiguous genitalia or female genitalia
Adrenal insufficiency (most)
443
Q

Holt Oram

A

Key points:
CARDIAC PROBLEMS
SKELETAL PROBLEMS (radio-ray, thumb, radius)
NORMAL PLATELETS

444
Q

Prune belly syndrome

A

Triad:

  • Abdominal muscle deficiency
  • Severe urinary tract abnormalities
  • Bilateral cryptorchidism in males
445
Q

Telomere biology disorders

A

Dyskeratosis congenita (DC) is an inherited disorder characterized by bone marrow failure (BMF), cancer predisposition, and somatic (nonhematologic) abnormalities. DC and related telomere biology disorders (TBD) are caused by mutations that interfere with normal maintenance of telomeres, the regions at the ends of the chromosomes that protect nucleated cells from the loss or gain of genetic material.

The following syndromes are considered to be forms of DC:

  • Hoyeraal-Hreidarsson syndrome
  • Revesz syndrome
  • Coats plus syndrome
446
Q

Atypical SUFE

A

Additional risk factors include renal failure, history of radiation therapy, endocrine abnormalities (particularly hypothyroidism and growth hormone deficiency), and various genetic disorders (eg, Down and Rubenstein-Taybi syndromes).

When SCFE occurs in association with one of these additional risk factors, it is called atypical SCFE. Children presenting with SCFE who are younger than 10 years, older than 16 years, whose weight is <50th percentile for age, or whose height is <10th percentile for age should be considered atypical and are likely to have one of the conditions mentioned above

447
Q

Anderson Tawil syndrome

A

Hypokalemic periodic paralysis with cardiac arrhythmia, is a rare autosomal dominant disorder characterized by episodes of paralysis, ventricular arrhythmias, and dysmorphic features.

448
Q

Myopathies affecting the extraocular muscles

A
Most generalized myopathies do not affect the extraocular muscles. However, there are some notable exceptions. Chronic progressive external ophthalmoplegia (CPEO) is a nonspecific term that is used to describe a range of myopathies that affect the extraocular muscles. These progressive ophthalmoplegias include:
●Isolated CPEO
●Kearns-Sayre syndrome
●Oculopharyngeal muscular dystrophy
●Myotonic dystrophy
●Myotubular myopathy

The extraocular muscles often are involved in the mitochondrial myopathies, such as Kearns-Sayre syndrome [1]. Mitochondrial myopathies also can manifest with facial, bulbar, and limb myopathy; neurologic findings (eg, ataxia, spasticity, peripheral neuropathy, deafness, dementia); other ocular findings (eg, optic atrophy, pigmentary degeneration of retina); cardiac conduction abnormalities; gastrointestinal motility; and endocrine, skin, and skeletal abnormalities.

Kearns-Sayre syndrome is a mitochondrial cytopathy that is characterized by CPEO, retinal pigmentary changes, and heart block.

449
Q

Gestational alloimmune liver disease

A

Gestational alloimmune liver disease (GALD) is caused by transplacental passage of reactive maternal immunoglobulins. It was previously known as neonatal hemochromatosis or neonatal iron storage disease, but those terms are misleading because the disorder is unrelated to hereditary hemochromatosis and iron deposition is a consequence, rather than a cause, of the liver injury.

Clinical presentation – GALD is characterized by hepatic failure and hepatic and extrahepatic iron accumulation (hemosiderosis) during the neonatal period. The onset is intrauterine, and newborns present with signs of severe liver failure, including coagulopathy, ascites, and hypoalbuminemia. Hyperbilirubinemia typically is both conjugated and unconjugated, although conjugated bilirubin levels may be only modestly elevated. Hepatic cirrhosis in the neonate is common, underscoring the antenatal timing of the hepatic insult.

Characteristic clinical features of GALD include refractory hypoglycemia, severe coagulopathy, hypoalbuminemia, elevated serum ferritin (>1000 ng/mL), and ascites. Strikingly, serum aminotransferase levels are normal or near-normal, which helps to distinguish GALD from other causes of liver failure that present during the neonatal period.

Antenatal therapy – For pregnant women with a previous pregnancy that resulted in an infant with GALD, antenatal therapy with high-dose intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG) dramatically reduces the risk for recurrence of disease and also reduces the risk for fetal loss.

Postnatal management – The combination of exchange transfusion and IVIG is the current treatment of choice for neonates with GALD. Liver transplantation remains an option for infants who do not respond to IVIG treatment.

450
Q

HLH

A

The disorder is most commonly diagnosed in the first five years of life but can present in adolescence or adulthood. It is characterized by fever, hepatosplenomegaly, marked elevation in serum aminotransferase levels, cytopenias, hypertriglyceridemia, hyperferritinemia (serum ferritin concentrations are often over 5000 ng/mL), hypofibrinogenemia, and elevated levels of soluble IL-2 receptor alpha (sCD25).

451
Q

Juvenile polyps

A

Juvenile polyps are benign hamartomas, which typically occur between the ages of 2 and 10 years, with a peak at three to four years. Patients usually present with painless rectal bleeding, with or without mucus; a few may have lower abdominal pain from traction on the polyp.

May have raised calprotectin - can only differentiate from IBD with scope.

452
Q

Electrical alternans

A

Consecutive, normally-conducted QRS complexes that alternate in height
Occurs when the heart swings backwards and forwards within a large fluid-filled pericardium

Urgent TTE ?tamponade

453
Q

ECG findings pericardial effusion

A

Low QRS voltages
Tachycardia
Electrical alternans

454
Q

SCID phenotypes

A

All have no T cells (T-)

B+ and NK- 
- AR: JAK3, common gamma chain
- X linked
B+ NK+ = IL-7alpha def
B- NK- = ADA/ADK2
B-NK+ = RAG1/2, Artemis
455
Q

Absent nasal bone antenatally

A

Trisomy 21

Also a/w T18 and T13 but less commonly.

456
Q

Immunodeficiency patterns:
Bacteria
Sinopulmonary
Otitis media

A

B cells

457
Q

Immunodeficiency patterns:
Everything!
Candidiasis
Any location

A

T cells

458
Q

Immunodeficiency patterns:
Encapsulated bacteria
Sinopulmonary

A

Complement

459
Q

Immunodeficiency patterns:
Bacteria, fungi
Skin, nodes, deep abscesses

A

Neutrophils

460
Q

Dravet syndrome - contraindicated AEDs

A

Sodium channel blocking drugs such as carbamazepine and its analogs (oxcarbazepine and eslicarbazepine), lamotrigine, and phenytoin may aggravate seizures in patients with DS and should generally be avoided.

461
Q

Developmental coordination disorder

A

Developmental coordination disorder (DCD) is characterized by problems with motor coordination that interfere with academic performance and social integration in otherwise healthy children. It typically presents in the early school years and persists into adolescence or adulthood.

The diagnosis of DCD is typically made in children between 6 and 12 years of age. Most children with DCD have lifelong delays in achieving motor skills.

The DSM-5 criteria for DCD include:
●The achievement and performance of coordinated motor skills is substantially below that expected given the child’s chronologic age and opportunity for skill learning and use.
●The poor performance significantly and persistently interferes with activities of daily living appropriate to chronologic age and impacts academic/school productivity, prevocational and vocational activities, leisure, and play.
●The symptoms began in the early developmental period.
●The impairments in motor skills deficits are not better explained by intellectual disability or visual impairment and cannot be attributed to another neurologic or neuromuscular condition affecting movement (eg, cerebral palsy, muscular dystrophy, degenerative disorder).

Although age ≥5 years is not a diagnostic criterion, the diagnosis of DCD is rarely made in children <5 years of age.

462
Q

X-linked hypophosphataemic rickets

A

AKA vitamin D resistant rickets
Mutation in PEX gene, X linked
Defective phosphate reabsorption

Earliest sign -> increased ALP. Plasma phosphate may be normal until 6-9 months.
By 12 months, have delayed growth, hypophosphataemia, increased ALP, radiological rickets.

Rx: calcitriol and phosphate supplements

Cx: hypercalcaemia, nephrocalcinosis

463
Q

Cardiac complication Rett syndrome

A

Prolonged QTc

464
Q

Which childhood leukaemia is associated with the highest risk of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) at presentation?

A

Acute promyelocytic leukaemia

Acute promyelocytic leukemia (APL) is a rare subtype of AML that is characterized by maturation arrest at the promyelocyte stage and the classic chromosomal translocation t(15;17)(q22;q21).

Many patients with APL present with DIC that requires urgent and aggressive management.

465
Q

What is the first-line treatment for paediatric Grave’s disease

A

Carbimazole

466
Q

What is the mechanism of action of N-acetylcysteine?

A

It is thought to provide cysteine for glutathione synthesis.

