Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

Interleukin 1

A

Produced by macrophages/basophils
Pro-inflammatory

Macrophages, large granular lymphocytes, B cells, endothelium, fibroblasts, and astrocytes secrete IL-1. T cells, B cells, macrophages, endothelium and tissue cells are the principal targets. IL-1 causes lymphocyte activation, macrophage stimulation, increased leukocyte/endothelial adhesion, fever due to hypothalamus stimulation, and release of acute phase proteins by the liver. It may also cause apoptosis in many cell types and cachexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Interleukin 2

A

Produced by T cells
T-, B- and NK cell growth

T cells produce IL-2. The principal targets are T cells. Its primary effects are T-cell proliferation and differentiation, increased cytokine synthesis, potentiating Fas-mediated apoptosis, and promoting regulatory T cell development. It causes proliferation and activation of NK cells and B-cell proliferation and antibody synthesis. Also, it stimulates the activation of cytotoxic lymphocytes and macrophages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Interleukin 3

A

T cells and stem cells make IL-3. It functions as a multilineage colony-stimulating factor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Interleukin 4

A

Produced by mast cells, T cells and macrophages
Th2 responses

CD4+T cells (Th2) synthesize IL-4, and it acts on both B and T cells. It is a B-cell growth factor and causes IgE and IgG1 isotype selection. It causes Th2 differentiation and proliferation, and it inhibits IFN gamma-mediated activation on macrophages. It promotes mast cell proliferation in vivo.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Interleukin 5

A

CD4+T cells (Th2) produce IL-5, and its principal targets are B cells. It causes B-cell growth factor and differentiation and IgA selection. Besides, causes eosinophil activation and increased production of these innate immune cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Interleukin 6

A

Produced by Th17 cells and B cells
Pro-inflammatory

T and B lymphocytes, fibroblasts and macrophages make IL-6. B lymphocytes and hepatocytes are its principal targets. IL-6 primary effects include B-cell differentiation and stimulation of acute phase proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Interleukin 7

A

Produced by bone marrow and thymic stroma
Promote T and NK cell development

Bone marrow stromal cells produce IL-7 that acts on pre-B cells and T cells. It causes B-cell and T-cell proliferation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Interleukin 8

A

Monocytes and fibroblasts make IL-8. Its principal targets are neutrophils, basophils, mast cells, macrophages, and keratinocytes. It causes neutrophil chemotaxis, angiogenesis, superoxide release, and granule release.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Interleukin 10

A

Produced by T-reg cells (also NK and Th2 cells)
Inhibits cytokine production by Th1 cells (anti-inflammatory/dampens immune response)

Th2 cells produce IL-10. Its principal targets are Th1 cells. It causes inhibition of IL-2 and interferon gamma. It decreases the antigen presentation, and MHC class II expression of dendritic cells, co-stimulatory molecules on macrophages and it also downregulates pathogenic Th17 cell responses. It inhibits IL-12 production by macrophages.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Interleukin 12

A

Produced by dendritic cells, B cells and T cells
Th1 cell differentiation

Monocytes produce IL-12. Its principal targets are T cells. It causes induction of Th1 cells. Besides, it is a potent inducer of interferon gamma production by T lymphocytes and NK cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

TNF-alpha

A

Produced by phagocytes, lymphocytes, mast cells, etc

Potent mediator of inflammatory response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Interferon gamma

A

Produced by CD8+ T cells, NK cells

Anti viral response and enhance MHC expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

TGF-beta

A

Produced by T-reg cells

Anti-inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MHC Class I

A

HLA-A, B, C
Present on all nucleated cells
Present endogenous (intracellular) peptides, e.g. tumour, virus, intracellular bacteria
Activate CD8 cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

MHC Class II

A

HLA-DP, DQ, DR
Present on antigen presenting cells (dendritic cells, macrophages, B-cells)
Present exogenous (extracellular) peptides, e.g. bacteria
Activate CD4 T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Th1 cells

A

Produce Interferon gamma

Immunity against intracellular organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Th2 cells

A

Produce IL-4/5/13
Immunity against helminth
Allergic response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Interleukin 13

A

CD4+T cells (Th2), NKT cells and mast cells synthesize IL-13. It acts on monocytes, fibroblasts, epithelial cells and B cells. The IL-13 significant effects are B-cell growth and differentiation, stimulates isotype switching to IgE. It causes increased mucus production by epithelial cells, increased collagen synthesis by fibroblasts and inhibits pro-inflammatory cytokine production. Also, IL-13 works together with IL-4 in producing biologic effects associated with allergic inflammation and in defense against parasites.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Th17 cells

A

Produce IL-17 and IL-22

Immunity against extracellular bacteria and fungi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tfh cells

A

Produce IL-21

Required for germinal centre development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Treg cells

A

Produce IL-10 and TGF-beta
Promotes T cell tolerance
Inhibits T cell activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Type 1 hypersensitivity

A

IgE mediated
Mast cell and basophil degranulation
Symptoms: anaphylactic shock, angioedema, urticaria, bronchospasm
Chronology: within 1-6 hours after last intake of allergen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Type 2 hypersensitivity

A

IgG and complement
Symptoms: Cytopenia
Chronology: 5-15 days after starting allergen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Type 3 hypersensitivity

A

IgM or IgG and complement or FcR
Deposition of immune complexes
Symptoms: Serum sickness, urticaria, vasculitis
Chronology: 7-8 days (serum sickness/urticaria_ or 7-21 days (vasculitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Type 4a hypersensitivity

A

Th1 - interferon gamme
Monocytic inflammation
Symptom: Eczema
Chronology: 1-21 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Type 4b hypersensitivity

A
Th2 - interleukin 4 and 5
Eosinophilic inflammation
Symptoms: maculopapular exanthem, DRESS
Chronology: 1=several days for MPE
2-6 weeks for DRESS
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Type 4c hypersensitivity

A

Cytotoxic T cells (perforin, granzyme B, FasL)
Keratinocyte death mediated by CD4 or CD8 cells
Symptoms: Maculopapular exanthem, SJS/TEN, pustular exanthema
Chronology: 1-2 days for fixed drug eruption
4-28 days for SJS/TEN

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Type 4d hypersensitivity

A

T cells (interleukin 8, CXCL8)
Neutrophilic inflammation
Symptoms: Acute generalised exanthematous pustolisis (AGEP)
Chronology: 1-2 days but could be longer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