467
Q

ITP indications for BMA

A

UTD:

Important indications for bone marrow aspiration and biopsy include the following:
●Atypical clinical or laboratory features at presentation that suggest malignancy or bone marrow failure as discussed above (eg, especially lymph node enlargement, splenomegaly, bone or joint pain, fevers, weight loss, neutropenia, leukocytosis, atypical lymphocytes, or marked anemia).
●Insufficient or no response to treatment with glucocorticoids, intravenous immune globulin (IVIG), and/or anti-D immune globulin given at appropriate doses. Our practice differs from the 2011 guidelines from the American Society of Hematology (ASH), which state that bone marrow examination is not necessary in children who fail IVIG.
●New findings that emerge during follow-up that are not consistent with ITP (eg, subsequent clinical findings of lymph node enlargement, organomegaly, bone or joint pain, fevers, or new laboratory findings of neutropenia, leukocytosis, or anemia without bleeding) or loss of response to ITP therapies that had previously been effective.

468
Q

X-linked ALD MRI changes

A

White matter changes with anterior sparing

469
Q

Anaesthesia and myopathies

A

Central core - malignant hyperthermia
Dystrophinopathies - rhabdomyolysis

Certain myopathies present life-threatening risks that are specific to anesthesia. These are malignant hyperthermia (MH), anesthesia-induced rhabdomyolysis (AIR), and propofol toxicity.

Malignant hyperthermia (MH) is a complex genetic disorder of skeletal muscle typically manifesting clinically as a hypermetabolic crisis when a susceptible individual receives a halogenated inhalational anesthetic agent or succinylcholine. Patients with myopathies caused by RYR1 mutations, notably central core myopathy, are assumed to be MHS.

Anesthesia-induced rhabdomyolysis (AIR) is a syndrome that involves skeletal muscle breakdown, resulting in release of myoglobin, elevated serum creatine kinase (CK), and potentially life-threatening hyperkalemia after exposure to succinylcholine or volatile anesthetic agents, primarily in patients with muscular dystrophy (MD).

470
Q

A comparison of parasomnias that occur on arousal from NREM sleep

A

UTD Table

All occur first third of sleep, as non REM sleep. Same frequency, 3-4/week to 1-2/month. EEG: Slow-wave sleep, with rhythmic theta or delta activity. Duration 10-30 minutes.

Confusional arousal

  • 2-10yo
  • Whimpering, some articulation, sitting up in bed, inconsolable

Sleep terrors

  • 2-10yo
  • Screaming, agitation, flushed face, sweating, inconsolable

Sleep walking

  • 5-10yo
  • Walking around the room or house, may be quiet or agitated, unresponsive to verbal commands
471
Q

Catecholaminergic polymorphic VT

A

Inherited channelopathy, arrhythmogenic disease - RyR2 receptor, AD mutation
As common as long QT!

Episodic palpitations/syncope/arrest, precipitated by exercise/emotion. Arrhythmia reproducible with exercise stress testing.

Worsened by adrenaline.

Bidirectional VT = pathognomonic (also seen in dig toxicity).

472
Q

Parotitis

A

With the exception of mumps, diseases of the salivary glands are rare in children. Bilateral enlargement of the submaxillary glands can occur in HIV/AIDS, cystic fibrosis, Epstein-Barr virus infection, malnutrition, and transiently during acute asthmatic attacks. Chronic vomiting can be accompanied by enlargement of the parotid glands. Benign salivary gland hypertrophy has been associated with endocrinopathies: thyroid disease, diabetes, and Cushing syndrome. Infiltrative disease or tumors are uncommon; red flags include facial nerve palsy, rapid growth, fixed skin, paresthesias, ulceration, or a history of
radiation to the head or neck region.

Parotitis:

Acute parotitis is often caused by blockage, with further inflammation due to bacterial infection. The blockage may be due to a salivary stone or mucous plug. Stones can be removed by physical manipulation, surgery, or lithotripsy.
Recurrent parotitis is an idiopathic swelling of the parotid gland that can occur in otherwise healthy children. The swelling is usually unilateral, but both glands can be involved simultaneously or alternately. There is little pain; the swelling is limited to the gland and usually lasts 2-3 wk. Treatment may include local heat, massaging the gland, and antibiotics. Suppurative parotitis is usually caused by Staphylococcus aureus . It is usually unilateral and may be accompanied by fever. The gland becomes swollen, tender, and painful. Suppurative parotitis
responds to antibacterial therapy based on culture obtained from the Stensen duct or by surgical drainage.

Viral causes of parotitis include mumps (often in
epidemics), Epstein-Barr virus, human herpesvirus 6, enteroviruses, and HIV.

Sarcoidosis: Symmetric parotid swelling; Heerfordt syndrome when associated with uveitis, fever, and
facial palsy.

Sjogrens: Recurrent parotid gland enlargement and parotitis are the most common manifestations in children (>70%). Clinical presentation of recurrent parotitis and or recurrent parotid gland swelling in a child or adolescent is characteristic and should raise the suspicion for Sjogren syndrome.

473
Q

Sarcoidosis - lab findings

A

There is no single standard laboratory test diagnostic of sarcoidosis. Anemia, leukopenia, and eosinophilia may be seen. Other nonspecific findings include hypergammaglobulinemia and elevations in acute-phase reactants, including erythrocyte sedimentation rate and C-reactive protein value. Hypercalcemia and/or hypercalciuria occur in only a small proportion of children with sarcoidosis. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) is produced by the epithelioid cells of the granuloma, and its serum value may be elevated, but this finding lacks diagnostic sensitivity and specificity. ACE levels are estimated to be elevated in >50% of children with sarcoidosis. In addition, ACE values may be difficult to interpret because reference values for serum ACE are age
dependent. Fluorodeoxyglucose F 18 positron emission tomography can help identify nonpulmonary sites for a diagnostic biopsy.

474
Q

Sjogren syndrome

A

Sjogren syndrome is a chronic, inflammatory, autoimmune disease characterized by progressive lymphocytic and plasma cell infiltration of the exocrine glands,
especially salivary and lacrimal, with potential for systemic manifestations. It is rare in children and predominantly affects middle-age women with classic symptoms of dry eyes (keratoconjunctivitis sicca ) and dry mouth (xerostomia).

Recurrent parotid gland enlargement and parotitis are
the most common manifestations in children (>70%). Clinical presentation of recurrent parotitis and or recurrent parotid gland swelling in a child or adolescent is characteristic and should raise the suspicion for Sjogren syndrome.

IMMUNOLOGIC ABNORMALITIES
Presence of at least 1 of the following antibodies: anti-SSA, anti-SSB, high-titer antinuclear antibody, rheumatoid factor.

475
Q

DDX Sjogrens syndrone / parotitis

A

The differential diagnosis of Sjogren syndrome in children includes juvenile recurrent parotitis , characterized by intermittent unilateral parotid swelling typically lasting only a few days. It is frequently associated with fever and may undergo remission with puberty. Unlike in Sjogren syndrome, there is a male predominance, juvenile recurrent parotitis is seen in the younger children (3-6
yr), and there is a lack of focal lymphocytic infiltrates on biopsy.

Other conditions in the differential diagnosis include eating disorders, infectious parotitis (mumps, streptococcal and staphylococcal infections, Epstein-Barr
virus, cytomegalovirus, HIV, parainfluenza, influenza enterovirus), and local trauma to the buccal mucosa.

476
Q

Omenn syndrome

A

Mutation in RAG 1/2 - enzyme responsible for VDJ recombination and generation of TCR -> Partial protein expression and limited production of T and B cells

Outcome: Activated T cells with a limited repertoire and dysregulated B cells
SCID phenotype but without lymphopenia

Key Features
Exfoliative erythroderma +/- Staph infection
Loss of hair, eyebrows and alopecia
Lymphadenopathy
Hepatosplenomegaly 
Chronic diarrhoea, FTT
Lymphocytosis, eosinophilia
Elevated IgE
477
Q

SCID phenotype but without lymphopenia

A

Omenn syndrome

478
Q

Fragile X triplet repeat

A

CGG repeats on FMR1 at Xq27.3 – ‘Congenital Giant Gonads’

479
Q

Benign focal epilepsies of childhood

A

Benign (self-limited) focal epilepsies of childhood are electroclinical syndromes of unknown or genetic cause that occur in developmentally and neurologically normal children and have a benign course, remitting prior to adulthood.

The best-described syndromes are:
●Benign epilepsy with centrotemporal spikes (BECTS), also referred to as rolandic epilepsy
●Early-onset childhood occipital epilepsy (Panayiotopoulos type), often referred to as Panayiotopoulos syndrome
●Late-onset childhood occipital epilepsy (Gastaut type), also referred to as benign occipital epilepsy of childhood or Gastaut syndrome

These epilepsy syndromes are distinguished from symptomatic focal epilepsy, which refers to epilepsy that results from brain injury or other structural brain disease. Thus, the benign focal epilepsies of childhood can be viewed as a spectrum of conditions with “functional” or “nonlesional” focal epileptogenicity, each characterized by location, seizure type(s), and electroencephalogram findings

480
Q

Panayiotopoulos syndrome

A

Early-onset benign childhood occipital epilepsy, often referred to as Panayiotopoulos syndrome, is characterized by a unique seizure type that has prominent autonomic features.

Occurring in early childhood, Panayiotopoulos syndrome presents at a mean age of younger than 5 years (range 1 to 14 years). The seizures in this syndrome have a distinctive yet variable phenomenology compared with other focal epilepsy syndromes. Vomiting is the most characteristic and frequent ictal sign, occurring in 70 to 85 percent of patients.

Vomiting. Syncope. Visual changes.

The seizures are usually nocturnal and last more than five minutes.

nterictal electroencephalography (EEG) in Panayiotopoulos syndrome shows occipital spikes in approximately 75 percent of cases.

The clinical course of Panayiotopoulos syndrome is usually benign. Seizures are infrequent, and almost half of patients have just a single seizure. Spontaneous remission usually occurs within two to three years from onset.

481
Q

LATE-ONSET CHILDHOOD OCCIPITAL EPILEPSY (GASTAUT TYPE)

A

Late-onset childhood occipital epilepsy is also referred to as benign occipital epilepsy of childhood or Gastaut syndrome.

Late-onset childhood occipital epilepsy has a mean age of presentation of 8 to 9 years (range 3 to 16 years), which is somewhat later than in Panayiotopoulos syndrome.

Seizures often include visual symptoms, either blindness or elementary visual hallucinations. Compared with Panayiotopoulos syndrome, seizures are more frequent and of shorter duration, usually less than five minutes. Most seizures occur in the daytime.

Less benign than Panayiotopoulos syndrome.

482
Q

Post infectious neutropenia

A

Infectious neutropenias may represent the most common cause of acquired isolated neutropenia. A number of bacterial, viral, parasitic and rickettsial infections are responsible. In most instances, particularly with viral infections, the neutropenia is short-lived and rarely results in bacterial superinfection. Mechanisms include redistribution, sequestration and aggregation, and destruction by circulating antibodies. Hepatitis B virus, Epstein-Barr virus and human immunodeficiency virus can be associated with more severe and protracted neutropenia.

483
Q

DDX neutropenia

A

Post infectious (most common)
Drug induced (2nd)
Nutritional (B12, folate, copper)
Immune neutropenia
Pure white cell aplasia (a/w thymoma)
Hypersplenism (splenomegaly from any aetiology)
Marrow disorders (aplastic anaemia, leukaemia, chemotherapy)

Congenital (These syndromes include severe infantile agranulocytosis, myelokathexis, Shwachman-Diamond-Oski syndrome, Chediak-Higashi syndrome, and reticular dysgenesis)

Cyclic neutropenia is characterized by recurrent mouth infections and regular oscillations in the numbers of blood neutrophils, monocytes, eosinophils, lymphocytes and reticulocytes at approximately 21-day intervals.

Myeloperoxidase deficiency — In many clinical laboratories, neutrophils are identified on the white blood cell differential by virtue of their positivity for myeloperoxidase. Patients with myeloperoxidase deficiency may then be erroneously considered as having severe neutropenia.

484
Q

Kostman syndrome

A

Severe congenital neutropenia

The term “congenital neutropenia” primarily refers to severe congenital neutropenia (SCN), with the Kostmann Syndrome (HAX1 mutation) as one subtype.

Genetics and pathogenesis — SCN is a genetically transmitted disorder with recessive, dominant, or X-linked inheritance depending on which mutation is responsible:
●SCN due to mutations in the gene for neutrophil elastase (ELANE, previously called ELA2) is an autosomal dominant condition and occurs in 50 to 60 percent of patients
●The initial family described by Kostmann, as well as other more recently described kindreds, have mutations in HAX1 with autosomal recessive inheritance
●X-linked inheritance is seen in SCN due to mutations in the Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome (WAS) gene, also called WASP

485
Q

ELANE

A

Gene for neutrophil elastase

Severe congenital neutropenia (50-60%)

486
Q

Most common suppurative complication of acute otitis media (AOM)

A

Mastoiditis

487
Q

Dacrocystitis (and dacroadenitis)

A

Infantile dacryocystitis is a painful, tender swelling of the inferior medial canthal area, with surrounding cellulitis.

Dacryoadenitis is inflammation of the lacrimal glands (superolateral), whereas dacryocystitis is inflammation of the lacrimal sac (inferomedial) in the inferior lid.

488
Q

“Most significant differential power” for RA vs LA isomerism (as per Parks)

A

IVC

  • Asplenia (RA isomerism): almost always normal
  • Polysplenia (LA): interrupted with azygous continuation

Cardiovascular malformations generally more severe in asplenia.
TAPVR more common asplenia.
Common/single AV valve more common asplenia, plus ASD (primum>secundum)
TGA more common asplenia.

> 95% first year mortality in asplenia (fulminating sepsis is one cause).

489
Q

Netherton syndrome

A

Trichorrhexis invaginata of hair is also known as “bamboo hair” and is pathognomonic of Netherton syndrome. Netherton syndrome is a severe disorder of cornification caused by (SPINK5) mutations. Menkes disease is also known as ‘kinky hair disease’ but is not associated with eczema, recurrent infections or raised IgE. Children present with seizures and development delay due to genetic disorder leading to severe copper deficiency (Menkes).

Netherton syndrome is a rare autosomal recessive disorder of cornification caused by mutations in the serine protease inhibitor of Kazal type 5 gene (SPINK5), which encodes a serine protease inhibitor expressed in epithelial and mucosal surfaces. NS is clinically characterized by the classic triad of congenital ichthyosiform erythroderma, a specific hair shaft abnormality termed trichorrhexis invaginata (“bamboo hair”), and an atopic diathesis.

NS is one of the most severe disorders of cornification. Infants typically present at birth with a generalized scaling erythroderma and have a high risk of life-threatening complications, such as hypernatremic dehydration, failure to thrive, and sepsis. In older children, a wide range of allergic manifestations may occur, including severe atopic dermatitis, asthma, hay fever, and markedly elevated serum levels of immunoglobulin E.

490
Q

Ichthyosis

A

Ichthyosis is a condition that causes widespread and persistent thick, dry, “fish-scale” skin. The skin of a person with ichthyosis is rough, dry and scaly and needs to be regularly moisturised.

491
Q

Congenital disorders of glycosylation

A

Congenital disorders of glycosylation (CDGs) are a group of over 100 monogenic human diseases with defects in the synthesis of oligosaccharides. Oligosaccharides, or glycans, are multisugar structures attached to proteins or lipids.

Most proteins have glycans attached to them - carbohydrate moieties of glycoproteins. N-Glycans and O-glycans (depending on attachment site).

2 most common are:

  • CDG 1a (phosphomannomutase deficiency)
  • CDG 1b (phosphomannoseisomerase deficiency)

Most AR.

Multiorgan disorders affecting particularly the brain (except CDG 1b which is mainly hepatogastrointestinal).

CDG1a dysmorphology

  • inverted nipples, fat pads
  • muscular hypotonia
  • faltering growth
  • cerebellar hypoplasia

Dx:

  • transferrin isoelectric focusing screens but does not detect all
  • enzymology on white cells or fibroblasts

Rx:

  • CDG1b: mannose supplementation
  • others are symptomatic/supportive
492
Q

Macrocephaly ddx

A

HC>97th centile

Increased brain parenchyma (familial, NF, TS, achondroplasia, fragile X, leukodystrophy, lysosomal, organic acid).
Increased CSF (hydrocephalus, benign enlargement subarachnoid space).
Increased blood (IVH, subdural, epidural, AVM).
Increased bone (rare - marrow expansion d/t thalassaemia, skeletal dysplasia).
Increased ICP (idiopathic, infection, blood, CSF).
Mass.

493
Q

Erythema multiforme

A
Acute immune mediate self limiting symmetrical fixed rash with characteristic target lesions. May involve mucosa. 
90% d/t infection - HSV most common. 
Other causes:
- Mycoplasma, EBV, Chlamudia
- drugs: sulphonamides, penicillin
- CTD: SLE, polyarteritis nodosa
- malignancy
494
Q

Microcephaly ddx

A

HC>2SD below mean (<3rd centile).

Isolated.
Syndromic: Williams, Angelman, Rett, Bloom, Cri du chat, Cornelia de Lange, T21/18/13.
Neuroanatomic: NTD, holoprosencephaly, lissencephaly, polymicrogyria.
Metabolic: maternal DM/PKU, PKU, methylmalonic aciduria.
Environmental: TORCH, meningitis, antenatal drugs, perinatal insult, anoxia/ischaemia.