T cell pathogens

A

Bacteria: Sepsis
Viruses: CMV, EBV, varicella, resp and intestinal
Fungi/parasite: Candida, P. carinii

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

B cell pathogens

A

Bacteria: Strep, staph, H influenzae
Virus: enterovirsus/enteroviral encephalitis
Fungi/parasite: Giardiasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Granulocyte pathogens

A

Bacteria: Staph, Pseudomonas, catalase +ve
Virus: N/A
Fungi/parasite: Candida, Aspergillus, Nocardia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Complement

A

Bacteria: Neisseria, pyogenic bacteria, encapsulated organisms
Viruses: N/A
Fungi/parasite: N/A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Innate immune system - general

A

i. First line defense
ii. Antigen non-specific, no immunological memory - recognition of molecular patterns (PAMPs) shared by groups of microbes not present in mammalian host eg. lipopolysaccharide (LPS)
iii. Germ-line encoded
iv. Limited diversity

v. Components
1. External barriers
a. Skin and mucous membranes – keratin hostile surface
b. Antimicrobial chemicals
i. Defensins – produced by neutrophils and function to put holes in bacterial membrane and kill them
ii. Lactic acid – inhibits bacterial growth
c. Mucous membranes – urinary, reproductive, GI, respiratory tracts
i. Mucous – traps microbes and cilia move it out
ii. Secretions – flush microbes away (E.g. urine)
iii. Mucous, tears, saliva – contain lysozyme that dissolves cell walls microbes
d. Hyaluronic acid – difficult for microbes to migrate through SC tissue
2. Proteins and bioactive molecules
3. Cellular – phagocytes and NK cells

•	First line of defense
•	Standard response to any attack
•	Non-specific to antigen
•	No memory
Components 
1.	Physical and mechanical barriers
2.	Proteins and bioactive molecules – complement, cytokines, chemokines
3.	Cellular – leukocytes, macrophages and NK cells (viral infection and tumor)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Adaptive immune system - general

A

i. Antigen specific response
1. Mediated by receptors on cell surface (TCR/BCR)
ii. Generate immunological memory – results in faster, targeted immune response
iii. Components
1. Cellular – T cells (cell mediated) and B cells (humoral)
2. Immunoglobulin
iv. Antigen presenting cells phagocytose Ag and present it to lymphocytes in lymph nodes

• Second line of defense
• Antigen specific response
• Specific rapid response to secondary exposure
• Immune memory
Components
1. Blood proteins – cytokines, chemokines
2. Cellular – T cells (cell-mediated) and B cells (humoral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Granulocyte cells - list

A

i. Neutrophils
ii. Eosinophils
iii. Basophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Antigen presenting cells - list

A

= able to present antigen to cells of the adaptive immune system (T cells)

i. Dendritic cells
ii. Monocytes
iii. Macrophages
iv. B cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Lymphohcyte cells - list and gen overview

A

i. T cells
ii. B cells
iii. NK cells

a. 25% of total WCC in peripheral blood
b. CD34+ HSCT in BM (?)
c. Circulating – T cells 85%, B cells 15%, NK cells 5%
d. IL-2 = T, B and NK cell growth factor
e. IL-7 + IL-15 = T and NK cell development

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Phagocytes - general overview

A

a. Includes
i. Neutrophil
ii. Monocyte
iii. Macrophage

b. Receptors
i. Fc = Ig
ii. C3b receptor = complement

c. Process
i. Attachment – binding of bacteria to phagocyte
1. Non-specific receptors that recognise common pathogens
2. Complement C3 receptor
3. Fc receptor – opsonised antigens bind at Fc receptor site (especially IgG)
ii. Endocytosis
1. Antigen ingested and forms vacuole called phagosome
iii. Digestion
1. Fusion with lysosome that contains hydrolytic enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Lymphoid organs - gen overview

A
  1. Primary lymphoid organs
    a. Thymus/ bone marrow
    b. Develop during first trimester of gestation
    c. Thymus = largest at birth, reaches peak mass at puberty then involutes
    d. Bone marrow
    i. Children, occupies medullary space of almost entire skeleton
    ii. Adults, limited to humerus and femur
  2. Secondary lymphoid organs
    a. Spleen/ lymph nodes/ tonsils/ Peyer patches/ lamina propria – develop subsequently
    b. Peripheral lymphoid tissue ↑ during infancy and childhood, adult size by 6 years of age

e. Lymph nodes
i. Functions = cleanse lymph and site of T and B cell activation
v. Parenchyma divided into:
1. Cortex = where germinal centres form in lymphatic nodules, and B cells differentiate into plasma cells
2. Medulla branched network of lymphocytes, macrophages, reticular cells, plasma cells

f. Tonsils
i. Patches of lymph at entrance to pharynx
ii. Covered by epithelium and have deep tonsillar crypts lined by lymphatic nodules, enclosed by incomplete fibrous capsule
iii. Three groups – pharyngeal (adenoids - nasopharyngeal), lingual, palatine (classic tonsils)

g. Spleen
i. Left hypochondriac region (under ribs 10-12)
ii. Medial hilum = splenic artery/vein, lymphatic vessels
iii. Red pulp
1. Consists of sinuses gorged with erythrocytes
2. Function = produce RBC in fetus and severe anaemia, RBC graveyard as macrophages consume old ones
iv. White pulp
1. Consists of lymphocytes and macrophages along splenic artery
2. Function = antigen surveillance, gets rid of debris/bacteria in blood, regulates plasma volume

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Cellular immunity - gen sum

A
Function = rid of intracellular pathogens – 
•	Viruses
•	Protozoa/parasites
•	Intracellular bacteria
•	Cancer cells
•	Transplant tissue/cell

Mechanism = cellular response
• Cytotoxic T cells
• Helper T cells assist
• Memory T cells

Activation
• MHCI on all nucleated cells
• MHCII on APCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Humoral immunity - gen sum

A
Function = rid of extra-cellular pathogens
•	Bacteria
•	Yeasts
•	Extra-cellular viruses/parasites
•	Toxins, venoms
•	Allergens 
•	Mismatch blood transfusion

Mechanism
• B cell and antibody mediated
• Helper T cell assist
• Memory T cells

Activation
• MHCII on APCs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Antigen

A

o Any molecule that triggers an immune response
o Epitopes – region of an antigen that stimulates the immune response
o One antigen can have several different epitopes that stimulate immunity
o Haptens – too small to be antigens in themselves but can stimulate immune response by binding to host macromolecule and creating epitope
 This is often the mechanism for allergy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Immune memory / Ig response