495
Q

Metabolics: sweet odour

A

Maple syrup urine disease
Especially nappy

Block in degradation leucine, isoleucine, valine (BCAAs).

Encephalopathy. Seizures.

496
Q

Non-ketotic hyperglycinaemia

A

Defective glycine cleavage - glycine is a neurotransmitter.
Early onset seizure disorder.

Increased fetal movements (in utero seizures).
Hiccups, hypotoonia.
Progressive apnoeas, encephalopathy.
Seizures.
Developmental delay/psychomotor retardation.

Dx:

  • elevated glycine urine or plasma
  • increased CSF:plasma glycine ratio
  • enzymology

Rx:

  • sodium benzoate
  • dextromethorphan

Poor prognosis.

497
Q
Along with ectopia lentis, which of the following is a common eye sign seen in Marfan’s syndrome?
Cataract
Coloboma
Glaucoma
Myopia
A

Myopia.

Ectopia lentis occurs in 50 to 80 percent with MFS. Ectopia lentis is the only cardinal ocular criterion for MFS.

The finding of myopia >3 diopters contributes one point to the systemic score.

498
Q

Gender dysphoria or incongruence

A

Distress or discomfort that may occur if gender identity and birth-designated sex are not congruent.

499
Q

Calculate post test probability

A

Need pretest probability and likelihood ratios.

Pretest ODDS = pretest prob / (1-pre test prob)
Post test ODDS = pretest odds x likelihood ratio

Post test probability = posttest odds / (1+posttest odds)

500
Q

Anti NMDA receptor encephalitis

A

Anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis is associated with a predictable set of symptoms that combine to make up a characteristic syndrome.

Clinical features — Many patients present with prodromal headache, fever, or a viral-like process, followed in a few days by a multistage progression of symptoms that include:
●Prominent psychiatric manifestations (anxiety, agitation, bizarre behavior, hallucinations, delusions, disorganized thinking, psychosis).
●Sleep disorders, including sleep reduction at disease onset and hypersomnia during recovery.
●Memory deficits.
●Seizures.
●Decreased level of consciousness, stupor with catatonic features.
●Frequent dyskinesias: orofacial, choreoathetoid movements, dystonia, rigidity, opisthotonic postures.
●Autonomic instability: hyperthermia, fluctuations of blood pressure, tachycardia, bradycardia, cardiac pauses, and sometimes hypoventilation requiring mechanical ventilation.
●Language dysfunction: diminished language output, mutism, echolalia.

Children as young as eight months have been reported with this syndrome.

The diagnosis of anti-NMDA receptor encephalitis is confirmed by the detection of IgG antibodies to the GluN1 (also known as NR1) subunit of the NMDA receptor in CSF (serum is less reliable).

The detection of an ovarian teratoma is age dependent; approximately 50 percent of female patients older than 18 years have uni- or bilateral ovarian teratomas, while less than 9 percent of girls younger than 14 years have a teratoma.

Treatment consists of immunosuppression and tumor resection when indicated.

501
Q

Medium-chain acyl-CoA dehydrogenase deficiency

A

Fat oxidation disorder - commonly present with hepatic, cardiac, or muscle symptoms.

Most common fat oxidation disorder - 1 in 10k, same as PKU. Mortality rate 25% on first presentation.

Hypoketotic hypoglycaemia.
Encephalopathy.
Hepatomegaly and deranged LFTs.

Mean age 15mo, most commonly precipitated by diarrhoea.
Commonly G985 mutation.

Rx
- avoid fasting

502
Q

Long chain defects

A

Fat oxidation disorder - commonly p/w hepatic, cardiac, muscle symptoms.

More severe than medium chain disorders.

Hypoketotic hypoglycaemia.
Myopathy.
Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
Pigmentary retinopathy, peripheral neuropathy.

May have maternal hepatic symptoms in pregnancy (HELLP, AFLP).

503
Q

Refsum disease

A

Refsum disease is another treatable progressive ataxia. It should be suspected when a patient with autosomal recessive ataxia presents with the additional triad of ichthyosis, retinitis pigmentosa, and neuropathy. Patients with classic Refsum disease are unable to degrade phytanic acid due to deficient activity of phytanoyl-CoA hydroxylase (PhyH) caused by mutations in the PHYH gene. Strict reduction in dietary phytanic acid intake may be associated with a significant improvement in both the peripheral neuropathy and ataxia.

504
Q

Gaucher disease

A

Glucocerebrosidase deficiency -> accumulation of cerebroside in visceral organs +/- brain.

3 types.

  • type 1 most common, non neuropathic, splenomegaly>hepatomegaly, anaemia, bleeding tendancy, bone pain/deformities/osteopenia, abdo pain from splenic infarcts
  • type 2: acute neuropathic, severe CNS involvement and rapidly progressive, HSM, squint/gaze palsy
  • type 3: subacute neuropathic, squint/gaze palsy, splenomegaly>hepatomegaly, slow neuro deterioration

Dx:

  • elevated ACE, elevated acid phosphatase
  • BMA: Gaucher cells = crumpled tissue-paper cytoplasm
  • white cell enzymology

Rx:

  • enzyme replacement therapy effective in type 1 and 3
  • splenectomy
  • no effective treatment type 2
505
Q

Mucopolysacharidoses

A

Impaired glycosaminoglycan metabolism in lysosomes. Generally normal at birth and present with DD in first year.

Types: Hurler, Hunter (XL), Sanfillipo, Morquio, Maroteaux-Lamy, Sly

506
Q

Hurler syndrome

A

Mucopolysacharidosis - abnormal glycosaminoglycan metabolism. Hurler is the classic MPS with storage affecting body and CNS.

Enzyme deficiency: alpha iduronidase.

Features

  • coarse facies, macroglossia, hirsutism, corneal clouding
  • airway/ENT problems, secretory otitis media
  • dysostosis multiplex
  • cardiomyopathy, valve disease
  • HSM
  • hernias
  • stiff joints
  • DD and retardation

Dx:

  • urine for glycosasminoglycans (screen)
  • white cell enzymology

Rx:

  • BMA
  • ERT (limited BBB penetration)
507
Q

Palpable S2

A

A palpable S2 in the second left intercostal space correlates with pulmonary hypertension.

Causes pulmonary HTN (Parks):

  • increased PBF d/t large LTR shunts
  • alveolar hypoxia
  • increased pulmonary venous pressures
  • primary pulmonary vascular disease
  • other lung disease
508
Q

CALM descriptors

A

The irregular borders of the café-au-lait spots in McCune-Albright syndrome are often compared to a map of the coast of Maine. By contrast, café-au-lait spots in other disorders have smooth borders, which are compared to the coast of California.

509
Q

GBS infection neonate/infant

A

Group B streptococcal (GBS) infection in neonates and young infants is classified by age at onset.
●Early-onset GBS – Early-onset GBS generally presents at or within 24 hours of birth but can occur through day 6 after birth.
●Late-onset GBS – Late-onset GBS usually occurs at four to five weeks of age (range 7 to 89 days).

Early-onset disease — Early-onset GBS infection most commonly manifests as generalized sepsis, pneumonia, or meningitis. In >90 percent of cases, clinical signs are apparent in the first 24 hours after birth.

Late-onset disease — Late-onset GBS disease most often presents as bacteremia without a focus; however, meningitis and other focal infections can occur.

510
Q

Suprasternal thrill

A

Aortic stenosis

511
Q

Mid-systolic click

A

Mitral valve prolapse

512
Q

Complications of vascular ring surgery

A

Parks:

In infants who have had surgery for severe symptoms, airway obstruction may persist for months-1 year. Noisy respiration is caused by pre-existing tracheomalacia. This is more likely in double aortic arch, vascular sling, or right aortic arch with left ligamentum arteriosum.

513
Q

Flexible vs rigid bronchoscopy

A

Rigid bronchoscopy is a procedure in which a large straight metal tube with a beveled distal end is inserted into the trachea through the mouth. Instruments including a telescope with a light source (with or without video monitoring), forceps, suction catheters, and even flexible bronchoscopes can be placed through the beveled tube. Patients can also be simultaneously ventilated through the rigid system. It requires general anesthesia and is typically used for tumor debulking, airway dilation, foreign body removal, placement or removal of airway stents, or to control massive hemoptysis.

Flexible bronchoscopy is more common, and allows deeper exploration of the airways -> better for diagnostics, can also do some procedures.

Prev exam Q: rigid bronch for inhaled foreign body.

514
Q

Poor effort spirometry

A

?suggested by low PEF (peak expiratory flow).

The falsely reduced FEV1 and FEV1 /FVC ratio may be
misinterpreted as indicating an “obstructive impairment.” However, the shape of the flow-volume curve and the reduced PEF indicate that the low values are caused by poor effort.