A

o Memory T and B cells produced in adaptive immunity to initial exposure
o Primary response – initial immune reaction on exposure to antigen for first time
 Initial 3-6 day lag
 Peak 10 days - IgM
 Peak 18 days - IgG
 Low within a month
o Secondary response
 IgG rises within hours, peaks within few days
 Low IgM
 No illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

T lymphocytes - general overview

A
  1. Key points
    a. 25% of total WCC in peripheral blood
    b. CD34+ haematopoietic stem cell in the BM (CD = cluster of differentiation)
    c. Common lymphoid progenitor
    d. Express CD3 and TCR
    i. CD3 complex is important for signaling
    ii. T cell receptors = recognize antigen in the context of MHC molecules (antigen presenting cells)
  2. 95% alpha-beta
  3. 5% gamma-delta
    e. Development
    i. Formed in bone marrow
    ii. Mature in thymus = differentiate from CD4+CD8+ to either CD4+ or CD8+
    iii. Enter the circulation as naïve T cells and migrate to LNs, spleen and other lymphoid tissue (secondary lymphoid organs)
  4. Development
    a. Begin as double negative TCR negative thymocytes (CD4- CD8-)
    b. As migrate through the cortex become double positive cells expressing both CD4+ and CD8+ molecules
    c. Gene rearrangement of VDJ segments to generate and express a functional T cell receptor
    d. Positive selection = recognition of self-HLA molecules by the TCR
    i. Class I or class II MHC
    ii. Medullary thymus epithelial cells express MHC
    iii. If no recognition  apoptosis
    e. Negative selection = recognition of self-Ag molecules presented in MHC
    i. Medullary thymus epithelial cells express MHC with self-antigen from peripheral site
    ii. If autoreactive  apoptosis
    f. If pass positive and negative selection leave thymus as naïve T cell as CD4+ or CD8+ T cell
    i. 5% of thymocytes survive positive and negative selection
    g. Note that gamma delta T cells are CD4 and CD8 negative (double negative), role poorly understood
    h. Process is mediated by AIRE gene – autoimmune regulator
    i. Induces the expression of peripheral tissue antigens that are normally only expressed in the periphery
    ii. Defects result in APS1 or APECED  autoreactive T cells  autoimmune disease
  5. VDJ recombination
    a. Germline configuration contains variable (V), diversity (D) and joining (J) segments
    i. Only beta and delta TCR loci contain diversity segments
    b. One V, (D) and J segment are randomly spliced together in a sequentially ordered process
    c. Mediated by various enzymes
    d. Correlation to disease
    i. RAG1/RAG2 mutations -> SCID
    ii. Radiosensitivity SCID (eg. DNA Ligase IV, Artemis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Cytotoxic T cells - general

A
  1. Key points
    a. CD3+ CD8+
    b. Recognition Ag presented in context of HLA class I
  2. Role
    a. Immune response to intracellular pathogens (eg. virus)
  3. Two mechanisms
    a. Apoptosis via cytotoxicity = release of granules from cytoplasm in the immunological synapse (MHC class I)  perforin  punches holes in target cell  activate caspase cascade within the target cell
    b. Binding of FasL to Fas on surface of target cell which activates apoptosis pathway  cell death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Helper T cells - general

A
  1. Overview
    a. All CD4+ T cells are helper T cells and recognize antigen presented in the context of HLA class II
    b. Roles depend on specific subtype
    i. Enhance T/B cell response
    ii. Activate innate immune system

Include: Th1, Th2, Th17, Treg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Th1 cells - general

A

a. Promote cell mediated response
- summary: activate/differentiate/accumulate macrophages and neutrophils, class switch to IgG, positive feedback on T cells

b. Development
i. IL-12 is secreted by APC and drives the switch from an undifferentiated Th cell to a Th1 cell
ii. IL-12 also activates NK cells, which then secrete IFN-g which can promote differentiation of Th1 cells
iii. IFN-g is also produced by Th1 cells and amplifies the differentiation of Th0 into Th1 cells
iv. Tbet is a transcription factor that is a master regulator for Th1 production

c. Function
i. Activation of macrophages
1. IFN-γ activates macrophages and makes them efficient killers of pathogens
a. Increase production of TNF-α an autocrine signal which induces production of antimicrobial agents such as NO and O2-
b. Increased expression of MHC and costimulatory molecules
c. Secrete IL-12 which acts as a positive feedback loop promoting Th1 differentiation
2. CD40L also interacts with CD30 to activate macrophages
ii. Neutrophil activation = Th1 cells also secrete TNF and lymphotoxins (LT) which can activate neutrophils which also leads to enhanced microbial killing
iii. Class switching = IgG
iv. IL-2 production = induces T cell proliferation, increasing numbers of effector cells
v. IL-3 GM-CSF = induces macrophage differentiation in the bone marrow
vi. CCL2 = Causes macrophages to accumulate at the site of infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Th2 cells - general

A

a. Promote humoral response
- summary: activate B cells, class switch IgE, stimulate eosinophils

b. Development
i. IL-4 drives Th2 production; major sources are NKT cells
ii. IL-4 also is “self-amplifying” and promotes differentiation of Th0 cells into Th2
iii. GATA-3 is the transcription factor master regulator for Th2 production

c. Function
i. IL-4 = promoting B cell activation + class switching to IgE
1. IgE binds Fc receptors for IgE on the surface of mast cells
2. When cross-linked, they release cytotoxic granules
ii. IL-5 = mobilises and activates eosinophils  IgE, mast cells and eosinophils are all critically important components of the immune defence against helminth
iii. IL-13 = can modify macrophage activation, promote epithelial cell repair and mucous production, promotes smooth muscle contraction → physically expel parasite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Th17 cells - general

A
  • summary: eaerly response to extracellular bacteria and fungi, neutrophil recruitment,

a. Development
i. TGF-β and IL-6 = drives naïve T cells to differentiate into Th17
ii. IL-21 = self-amplifying cytokine
iii. IL-23 = stabilises Th17 phenotype

b. Function
i. These cells secrete IL-17, IL-6 and TNF-alpha
1. IL-17 has an important role in protecting the body from extracellular pathogens eg. Klebsiella pneumoniae, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Shigella, Staphylococcus aureus and fungal infections
2. May also have a role in anti-tumour immunity
3. Th17 secretes IL-17 at the site of infection which induces pro-inflammatory cytokines + neutrophil recruitment to site of infection
ii. Early immune response to extracellular bacterial infections + fungal infections
1. Increase infiltration of neutrophils
iii. Activate local endothelium
iv. Induce cytokine and chemokine production
v. Autosomal dominant hyperIgE syndrome (STAT3) – no Th17 cells
1. Susceptible to fungal infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Treg cells - general