515
Q

DRESS

A

Drug reaction with eosinophilia and systemic symptoms (DRESS) or drug-induced hypersensitivity syndrome (DIHS) is a severe idiosyncratic reaction characterized by fever (38 to 40°C), malaise, lymphadenopathy, and skin eruption. Additional systemic symptoms may be related to visceral involvement (eg, liver, kidney, lung). In most patients, the reaction begins two to six weeks after the initiation of the offending medication. The aromatic antiepileptic agents (carbamazepine, phenytoin, lamotrigine, oxcarbazepine, and phenobarbital), allopurinol, and antibacterial sulfonamides are the most frequent causes of this disorder

516
Q

SJS/TEN

A

Stevens-Johnson syndrome (SJS) and toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) are severe mucocutaneous reactions, most commonly triggered by medications, characterized by extensive necrosis and detachment of the epidermis. Mucous membranes are affected in over 90 percent of patients, usually at two or more distinct sites (ocular, oral, and genital).
According to a widely accepted classification, SJS and TEN are considered a disease continuum and are distinguished chiefly by severity, based upon the percentage of body surface affected by blisters and erosions:
●SJS is the less severe condition, in which skin detachment is <10 percent of the body surface.
●TEN involves detachment of >30 percent of the body surface area (BSA).
●SJS/TEN overlap describes patients with skin detachment of 10 to 30 percent of BSA.

The risk of SJS/TEN seems to be limited to the first eight weeks of treatment. In children, the medications most often associated with SJS/TEN are sulfonamide antimicrobials, phenobarbital, carbamazepine, and lamotrigine.

Infections, including Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection, are the next most common trigger of SJS/TEN, particularly in children.

Prodrome — Fever, often exceeding 39°C (102.2°F), and influenza-like symptoms precede by one to three days the development of mucocutaneous lesions.

Cutaneous lesions — The skin lesions typically begin with ill-defined, coalescing, erythematous macules with purpuric centers, although many cases of SJS/TEN may present with diffuse erythema. The skin is often tender to the touch, and skin pain can be prominent and out of proportion to the cutaneous findings. As the disease progresses, vesicles and bullae form, and within days the skin begins to slough.

Other — Pharyngeal mucosa is affected in nearly all patients; tracheal, bronchial, and esophageal membranes are less frequently involved. Intestinal involvement is rare.

517
Q

Serum sickness/like reaction

A

The cardinal features of serum sickness are rash, fever, and polyarthralgias or polyarthritis, which begin one to two weeks after the first exposure to the responsible agent and resolve within a few weeks of discontinuation. Although patients may appear very ill and uncomfortable during the acute febrile stage, the disease is self-limited, and prognosis is excellent once the responsible drug is stopped.

Serum sickness — The most common signs and symptoms of serum sickness are dermatitis (rash), fever, malaise, and polyarthralgias or polyarthritis.

518
Q

Neonatal hyperinsulinism from maternal GDM

A

Resolved w/i 2-4 days.

Increased glucose utilization primarily results from hyperinsulinism. Excess insulin also suppresses hepatic glucose production. The infant of a diabetic mother is the most common neonatal clinical situation in which hyperinsulinism causes hyperinsulinemic hypoglycemia. In this setting, it is postulated that intermittent maternal hyperglycemia causes fetal hyperglycemia, which leads to hypertrophied and hyperfunctioning beta cells resulting in fetal and neonatal hyperinsulinemia. After termination of the maternal glucose supply at delivery, hypoglycemia from persistent hyperinsulinism in the newborn usually is transient and typically resolves two to four days after birth.

519
Q

X-linked hypophosphataemia

A

The term vitamin D-resistant rickets (VDRR) originally was used to describe a syndrome of hypophosphatemia and rickets (and/or osteomalacia) that resembled vitamin D deficiency but did not respond to vitamin D replacement or pharmacologic doses of vitamin D. Most of these cases were caused by renal phosphate wasting.

X-linked hypophosphatemia is a dominant disorder, and the most common hereditary hypophosphataemia.

Skeletal abnormalities, including rickets, osteomalacia, and growth failure, are the major clinical findings in children with XLH. However, it is only at the time of weightbearing that leg deformities (eg, bowing) and progressive departure from normal growth rate become sufficiently striking to attract medical attention. Most children have radiographic evidence of rickets, particularly at the growth plates around the knee, which can cause severe bone pain.

In addition to hypophosphatemia and a decreased tubular reabsorptive threshold for phosphate, untreated patients with XLH have normal serum levels of calcium, normal-to-high parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels, elevated (or sometimes normal) alkaline phosphatase activity, normal plasma 25-hydroxyvitamin D concentrations, and normal or slightly reduced plasma 1,25-dihydroxyvitamin D concentrations.

The defects in bone mineralization consistently respond well to treatment with phosphate and calcitriol, but the effects of this treatment on skeletal growth are highly variable.

520
Q

Mesoblastic nephroma

A

Congenital mesoblastic nephroma – Congenital mesoblastic nephroma is usually detected within the first year of life or by prenatal ultrasonography and can be divided into the classic and cellular subtypes. It has been associated with hypertension and elevated concentrations of calcium and renin.

Mesoblastic nephroma is the most common congenital renal neoplasm. It is a solitary hamartoma, and it is usually benign and unilateral. Sonograms show mesoblastic nephroma as a complex mass that may contain cystic areas.

Mesoblastic nephroma is the primary consideration in a neonate with a solid renal mass.

521
Q

What percentage of children with Trisomy 21 and transient myeloproliferative disorder will go on to develop leukemia?

A

25% answer in exam.

30% seen elsewhere.

522
Q

HSP/IgAV ddx

A

There are a number of causes of small vessel vasculitis (including IgAV) that may present with asymmetric polyneuropathy, palpable purpura, and/or pulmonary or kidney involvement. These diseases include primary vasculitides (eg, granulomatosis with polyangiitis), microscopic polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss syndrome), and vascular inflammation secondary to a connective tissue disorder (eg, systemic lupus erythematosus [SLE]) or to an infectious disease (eg, hepatitis B or C). In general, these diseases are uncommon in children.

No laboratory test is diagnostic for IgAV. However, confirmation of a normal platelet count and coagulation studies (prothrombin time [PT], partial thromboplastin time [PTT], and bleeding time) are necessary when clinical features do not allow conclusive distinction of IgAV from other diseases that present with purpura due to thrombocytopenia or coagulopathy.

Laboratory evaluation of autoantibodies, including antinuclear antibodies, anti-double-stranded DNA (anti-dsDNA), and antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCAs), is typically negative in IgAV. Abnormal results for any of these studies may differentiate IgAV from the other causes of small vessel vasculitis. The majority of patients have normal complement levels, but hypocomplementemia has been reported both in IgAV and in AHEI.

523
Q

ANCA types/associations

A

cANCA/PR3 antibodies are most frequently seen in granulomatosis with polyangiitis and pANCA/ MPO antibodies are most often associated with microscopic polyangiitis. However, both may be seen in all three types with varying degrees of reactivity.

524
Q

PBB

A

PBB is one of the most common causes of chronic wet cough, particularly in young children (<5 years of age), accounting for approximately 40 percent of referrals to pediatric pulmonary specialist clinics in resource-rich countries.

Diagnosis — PBB is usually diagnosed based on clinical criteria (termed “clinically-based PBB”):
●Chronic wet cough (duration at least four weeks)
●No other symptoms or signs of other causes
●No evidence of an alternative diagnosis after a standard evaluation (including normal spirometry and normal radiograph, other than bilateral peribronchial accentuation)
●Resolution of the cough after a two-week course of appropriate antibiotics

Most commonly due to non-typable Haemophilis. Also strep pneumo and Moraxella catarrhalis.

Treatment — Children with a clinical diagnosis of PBB should be treated with a prolonged course of antibiotics, with a minimum course of two weeks, e.g. augmentin.

525
Q

Social communication disorder

A

A. Persistent difficulties in the social use of verbal and nonverbal communication as manifested
by all of the following:
1. Deficits in using communication for social purposes, such as greeting and sharing
information, in a manner that is appropriate for the social context.
2. Impairment of the ability to change communication to match context or the needs of
the listener, such as speaking differently in a classroom than on a playground, talking
differently to a child than to an adult, and avoiding use of overly formal language.
3. Difficulties following rules for conversation and storytelling, such as taking turns in
conversation, rephrasing when misunderstood, and knowing how to use verbal and
nonverbal signals to regulate interaction.
4. Difficulties understanding wliat is not explicitly stated (e.g., making inferences) and
nonliteral or ambiguous meanings of language (e.g., idioms, humor, metaphors,
multiple meanings that depend on the context for interpretation).

B - functional impairement.
C - onset in early developmental period
D - not better explained, e.g. autism.

526
Q

Difference autism and social communication disorder

A

Restricted/repetitive behaviours.