A

Regulatory T cells
- down-modulate immune response

a. Subset of circulating CD4+ T cells that down modulate immune responses
i. Suppress CD4 and CD8 T cells, B cells and NK cells
b. Cell surface expression of CD4 and CD25
c. Nuclear expression of FoxP3 - Transcription factor required for development
d. Development
i. Treg cell differentiation is driven by TGF-β
e. Cytokine production = TGF-beta, IL-10  anti-inflammatory
f. Disease
i. IPEX = deficiency of FoXP3
ii. IL-10/IL-10R defects = early onset IBD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

B lymphocytes - background

A
  1. Key points
    a. BCR (clonally specific) – surface IgM and IgD
    b. Express CD19, CD20, CD40, CD79, MHC class II (antigen presenting cell), Fc gamma receptor, C3b receptor (CR1) and CD3d receptor (CR2)
    c. Mature in BM, then periphery (secondary lymphoid organs) (antigen independent development = bone marrow)
    d. After Ag cross-links Ig, B cells proliferate and differentiate into
    i. Plasma cells (in germinal centres of LNs), which lose surface BCR expression and secrete immunoglobulin (antigen-dependent development)
    ii. Memory B cell
  2. Development
    a. Differentiation from haematopoietic stem cells in bone marrow = antigen independent
    b. Mature in peripheral lymphoid organs (eg. spleen, LN) = antigen dependent
    c. Cell surface markers alter throughout development
  3. Antigen INDEPENDENT development - VDJ recombination
    a. First stage of B cell development is rearrangement of B cell receptor genes
    b. Heavy chain VDJ recombination  expressed with surrogate light chain  survival signals
    c. Subsequently light chain VJ recombination
    d. If no survival signal will not develop
    e. B cell receptor is either IgM or IgD – if successfully rearrange B cell receptor migrate to secondary lymphoid organs
    f. Once exposed to antigen undergo clonal expansion  plasma cell OR memory cell
    g. BTK mutation – X linked agammaglobulinaemia – cannot make a functional B cell
  4. Antigen DEPENDENT development
    a. Second phase of B cell development occurs after encounter with antigen in secondary lymphoid organs (eg. lymph nodes and spleen)
    b. B cells are activated, proliferate and differentiate into
    i. Plasma cell = produce large amounts of Ab of particular antigen specificity
    ii. Memory B cell = long-lasting cells able to rapidly produce high-affinity antibodies in response to second antigen challenge
    c. Fate of activated B cell depends on antigen presentation and cytokine received – T dependent + independent
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

T cell dependent B cell response

A

a. Requires the participation of T helper cells
b. Majority of antibody responses to proteins and glycoproteins
c. B cells located in lymphoid follicle + T cells in parafollicular cortex - interact at the edge of the follicle

d. Process
i. Cross-linking of immunoglobulin receptor (BCR)  Ag internalized and processed
ii. Presentation of Ag on surface of B cell to circulating T helper cell
iii. Activation signals from T helper cell
iv. Results in formation of a germinal centre
v. Further proliferation and differentiation into plasma cell
vi. Induction of isotype switching and activation of somatic mutation

e. Isotype switching
i. Only occur in T dependent B cell activation
ii. Naïve B cells express IgM and IgD
iii. T cell derived cytokines induce isotype switching
1. CD40-CD40L interaction (CD40L is on T cells) – stimulates B cells to class switch
2. Mediated by various enyzmes (AID, UNG, APE1, DNA-PK)
iv. Cytokine milieu determines antibody isotype produced
1. IL-10  IgG1/3
2. IL-4/IL-13  IgE
3. TGF-beta  IgA
v. VDJ regions (encode for the BCR) are spliced to different heavy chain constant regions – alters the mRNA transcript and encodes a different protein and therefore antibody isotype

f. Somatic hypermutation (SHM)
i. Enables higher affinity Ig reduction
ii. Single base-pair substitutions within the variable region of antibody gene segments
iii. Produce antibody of higher affinity for antigen
iv. Does not alter the antigen specificity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

T independent B cell response

A

a. Some molecules can activate B cells directly - polysaccharides, lipopolysaccharides, polymeric proteins – repeating units that cross-link Ig on B cell surface
b. Advantages
i. Rapid response to pathogens of T cells
c. Limitations
i. Poor induction of memory B cells
ii. Poor affinity maturation of antibody (SHM)
iii. No isotype switching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Immunoglobulins - gen sum

A
  1. Key points
    a. Produced by the humoral immune system
    b. Exquisitely specificity (usually)
    c. Range of affinities
    d. Low, uM to very high, pM
    e. Basis of most vaccines
    f. Essential for survival
    g. Great diversity of specificities – different 1013 to 1015 potential specificities
  2. Structure
    a. Glycoproteins
    b. Monomers = pair of identical heavy + pair of light chains bound by disulfide bonds
    c. Each light and heavy chain has a variable (V) and constant (C) region
    d. Variable region is made from VDJ recombination – heavy (VDJ), light (VJ)
    e. Immunoglobulin monomers have two antigen binding arms of identical specificity
    i. Fab = antigen binding fragment
    ii. Fc = constant fragment which binds to various receptors on the surface of cells (eg. NK cells, macrophages) as well as complement
  3. Fc receptor interaction
  4. Complement
  5. Binding to a specific receptor responsible for recirculating Ab
  6. Antibody function
    a. Activate B lymphocytes
    b. Acts as opsonins
    c. Causes antigen clumping and inactivation of bacterial toxins
    d. Activates antibody-dependent cellular activity via NK cells
    e. Triggers mast cell degranulation  parasite, helminth
    f. Activates complement (alternative complement pathway)
  7. Immunoglobulin with age
    a. IgG – maternal at birth, reaching adult levels at about 5 years
    i. Nadir 3-6months due to passive running out and own kicking in slowly
    ii. Often present with Ab deficiencies
    b. IgM – reach adult levels at 1 year
    c. IgA – reach adult levels at adolescence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

IgD - general

A

Structure + Half life
• Monomer
• Half-life 3 days
• 1% of Ig

Properties
• Not secreted
• Transmembrane protein (receptor) of B cells

Function
• Cell surface receptor
• No effector function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

IgM - general

A

Structure/half life
• Monomer or pentamer (10 binding sites)
• Half-life 5 days
• 10% of Ig

Properties
• Transmembrane protein (receptor) of B cells
• Low affinity and high avidity
• Forms a pentamer when secreted – NOT lost in protein-losing enteropathy
• Synthesis begins at 6 days of life, rises to adult levels at 1y

Function
• Primary immune response – 1st Ab secreted in the adaptive immune response (made rapidly)
• Responsible for blood group reactions
• Fixes complement in its uncomplexed form
• Low in newborn period  impaired phagocytosis  susceptibility to GN bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

IgA - general

A
Structure/half life
•	Monomer or dimer (rarely trimer) – 4 binding sites 
•	Dimer – secretory 
•	Half-life 6 days 
•	10-20% of Ig 	

Properties
• 2 subclasses- IgA1 and IgA2
• Major antibody in mucosal surfaces eg. gut, lungs
• Highest rate of production but serum concentration < IgG as lost through secretion

Function
• Mucosal protection
• Relatively common immunodeficiency, results in regular gastrointestinal infections
• Passive immunity in newborn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

IgG - general

A

Structure/half life
• Monomer
• Half-life 21-28 days
• 70-75% of antibody pool – most abundant in internal body fluids

Properties
• 4 sub-classes (IgG1-IgG4)
• Major serum antibody – peaks 10-14 days after infection
• B cells receive help from Th cells -> isotype switch to IgG

Function
• Responsible for secondary immune response
• Fixes complement
• Antibody-dependent cellular cytotoxicity (ADCC) – Ab bind Fc receptors on NK cells
• Opsonisation
• Neonatal immunity – crosses placental barrier during pregnancy; maternal Ig depleted by 6-8 m, adult levels not reached until 7-8 y

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

IgE - general

A

Structure/half life
• Monomer
• Half-life 2 days

Properties
• Serum levels usually very low

Function
• Specialised to fight helminths
• Causes allergy
• Interacts with mast cells, eosinophils and basophils via Fc receptors – stimulates release of histamine and other mediators

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Natural killer (NK) cells

A
  1. Key points
    a. Derived from common lymphoid progenitor - develop in bone marrow
    b. Do not express antigen-specific receptors
    i. Recognize antigen via germline encoded receptors for pathogen associated molecular patterns
    ii. Inhibited by encounter with self-molecules through inhibitory receptors on sell surface
    c. IL-7/IL-15 for development
    d. IL-2 for growth
    e. CD3-CD16+ or CD3-CD56+
    f. Produce cytokines after activation eg. IFN-g
    g. Recognition of target cell by
    i. Fc receptor binding to antibody on the surface of the target cell
    ii. TLR
    iii. Lack of MHC class I expression or down-regulation of this  identifies as abnormal
  2. Function
    a. Kill virally infected cells and tumour cells
    i. Direct/ cell mediated cytotoxicity
  3. Release granules that directly kill cells (perforin)
    ii. Antibody-dependent cellular toxicity (ADCC) via CD16
  4. Pathogen with antibody on surface
    b. Cytokine production (IFN-g, IL-5, IL-13)
    c. Contraction of the adaptive immune response
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

HLA/MHC

A
HLA = human leukocyte antigen
MHC = major histocompatibility complex

a. HLA class I
i. HLA-A, B, C
ii. All nucleated cells
iii. Present endogenous peptides (intracellular/ cytosolic) eg. tumour, virus, bacteria
iv. Alpha 1 and 2 contact peptide
v. One leg in membrane
vi. Binds peptides 8-10 amino acids long (fit inside groove)
vii. Activate CD8 T cells
viii. Type 1 Bare Lymphocyte Syndrome

b. HLA class II
i. HLA-DP, DQ, DR
ii. APCs
iii. Present exogenous peptides (extracellular) eg. bacteria, killed vaccines
iv. Alpha 1, 2 and Beta 1, 2 peptide chains = BOTH CHAINS POLYMORPHIC
v. Alpha 1 and Beta 1 contact peptide
vi. 2 Transmembrane regions
vii. Binds peptides 13-17 amino acids long (hang outside groove)
viii. Activate CD4 T cells
ix. Type 2 Bare Lymphocyte Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Antigen presenting cells - general

A
  1. Key points
    a. MHC/HLA molecules present antigen to T cells
    i. Unable to recognise soluble antigen
    b. Oligopeptides with antigen-binding groove
    c. NO gene rearrangements (unlike BCR/TCR)
    d. Variability occurs in the peptide binding region
    i. MHC class I = α1 and α2 region
    ii. MHC class II = β1 and α1 region
    e. Sequence of genes highly conserved = only some differences between humans and mice
    h. Codominant expression
    i. All alleles expressed in an individual
    ii. Each offspring statistically different (4 alleles at each loci – inherit 2)
    i. HLA on short arm of chromosome 6
  2. Antigen presenting cells
    a. Also derived from bone marrow precursors
    b. Present antigen to T cells
    c. Include
    i. Dendritic cells
    ii. Macrophage + monocyte
    iii. B cells
    d. Express
    i. HLA class I and class II
    ii. Accessory molecules (B7 molecules CD80/CD86)
    e. Activation of T cell require 2 signals
    i. Activation of antigen
    ii. Activation signal
    f. Without 2 signals become anergic
    g. After activation, release cytokines which activate other cells

Lymphocyte activation

a. 2 signals to become activated
i. Antigen
ii. Accessory molecule on surface of
1. APC eg. B7 (CD80/CD86)  activation of T cell
a. ICOS deficiency (similar to CD28) type of CVID
2. CD4 T cell eg. CD40 (CD154)  activation of B cell
iii. Results in proliferation, cytokine synthesis, effector function
b. If only 1 signal become anergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Dendritic cells - general

A
  • Sentinels of the immune system
  • Relatively rare (0.1% of cells in spleen/lymph node)

• Key features
o Dendritic morphology maximises contact with T cells (single dendritic cell can present antigen to several T cells)
o Short lifespan (3 days)
o Critically important in vaccination

• Function
o Migrate from blood stream to enter skin/ epithelial surfaces
o Internalizes self and foreign antigens
o Present antigen via MHC II
o T cell differentiation
o The only APC that activates naïve T cells and initiate an immune response