DSMV: Autism spectrum disorder is the primary diagnostic consideration for individuals presenting with social communication deficits. The two disorders
can be differentiated by the presence in autism spectrum disorder of restricted/repetitive patterns of behavior, interests, or activities and their absence in social (pragmatic) communication disorder.

527
Q

Mobitz 1 vs 2

A

Mobitz 1 - exhaustion, PR lengthens until one is missed.
Mobitz 2 - random, regular PR then one isn’t conducted.

Mobitz 2 worse, more likely to progress to complete heart block.

528
Q

Which cells produce Anti-Mullerian Hormone?

A

Sertoli cells.

Internal urogenital tract — The internal urogenital tracts arise from initially nonbinary sexually indifferent gonads and two sets of ducts, the wolffian and müllerian ducts, which are present in early embryos regardless of chromosomal sex.
●In typical females, the gonads develop into ovaries; the müllerian ducts give rise to the fallopian tubes, uterus, and upper vagina, and the wolffian ducts persist in vestigial form.
●In typical males, the gonads develop into testes; the wolffian ducts give rise to the epididymides, vasa deferentia, seminal vesicles, and ejaculatory ducts, and the müllerian ducts regress.

AMH, a glycoprotein formed by Sertoli cells of the fetal testis beginning at approximately six weeks of development, causes regression of the müllerian ducts.

529
Q

ADHD most common comorbidity

A

ODD

530
Q

Oculogyric crisis antidote

A

Benztropine

Oculogyric crisis is a dystonia.

531
Q

Which test measures total lung capacity?

A

Plethysmography

532
Q

The most common cause of errors when taking a blood pressure is…

A

Incorrect cuff size

533
Q

Hereditary angioedema

A

Generally due to deficient/dysfunctional C1 esterase inhibitor.
Type 1 = deficient AND dysfunctional.
Type 2 = dysfunctional only.
Both cause low C4.

Hereditary angioedema (HAE) is a disease characterized by recurrent episodes of angioedema, without urticaria (also called wheals) or pruritus, which most often affect the skin or mucosal tissues of the upper respiratory and gastrointestinal tracts. Although the swelling is self-limited and resolves in two to five days without treatment, laryngeal involvement may cause fatal asphyxiation.

HAE with C1 inhibitor deficiency/dysfunction — HAE type I is due to C1-INH deficiency, and type II is caused by C1-INH dysfunction. Together, these two disorders are called HAE with C1-INH deficiency.
HAE type I accounts for 85 percent of HAE-C1-INH kindreds and is characterized by reduced secretion of the C1-INH protein. Upon testing, plasma protein (antigenic) and functional C1-INH levels are both low.
HAE type II results from the presence of a dysfunctional C1-INH protein, which is present in normal or elevated amounts. Upon testing, C1-INH function is low, but protein levels are normal or elevated.

C1-INH deficiency or dysfunction results in low levels of complement component 4 (C4) because the C1 complex normally cleaves C4 as part of the classical complement pathway, and this is exaggerated if C1-INH is deficient.

534
Q

Incubation period definition

A

The period between exposure to an infection and the appearance of the first symptoms.

535
Q

Transport maximum

A

Exam Q: What is the term for the point of maximal absorption of a solute by the renal tubule?

For most substances actively re-absorbed or secreted in the kidney, there is a transport maximum. In physiology, transport maximum (alternatively Tm or Tmax) refers to the point at which increase in concentration of a substance does not result in an increase in movement of a substance across a cell membrane.

536
Q

Exam finding XLA

A

There is only one characteristic physical finding of XLA and that is the absence or near absence of the B cell-rich tonsils and adenoids.

Recurrent bacterial respiratory tract infections are the most common manifestation of XLA. The infections are usually caused by encapsulated pyogenic bacteria, organisms for which opsonization by antibody is a primary host defense.

537
Q

Diagnosis XLA

A

Prev exam Q - newborn with fam hx, what test to diagnose?

?Lymphocyte subsets - 20% of patients with XLA don’t have a BTK mutation…

A definitive diagnosis is made when a male patient has hypogammaglobulinemia or agammaglobulinemia, <2 percent CD19+ B cells, and either a male family member of maternal lineage who is documented to also have agammaglobulinemia and <2 percent CD19+ B cells or a confirmed (by DNA, messenger RNA [mRNA], or protein analysis) defect in the BTK gene or Btk expression.

538
Q

What is the mechanism of oseltamivir?

A

Inhibit viral neuraminidase from allowing exit from the cell.

UTD: Neuraminidase inhibitors prevent the release of virions from the host cell. Neuraminidase inhibitors are active against influenza A viruses and influenza B viruses. Then lists Oseltamivir…

539
Q

Neopterin

A

Prev Q: Which CSF metabolite is the most sensitive marker of inflammation?

Neopterin is regarded as a valuable early biochemical marker of the cellular immune response during inflammation… Therefore, CSF neopterin serves as a strong inflammatory biomarker for practitioners.

540
Q

Pyrin inflammasomopathies

A

FMF
Hyper IgD syndrome
PAPA (The syndrome of pyogenic arthritis, pyoderma gangrenosum, and acne)
Pyrin-associated autoinflammation with neutrophilic dermatosis
Periodic fever, immunodeficiency, and thrombocytopenia

541
Q

Cryopyrin inflammasomopathies

A

Cryopyrin-associated periodic syndromes: Familial cold autoinflammatory syndrome, Muckle-Wells syndrome, Neonatal-onset multisystem inflammatory disorder.

Majeed syndrome

542
Q

Function hippocampus

A

Right hippocampus plays a critical role in spatial memory in older adults, while the role of left hippocampus in verbal memory is more prominent.

543
Q

Intellectual disability cut offs (mild, mod, etc)

A

mild ID IQ 50-55 to 70 55 to 70
moderate ID IQ 35-40 to 50-55
severe ID IQ 20-25 to 35-40
profound ID IQ below 20-25

544
Q

What anti-epileptic drug demonstrates irreversible inhibition of GABA transaminase?

A

Vigabatrin

545
Q

Dysferlin

A

Dysferlinopathies encompass pathogenic variants in the dysferlin gene (DYSF) that cause two main types of muscular dystrophy, LGMD (limb girdle muscular dystrophy) R2 and Miyoshi distal myopathy, and other muscle disorders with variable phenotypes ranging from asymptomatic hyperCKemia to severe disability.

The DYSF gene provides instructions for making a protein called dysferlin. This protein is found in the thin membrane called the sarcolemma that surrounds muscle fibers. Dysferlin is thought to aid in repairing the sarcolemma when it becomes damaged or torn due to muscle strain.

546
Q

Hypoxia with normal A-a gradient

A

Hypoventilation

If the A-a gradient is normal, then the cause of hypoxia is low oxygen content in the alveoli, either due to low O2 content in the air (low FiO2, as in the high altitude) or more commonly due to hypoventilation like the central nervous system (CNS) depression, OHS, or obstructed airways as in COPD exacerbation.

547
Q

Cause of McCune Albright Syndrome

A

McCune-Albright syndrome is a rare mosaic disorder caused by postzygotic activating mutations of the GNAS1 gene, encoding the alpha subunit of the stimulatory G protein.

Patients with MAS have a somatic (postzygotic) mutation of the alpha subunit of GNAS, which encodes the Gs protein that activates adenylyl cyclase.

548
Q

Neuromyelitis optica spectrum

A

Neuromyelitis optica spectrum disorders (NMOSD; previously known as Devic disease or neuromyelitis optica [NMO]) are inflammatory disorders of the central nervous system characterized by severe, immune-mediated demyelination and axonal damage predominantly targeting optic nerves and the spinal cord.

Unlike multiple sclerosis, necrosis and cavitation typically involve both gray and white matter.

The pathophysiology of NMOSD is thought to be primarily mediated by the humoral immune system. The most important of these was the identification of a NMOSD disease-specific autoantibody, initially termed the NMO-immunoglobulin G (IgG) antibody, and now referred to as the AQP4 autoantibody.

Hallmark features of NMOSD include acute attacks of bilateral or rapidly sequential optic neuritis (leading to severe visual loss) or transverse myelitis (often causing limb weakness, sensory loss, and bladder dysfunction) with a typically relapsing course. Attacks most often occur over days, with variable degrees of recovery over weeks to months.

549
Q

Infant mortality

A

The infant mortality rate is defined as the number of deaths of children under one year of age, expressed per 1 000 live births.

550
Q

How do glucocorticoids cause osteoporosis

A

Google: Glucocorticoids cause profound effects on bone cell replication, differentiation, and function. Glucocorticoids increase bone resorption by stimulating osteoclastogenesis by increasing the expression of RANK ligand and decreasing the expression of its decoy receptor, osteoprotegerin.

UTD: Essentially short term increased osteoclast activity as above, longer term more d/t reduced osteoblast activity.

With long-term use, the predominant effect of glucocorticoids on the skeleton is reduced bone formation.