• Classification
o Bone marrow derived
 Myeloid progenitor
• Produces ‘classical dendritic cells’ – inc Langerhan cells
• Attracted to infection by chemokines
• Present antigen via MHC 2
• Also interact with T cells via CD40/CD40 ligand interaction to stimulate IL-12 production and encourage T cell differentiation
 Lymphoid progenitor
• Produces plasmacytoid dendritic cells
o Mesenchyme derived
 Follicular dendritic cells – role in activation of B cell
 Lack class II MHC
 Bind antigen via complement receptors, attract B cells in lymphoid tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Cells of the innate immune system - list

A
  • Granulocyte = eosinophil, neutrophil, basophil

* Mononuclear = monocyte, macrophage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Neutrophils - general

A
  • SCF, IL-3, IL-6, IL-11, GM-CSF and GCSF
  • Fc gamma receptor
  • Arise from bone marrow – arises from granulocyte
  • Nucleus with 3-5 lobes
  • Neutrophils survive for 6-12 hours in the circulation
  • Move to site of infection, phagocytose and kill via oxidative pathway

• Function
o Phagocytose bacteria – mainly intracellular action
o Release antimicrobial chemicals via NADH oxidation pathway – release of highly toxic lysosomal enzymes around cell to kill bacteria (and self)
 NADPH oxidase generates large amounts of superoxide (O2-) from molecular oxygen  hydrogen peroxide
 Myeloperoxidase catalyses reaction of H2O2 to create hypochlorous acid (H-O-Cl)

• Activation process
o Adhere to vascular endothelium via CD18 / L -selectin
 This process also involves Siayl Lewis X receptor that binds to e-selectin
o Transmigrate into tissues
o Ingest and kill microbes
o Release chemotactic signals to recruit more neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Monocytes/Macrophages - general

A

• CFU-GM  monoblast  promonocyte  monocyte
• Features
o 3-5% WBC
o Structure – kidney shaped nucleus, cytoplasm with small granules
o Arise in BM
o Monocytes in circulation
o Macrophages in tissue (liver/ lungs)
o Express Fc gamma R and complement R1
o Larger than neutrophil
o Cytoplasm filled with granules containing hydrolytic enzymes
o Can survive for weeks – months
• Function
o Phagocytose = receptors for Fc gamma and C3b
o Kill = via oxidative pathways and cytotoxicity
o Stimulate Th cells
 Occurs in response to intracellular pathogens
 Macrophages release IL12 + TNF alpha
• IL12 stimulates T cells to release IFN gamma
• TNF alpha amplifies macrophage activation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Eosinophils - general

A

• SCF (stem cell factor), IL-3, IL-5 and GM-CSF (granulocyte-macrophage colony stimulating factor)

• Features
o 2-5% of blood leukocytes
o Non dividing, fully-differentiated cells
o Bilobed nucleus
o Stain reddish brown with eosin
o Contain proteins that are cytotoxic for parasites
o Structure – 2 large nuclei with pink granules in cytoplasm
o Increase in response to parasitic infection, allergy, collagen, spleen/ CNS disease

• Functions
o Phagocytose antigen-antibody complexes, allergens and inflammatory chemicals
o Degranulate and release major basic protein
 Implicated in multicellular organisms too large to be phagocytosed
o Secrete proinflammatory cytokines – IL 1,3,4,5, 9 and 13

• Regulation
o Recruited to inflammatory tissues by eotaxin
o Binds to endothelial ligand, marginate between tight junctions of endothelial cells
o Major mediators: IL-5, RANTES, monocyte chemotactic protein MCP3, MCP4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Basophils (and mast cells) - general

A

• Key features
o Origin – granulocyte
o <0.5-1% of WCC
o Structure – violet granules in cytoplasm
o Increases in VZV, DM, myxoeedema, sinusitis, polycythaemia

• Functions
o Degranulate and release heparin, histamine and other chemical mediators
 Improves blood flow to tissue
o Fc epipsilon receptor (IgE)

• Mast cells similar function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Cytokines - gen sum

A

a. Secreted proteins that are important for
i. Growth
ii. Differentiation
iii. Activation

b. Produced by
i. Antigen presenting cells
ii. Phagocytes
iii. T lymphocytes

c. Action
i. Paracrine – act on neighboring cells
ii. Autocrine – act on same cell that releases them

  1. Cytokine signaling
    a. Most cytokines signal through the same receptor process
    b. Cytokine receptor on cell surface
    c. Binding of cytokine  phosphorylation of JAK  activation of STAT  form dimer and translocate to nucleus  activate gene transcription
    d. Defects in cytokine signaling causes primary immunodeficiency
    i. SCID
  2. Common gamma chain (X-linked)
  3. JAK3
  4. IL-7Ra
    ii. STAT3 (hyper IgE syndrome)
    iii. STAT1 GOF (chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Complement - key points, components

A
  1. Key points
    a. Important effector component of innate and adaptive immunity
    b. >30 plasma and cell surface proteins
    i. Sequential activation
    c. Unlike immunoglobulins
    i. Heat labile
    ii. Part of the innate immune system
    d. Function
    i. Opsonise – complement receptor mediated phagocytosis
    ii. Lyse cells – bacteria, tumour cells, allografts
    iii. Mediate inflammation – recruit inflammatory cells
  2. Complement components
    a. Components are either
    i. Activating
    ii. Regulatory
    b. Regulation
    i. C1 inhibitor
    ii. Factors H and I and CD46
    iii. CD55 and CD59
    c. Deficiencies of regulation
    i. Hereditary angioedema (C1 esterase inhibitor)
    ii. Atypical HUS Factors H and I and CD46
    iii. PNH
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Complement - activation, function