551
Q

Prevent selection bias

A

Randomisation

552
Q

Ascertainment/sampling bias

A

In statistics, sampling bias is a bias in which a sample is collected in such a way that some members of the intended population have a lower or higher sampling probability than others. It results in a biased sample of a population in which all individuals, or instances, were not equally likely to have been selected.

Appropriate inclusion of cases and controls within case-control studies is essential to avoid ascertainment bias. In cohort studies, knowledge of exposures of interest should be kept separate from screening, identification and recording of relevant outcomes of interest.

553
Q

Detection bias

A

Detection bias refers to systematic differences between groups in how outcomes are determined. Blinding (or masking) of outcome assessors may reduce the risk that knowledge of which intervention was received, rather than the intervention itself, affects outcome measurement.

554
Q

Measurement bias

A

Measurement bias is a systematic distortion of the results of treatment comparisons that can occur when people measuring outcomes - whether researchers, healthcare providers, or study participants - are aware of the treatment allocation when they are measuring outcomes.

Prevent with blinding of treatment allocation.

555
Q

SPINK1

A

Hereditary pancreatitis

The SPINK1 gene encodes a pancreatic secretory trypsin inhibitor that is regulated as an acute phase reactant. SPINK1 mutations can cause familial pancreatitis with an autosomal recessive pattern in families in which both parents have a mutation.

556
Q

PCOS and COCP

A

Exam Q 2021 - Increases sex hormone binding globulin.

Combined oral contraceptives (COCs) reduce levels of androgen, especially testosterone (T), by inhibiting ovarian and adrenal androgen synthesis and by increasing levels of sex hormone-binding globulin (SHBG).

COCs, which contain estrogen and progestin, usually are the first-line treatment for adolescents with PCOS and abnormal menstrual bleeding or cutaneous signs of androgen excess. The estrogen-progestin combination suppresses the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian axis and reduces excess androgen production by the ovary, which improves menstrual regularity and decreases anovulatory uterine bleeding, hirsutism, and acne. The progestin component also inhibits endometrial proliferation, preventing hyperplasia and the associated risk of carcinoma.

557
Q

GSD1 - enzyme deficiency

A

Glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency, also known as von Gierke disease, is a glycogen storage disease (GSD). It was the first GSD to have the responsible enzyme defect identified and therefore is designated GSD I. The defective enzymes involved in GSD I are mainly active in the liver and kidney. Patients present with manifestations related to hypoglycemia around three to four months of age. The diagnosis is confirmed by genetic testing. Treatment is focused on maintenance of physiologic glucose levels.

558
Q

Factor V Leidin

A

Activated protein C resistance - there are other forms but FVL is the most common.

Factor V Leiden (FVL) results from a point mutation in the F5 gene, which encodes the factor V protein in the coagulation cascade. FVL renders factor V (both the activated and inactive forms) insensitive to the actions of activated protein C (aPC), a natural anticoagulant.

559
Q

PMP-22

A

CMT-1A.

CMT1A is associated with a 1.5 Mb duplication or, less commonly, a single nucleotide variant of the peripheral myelin protein 22 (PMP22) gene on chromosome 17p11.2-p1.

560
Q

Hypocretin

A

Narcolepsy type 1, previously called narcolepsy with cataplexy, includes cataplexy as one of the earliest symptoms and is associated with low cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) orexin (also called hypocretin) levels.

561
Q

WPW and verapamil

A

Contraindicated.

Verapamil may result in significant acceleration of ventricular response during atrial fibrillation in the Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome.

562
Q

Mechanism of influenza pandemics

A

Influenza viruses constantly change through a process called antigenic drift. This is the random accumulation of mutations in the haemagglutinin (HA), and to a lesser extent neuraminidase (NA) genes, recognized by the immune system. It is most pronounced in influenza A viruses.

563
Q

Physiologic characteristics of REM sleep

A

Prev exam Q.

Reduced muscle tone. Increased variability HR/RR.

As we progress from wakefulness through the stages of non-REM sleep, our breathing rate slightly decreases and becomes very regular. During REM sleep, the pattern becomes much more variable again, with an overall increase in breathing rate.

As compared to wakefulness, during non-REM sleep there is an overall reduction in heart rate and blood pressure. During REM sleep, however, there is a more pronounced variation in cardiovascular activity, with overall increases in blood pressure and heart rate.

With REM sleep, changes occur in brain signaling which cause reduced muscle tone in many of the body’s muscles; this may be called REM sleep muscle paralysis or muscle atonia. This is considered a normal function of REM sleep.

564
Q

Most common ophthalmological lesion in a child with rubella?

A

Cataracts.

Cataracts occur in approximately one-quarter of infants with CRS.

565
Q

Small blue round cell tumours

A

Tumors that belong to this group are:

Desmoplastic small-round-cell tumour
Ewing's Sarcoma/PNET
Neuroblastoma
Medulloblastoma
Rhabdomyosarcoma
Synovial sarcoma
Carcinoid tumor
Mesothelioma
Small cell lung cancer
Wilms' tumour
Retinoblastoma
Small-cell lymphoma
Hepatoblastoma - only the anaplastic form has round blue cells, the more common fetal and embryonal types do not
Merkel cell carcinoma
Mesenchymal chondrosarcoma
566
Q

FLNB gene mutation disorders

A

Larsen syndrome
Boomerang dysplasia
Spondylocarpotarsal syndrome

567
Q

Which of the following is the most helpful tool to determine if the result is clinically significant?

A

Effect size.

Correct. Effect size is a measure of the size of the effect (or difference between the two. Is 15 mins really a clinically significant effect?). Other factors to consider would be the side effect profile of the new drug, the cost, ease of administration etc.

568
Q

Pearson syndrome

A

Pearson syndrome is caused by mitochondrial DNA deletions and is usually fatal in infancy. The mutations lead to sideroblastic anaemia, neutropaenia, thrombocytopaenia and pancreatic dysfunction.

569
Q

TLS treatment options/components

A

Hyperhydration (2-3L/m^2/day)
Bicarb/alkalinisation
Allopurinol
Rasburicase

Furosemide no role (as per learnmed).

570
Q

UC extraintestinal manifestations

A

As per learnmed:

Fever and arthritis are the most common extra-intestinal manifestations, other manifestations include erythema nodosum, pyoderma gangrenoum, and primary sclerosing cholangitis.

571
Q

What is most predictive of a child suspected to develop congenital myotonic dystrophy (CDM1)?

A

Methylation patterns flanking the CTG repeat.

Learnmed question.

Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal dominant condition with variable penetrance and complex genetics. It is considered a triplet repeat disorder of the DM1 gene (dystrophia myotonica). Yet typically, it is the mother who transmits the disease, and children born of affected mothers are more severely affected than those born of affected fathers. The reason for this comes from protein kinase methylation patterns flanking the CTG repeat. These methylation patterns are stronger indicators of CDM1 than repeat size. Barbe, L et al (2017) CpG Methylation, a Parent-of-Origin Effect for Maternal-Biased transmission of Congenital Myotonic Dystrophy. Am. J. Hum. Genet, 100, 488-505.

Myotonic dystrophy (DM) mutations with trinucleotide CTG repeats <50 are typically normal, 50-99 may exhibit cataracts, while those with repeats beyond 100 will present with myotonia and weakness. Myotonia may be absent in the neonatal period.

“There is no evidence that mutations in mtDNA are involved in the pathogenesis of congenital myotonic dystrophy” [Poulton, J et al (1995) Mitochondrial DNA does not appear to influence…. J. Med. Genet, 32, 732-735]

Clinically, methylation patterns may not yet be available for pathology testing, unlike CTG repeat testing.

The correct answer is A. If option A was not provided, then the answer would be B (CTG repeat size).

572
Q

PNH diagnosis

A

Bone marrow flow cytometry. Previously acid serum lysis test.

A. A test previously used to diagnose paroxysmal noturnal haemoglobinuria. Detects the sensitivity of PNH red cells to lysis by complement. Complement is activated by the reduction of the pH of fresh serum to 6.4. Haemolysis of red cells indicated a positive test. PNH is a disorder characterized by an increased sensitivity of cells to the action of complement due to an absence of GPI linked proteins sue to an abnormality in the PIG-A gene, which causes a defect in the glycosyl-phosphatidyl-inositol anchor (GPI).

B. Now used to diagnose PNH by detecting the absence of GPI linked proteins from the surface of PNH haematopoietic cells.

573
Q

Griscelli syndrome

A

Griscelli syndrome is a rare, autosomal-recessive disorder caused by a mutation in the intracellular trafficking genes which leads to partial oculocutaneous albinism and immunodeficiency. Hair shaft findings are pathognomic.