A
  1. Activation pathways
    a. Classical
    i. Requires antibody (IgG, IgM) activated by Ag-Ab immune complexes
    ii. Sequential activation of C1 (C1qrs), C4 and C2 (C1qrs complex binds Fc portion of IgG/IgM)
    b. Alternative
    i. Direct activation of C3
    ii. Recognition of microbial components on cell surface
    iii. No inhibitory/regulators present on microbial cells
    c. Lectin (mannose binding lectin)
    i. Requires binding of MBL to mannan (surface sugar) on microbial cell surface
    ii. Mannose present on particular pathogens – particularly bacteria
    - activates C4
  2. Function
    a. C5a and C3b → phagocytosis
    i. C3b opsonizes pathogen and can bind to CR1 on macrophage
    ii. C5a binding to its receptor on macrophages stimulates the cell to phagocytose C3b coated bacteria
    iii. In the absence of C5a, C3b binding to CR1 is not enough to stimulate phagocytosis
    b. C3a, C4a, C5a → inflammation
    i. The C5a peptide is a POTENT anaphylotoxin which activates the immune system (major antagonist being produced)
    ii. C5a generates chemotactic gradients – lots of C5a is liberated surrounding the point of infection and diffuses out into the circulation → leukocytes follow this signal
    iii. Summary
  3. Increase vascular permeability and cell-adhesion molecules
  4. Increased permeability allows fluid leakage from blood vessels allowing Ig and complement to enter interstitial space
  5. Increased permeability and adhesion promotes migration of leukocytes
    c. Membrane attack complex → lysis
    i. Consists of C5b, C6, C7, C8, C9
    ii. 10-16 molecules of C9 bind to form a pore in the membrane
    iii. Results in osmotic lysis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Neonatal immunity - brief summary

A

• Immunoglobulin
o IgG actively transported across placenta (term infant concentration = maternal)
o Specificity depends on mother’s exposure and response
o Other immunoglobulins not transferred
o Lack effect against E. Coli

• Complement
o Bactericidal against E. Coli, opsonin in phagocytosis of GBS
o No transplacental passage
o Synthesized from first trimester but  concentration and activity of complement components ( in preterms)

•	Neutrophils
o	 migration (chemotaxis)
o	 adhesion, aggregation
o	 phagocytosis if stress
o	 oxidative respiratory burst of neonatal neutrophils
o	Neutropenia  risk of sepsis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Toll like receptors

A

• Expressed in epithelial cells, endothelial cells and APCs
• Transmembrane receptors
• Sense components of microbes (cell wall or membranes of bacteria/fungi) and modified nucleic acids or bacteria/ virus
• IRAK4/MyD88 - impaired TLR
o Susceptible to pneumococcal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Superantigens

A
  • Bacterial toxins eg. S aureus Toxic Shock Syndrome Toxin 1 (TSST-1), S pyogenes
  • Bind MHC II and TCR beta chain, providing signal to T cell
  • NOT processed and do not interact with MHC II via peptide groove
  • No specificity and no memory
  • Can activate up to 20% (vs 0.001%) of T cells  massive cytokine release
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Inflammation - general

A

• Local response to tissue injury or infection
• Functions
o Limit spread of pathogens and destroy them
o Remove debris and damaged tissue
o Initiate repair

•	Cardinal signs
o	Swelling 
o	Redness
o	Heat
o	Pain (due to bradykinin and prostaglandins that stimulate pain receptors)

• Stages

  1. Vasodilation and vascular permeability
    a. Histamine, kinins and leukotreines secreted by basophils, mast cells, damaged cells = vasodilation and increased capillary permeability
    b. Increased blood flow leading to leukocytes quickly to area
  2. Endothelial adhesion and leukocyte recruitment
    a. Endothelial cells produce selectins which adhere circulating leukocytes and draw them into area of inflammation = extravasation
    b. Results in margination of leukocytes (adherence to endothelium)
    c. Diapedesis follows where leukocytes go through endothelial wall
    d. Emigration when enter tissue fluid where inflammation/injury
  3. Neutrophil recruitment and action
    a. Chemotaxis – leukotrines and bradykinin guide neutrophils to site of inflammation
    b. Neutrophils undertake phagocytosis
  4. Macrophage migration and clean up
    a. Neutrophils secrete cytokines which attract macrophages
    b. Arrive at site 8-12hours after injury
    c. Engulf and destroy bacteria, damaged host cells, dead neutrophils
    d. Act as APCs to trigger specific immunity for next exposure
    e. Pus = yellow fluid with dead neutrophils, macrophages, cells and tissue debris
  5. Repair
    a. Platelets and endothelial cells secrete platelet-derived growth factor that stimulates fibroblasts to multiple and synthesis collage for repair
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Fever - general

A

• Elevation of body temperature
• Causes – infection, trauma, drug reaction, brain tumor
• Functions to facilitate repair
o Promotes interferon activity
o Elevates BMR to accelerate tissue repair
o Inhibits reproduction of bacteria and viruses

• Physiology
o Neutrophils/macrophages phagocytose bacteria and product pyrogen IL-1
o IL1 acts at anterior hypothalamus to secrete prostaglandin E
o PGE raises hypothalamic set point
 Response is feeling “cold” – increase temperature by shivering (increase metabolic rate), vasoconstriction
o Decrease set point once infection cleared
 Response is feeling “hot” – decrease temperature by vasodilation, flushing, sweating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Lymphocyte markers

A

i. C45 = pan-leukocyte
ii. CD3 = T cell
iii. CD3/CD4 = helper
iv. CD3/CD8 = cytotoxic
v. CD19 or CD20 = B cell
vi. CD16 and CD56 positive and CD3 negative = NK cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Immunology investigations - screening tests

A

B-CELL DEFICIENCY
IgG, IgM, IgA, and IgE levels
Isohemagglutinin titers
Ab response to vaccine antigens (e.g., tetanus, diphtheria, pneumococci, Haemophilus influenzae)

T-CELL DEFICIENCY
Lymphocyte count
Chest x-ray examination for thymic size*
Delayed skin tests (e.g., Candida, tetanus toxoid)

PHAGOCYTIC DEFICIENCY
WBC count, morphology
Respiratory burst assay

COMPLEMENT DEFICIENCY
CH50 activity
C3 level
C4 level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

T cell investigations

A
  1. Summary of tests
    a. Screening tests
    i. Lymphocyte count
    ii. CXR (thymic size)
    iii. Delayed skin tests
    b. Advanced tests
    i. T cell subset enumeration
    ii. Proliferative responses to mitogens, antigens, allogeneic cells
    iii. HLA typing
    iv. Chromosome analysis
  2. FBE and lymphocyte subsets
    a. CD3 – T cell
    b. CD3/CD4 – helper T cell
    c. CD3/CD8 – cytotoxic T cells
    d. Measurement of naïve T cells = marker of thymic output
    i. CD3 and CD4/CD8

v. Soluble CD25 (soluble IL-2RA) – increases in malignancy infection, inflammation, HLH