Learnmed stem: A child presents with partial oculocutaneous albinism presents with recurrent infections. On examination of the hair shaft, large, irregular clumps of melanin granules are distributed near the medulla of the hair shaft. The shaft appears uniformly white under polarised light microscopy. Blood film is normal. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

574
Q

Salter Harris fracture management

A

1 and 2 can be managed with closed reduction.
3 and above need open reduction - risk to growth plate.

2, 3, 4 = M E spells ME
2 = metaphysis
3 = epiphysis
4 = both

1 = through physis
5 = crush

3/4/5 may affect growth

575
Q

The most important known factor which influences the rate of development of microvascular complications in patients with diabetes is…

A

Hyperglycaemia. Risk is related to duration, but RATE relates to degree of hyperglycaemia.

576
Q

Tay Sachs vs Niemann Pick

A boy develops progressive weakness from the age of four months. He was previously able to sit without support but has lost this skill. On examination, he is macrocephalic and hyperreflexic. Fundoscopy reveals a cherry red macula.

A

Tay Sachs disease is a lysosomal storage disorder that presents after 3 months with regression of gross motor skills. Macrocephaly is common because of accumulation of GM2 ganglioside in the brain. Niemann Pick Disease Type A is also associated with developmental regression and a cherry red macula but reflexes are absent or reduced. Macrocephaly is not a usual feature.

577
Q

Hunter, Hurler, Morquio

A child presents at six months with developmental delay and recurrent sinopulmonary infections. On examination, the child has hepatosplenomegaly and corneal clouding.

A

Correct answer: Hurlers syndrome
Explanation:
Hunters, Hurlers and Morquio syndrome are all mucopolysaccharidoses.

Hunters syndrome is not associated with corneal clouding (think of the Hunter needing good eyesight!)

Morquio syndrome is characterised by predominantly skeletal problems and although corneal clouding can occur, it is far more common in Hurlers syndrome.

Children with Hurlers syndrome may present with recurrent sinopulmonary infections and developmental delay before the characteristic facial features have developed.

578
Q

Recombinase activating gene 1 defect and recombinase activating gene 2 defect (RAG1 and 2)

A

Omenn syndrome

Omenn syndrome is a variant of SCID (severe combined immunodeficiency). Children present with recurrent infections, exudative erythroderma, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, chronic persistent diarrhoea, and failure to thrive.

579
Q

Signs suggestive of forced sexual penetrations

A

Learnmed:

  • Extensive bruising on the hymen
  • Laceration (tear, partial or complete) of the hymen (acute)
  • Perianal lacerations extending deep to the external anal sphincter (Not to be confused with partial failure of midline fusion.)
  • Hymenal transection (healed): An area between 4 o’clock and 8 o’clock on the rim of the hymen, where it appears to have been torn through, to or nearly to the base, so there appears to be virtually no hymenal tissue remaining at that location.
  • Missing segment of hymenal tissue. Area in the posterior (inferior) half of the hymen, wider than a transection, with an absence of hymenal tissue extending to the base of the hymen, which is confirmed using additional positions or methods.
580
Q

Attrition bias

A

Attrition bias describes the bias that occurs when people who are lost to follow up. This may occur because participants do not continue treatment or are no longer willing or able to participate in the study.

581
Q

Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Aureus (MRSA) is a major health concern worldwide, and is increasingly implicated in nosocomial infections. Resistance is frequently mediated by bacterial acquisition of the mecA gene, resulting in:

A

Alteration of penicillin binding protein

Beta-lactams need to bind to Penicillin-Binding Proteins (PBPs) in order to disrupt cell wall synthesis and induce cell death. Methicillin is a semi synthetic penicillin which is stable against staphylococcal penicillinase. The mechanism for resistance to methicillin in staphylococcal species is thus through the acquisition of the mecA gene, which codes for PBP2a, a PBP which has low affinity to penicillins, cephalosporins and carbapenems.

582
Q

Timothy syndrome

A

There are rare reports of infants with severe LQTS and syndactyly involving both fingers and toes, frequently with associated patent ductus arteriosus and other cardiac abnormalities. The constellation of QT prolongation (usually marked), syndactyly, and often developmental delays is called Timothy syndrome.

High association with autism (70%).

583
Q

The resistant organisms are sometimes remembered as the ESKAPE organisms. These include…

A
Enterococcus faecium (vancomycin)
Staph aureus (methicillin and vancomycin)
Klebsiella pneumoniae (ESBL or carbapenems)
Acinetobacter baumannii (carbapenems)
Pseudomonas aeruginosa (carbapenems)
Enterobacter species (cephalosporins)
584
Q

What cardiac structure is most likely to be affected in chronic rheumatic heart disease?

A

Mitral, then aortic (or combined), then tricuspid.

It’s in the name! rheuMATic.

585
Q

Markers of disease activity SLE

A

dsDNA

C3/C4/CH50

586
Q

CHD7

A

CHARGE syndrome

587
Q

PAX2 gene

A

Renal coloboma syndrome

Renal-coloboma syndrome is associated with mutations in the PAX2 gene. It is an autosomal disorder associated with coloboma, renal abnormalities, SNHL, seizures and joint laxity. Marfan syndrome is associated with joint laxity and ocular abnormalities – specifically ectopia lentis – but is not usually associated with renal abnormalities.

588
Q

Metanephros

A

Embryological structure.

Becomes the kidney.

589
Q

Glucokinase

A

Glucokinase is an enzyme that facilitates phophorylation of glucose to glucose-6-phosphate. It occurs in cells in the liver, pancreas, gut, and brain.

590
Q

Tocilizumab

A

Tocilizumab is a recombinant humanized anti-human monoclonal antibody directed against the IL 6 receptor which is used in the treatment of systemic onset JIA and polyarticular JIA. It is given by infusion.

591
Q

Etanercept

A

Etanercept is a biologic tumor necrosis factor (TNF) inhibitor; the drug acts as a soluble TNF receptor and binds TNF-alpha and TNF-beta.

592
Q

Anakinra

A

Anakinra is an IL1 inhibitor used in the treatment of systemic JIA. Canakinumab is also an IL1 inhibitor but is administered monthly. Rilonacept is another Il1 inhibitor used in the treatment of systemic JIA but it is administered weekly. All are subcutaneous injections.

593
Q

Bleomycin

A

G2

Bleomycin is a cell-cycle specific glycopeptide antibiotic that arrests rapidly dividing cells at the early G2 stage.

594
Q

Cytarabine

A

S
Cytarabine is a cell-cycle specific pyrimidine analogue that inhibits DNA polymerase leading to arrest of DNA synthesis at the S stage.

595
Q

Asparaginase

A

G1
Asparaginase is a cell-cycle specific enzyme that depletes leukemic cells of asparagine thereby arresting growth at the G1 stage.

596
Q

Vincristine

A

Vinca alkaloid

Mitosis phase of cell cycle

597
Q

Cell cycle independent chemotherapeutics

A
Platinating agents (cisplatin, carboplatin) 
Alkylating agents (cyclophosphamide, busulphan)
598
Q

Etoposide cell cycle

A

Etoposide is cell cycle dependent and phase specific, affecting mainly the S and G2 phases.

599
Q

Ganciclovir

A

Ganciclovir, and inhibitor of viral DNA polymerase, is the most extensively studied antiviral for symptomatic congenital CMV infection. It has been demonstrated to prevent deterioration of hearing impairment. Neutropenia is a common side effect. It is only able to be administered IV; valganciclovir is an oral prodrug which is an alternative treatment option, but has been less extensively researched.

600
Q

pre-exposure prophylaxis (PrEP)

A

Tenofovir disoproxil and emtricitabine (Truvada) is the only PBS listed medication for PrEP. If taken correctly it is 99% effective at preventing HIV transmission. It should be considered in those at risk of HIV (e.g. men who have sex with men (MSM) who have a sexual partner with HIV and a detectable viral load, men or women who have casual anal sex without condoms with MSM, or a woman whose partner is HIV positive and is planning natural conception). It is recommended to complete HIV and STI testing, as well as assess renal function, prior to prescribing PrEP and at three month intervals whilst taking PrEP, and to also provide information regarding safe sex.

601
Q

Causes neonatal seizures

A

In decreasing order of frequency: HIE (46%) > stroke (13%) > ICH (11%) > unknown > infection > electrolyte disturbance > genetic epilepsy > CNS malformation = IEM

602
Q

Dent disease

A

Dent disease is also known as X-linked recessive nephrolithiasis. Children with Dent disease present with polyuria, microscopic haematuria, proteinuria or kidney stones. 75% of patients develop kidney stones. Most cases of Dent disease are caused by mutations in the CLCN5 gene that inactivates a voltage-gated chloride transporter named CLC-5. Some cases are associated with mutations in the OCRL1 gene, which is also the gene mutation associated with Lowe oculocerebrorenal syndrome.

603
Q

CLCN5

A

Dent disease

604
Q

GABRA1

A

Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy

605
Q

PRRT2

A

Self-limiting and familial infantile seizures