  1. Naïve T cells
    a. Mature T cells that have migrated from thymus
    b. Unique antigen-specific TCR, express CD3 and CD4/8
    f. TREC – measure of naïve T cells
    i. T cell receptor excision circle formed by excision of DNA segments in the process of TCR gene rearrangement
    ii. Can be measured in peripheral blood as a surrogate marker of T cell development and thymic output
    iii. Absence of TREC on Guthrie card  screen for inadequate thymic output; possible SCID
  2. Hoping to add this to the newborn screening test
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

B cell investigations

A
  1. B cells
    a. FBE and lymphocyte subsets
    i. B cells (CD19 or CD20)
    ii. Normally 8-10% of circulating lymphocytes are B cells
    iii. Absent = X linked agammaglobulinaemia
    iv. Present = CVID, IgA deficiency, HperIgM
    b. Memory B cells (deficiency associated with CVID)
    i. CD27+
    ii. IgD/M +ve or IgD/M –ve
    c. Transitional B cells/ plasmablasts
  2. Immunoglobulins
    a. Total immunoglobulins
    i. IgG, IgA, IgM (in terms of adult levels: IgM > IgG > IgA)
    b. Isohaemagluttinins = antibodies to A + B RBC polysaccharide antigens
    i. May be absent in first 2 years of life
    ii. ALWAYS absent if child is blood type AB
    iii. Assesses capacity to make IgM antibodies
    c. Vaccine specific antibodies
    i. Tetanus (T dependent B cell response) = protein + polysaccharide
    ii. Pneumovax 23 (T independent B cell response) = polysaccharide ONLY
  3. Done in children > 2-3 years of age (Children < 2 do not tend to have lasting response to polysaccharide antigens)

d. Specific antibodies by age
i. Changes with age
1. IgG = maternal at birth, reaching adult levels by 5 years
a. Physiological nadir of IgG production at 6 – transient hypogammaglobulinaemia of infancy
2. IgM = reaches adult levels by 1 year, IgA = reach adult levels at adolescence
4. NOTE: IgG subclasses and IgA deficiencies tend to be over diagnosed

ii. T dependent vs T independent response
1. T independent
a. Polysaccharide antigens directly activate B cells (without costimulation of T cells)
b. Results in IgM production
c. Children < 2 do not tend to have lasting response to polysaccharide antigens
i. Susceptible to PS-encapsulated bacteria
2. T dependent
a. Protein-polysaccharide vaccines: protein is processed and presented to CD4 Th cell.
b. T cell then makes IL-4, costimulates via CD40-CD40 ligand  IgG antibody
c. Neonates have this form of immune response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Neutrophil tests

A

Unclear how significant (in Boast notes)

  1. Screening
    a. FBE – neutrophil count
  2. Oxidative burst
  3. Advanced tests
    a. Adhesion molecule assays (CD11b/ CD 18/selectin ligand)
    i. CD18 evaluates adhesion function
    ii. Tested if suspect LAD
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

NK Cell tests

A
  1. NK cell degranulation
    a. Identifies defects in the granulation process
    b. Surface expression of CD107a
  2. Intracellular perforin expression
  3. NK cell cytotoxicity
    a. Increasing ratios of effector: target cells (K562 cells)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Complement tests/deficiency tests

A
  1. Key points
    a. Complement concentrations
    i. C3 and C4 –adult levels by 3 months
    b. Complement haemolytic activity
    i. Classical pathway – adult activity by 3 months
    ii. Alternative pathway – adult activity by 1 year
  2. Testing for complement deficiency
    a. Do not screen for complement deficiencies with C3 and C4 only
    b. If you are looking for a complement deficiency measure the Classical Pathway Activity (CH50 or THC) and Alternative Pathway Activity (AP50)
  3. Recommended tests
    a. C3/C4
    i. Both low – suggests classical pathway
    ii. Normal C4, low C3 – suggests alternative pathway
    b. Classical pathway activation (CH50 or THC)
    i. Reliable screen for homozygous deficiency in an integral component of classical pathway
    ii. Measures capacity of patient’s serum to lyse sheep erythrocytes coated with Ig
    iii. All nine components of classical pathway (C1-C9) are required for normal CH50
    iv. Heterozygous deficiency – normal CH50 as the level of a component must be reduced by >50% before the CH50 is altered
    c. Alternative pathway activity (AP50)
    i. Assesses Factor D, B and Properdin

Interpretation

  • classic normal, alternative 0 = properdin, factor B or D deficiency
  • classic 0, alternative normal = C1, 2, 4 deficiency
  • both 0 = C3, C5-9

Inhibitors (look up diagram)

  • C1 esterase inhibitor (C1)
  • Factor H, I, CD46 (C3b)
  • CD 55 and 59 (MAC)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Allergy testing - brief summary

A

(More in allergy notes/cards)

  1. Allergen specific IgE
    a. In blood – RAST
    b. Via skin prick testing (histamine release)
  2. Mast cell tryptase
    a. Detectable at 15 minutes
    b. Time to peak 1-2 hours
    c. Return to baseline in 6 hours (half-life 90 minutes)
    d. Anaphylaxis and mastocytosis
    e. Useful for unexpected severe reactions eg. intra-operative, idiopathic
  3. DDx of elevated total IgE
    a. Atopic disease, especially atopic dermatitis*
    b. Parasitic infestation*
    c. ABPA*
    d. PID eg. Wiskot-Aldrich, Hyper IgE*
    e. Hodgkins
    f. Churg Strauss
    g. IgE myeloma *
    h. * Asssociated with IgE >1000 IU/L
85
Q

Hypersensitivity - definitions

A

a. Hypersensitivity = reproducible reaction to stimulus
i. Objectively reproducible symptoms or signs initiated by exposure to a defined stimulus at a dose tolerated by a normal person
b. Allergy = reaction initiated by specific immunological mechanisms
c. Intolerance = reaction mediated by non-immunological mechanisms
d. Atopy
i. Ability to form IgE antibodies to common inhaled aeroallergens resulting in immune dysregulation
ii. Genetic predisposition
e. Atopic disease
i. Includes asthma, atopic dermatitis, rhinoconjunctivitis, IgE mediated food allergy
ii. Usual progression of atopic diseases: eczema (<12months)  asthma  allergic rhinitis

  1. Gell + Coombs classification
    a. Immediate = within 1 hour, IgE mediated
    b. Delayed = most >6 hours after starting
86
Q

Type 1 hypersensitivity - general

A

Immediate

Mechanism
• IgE mediated
• Onset:
o Seconds (<30m, 30-120m if ingested) must have previous exposure
o Delayed response 2-12hrs
• Trigger: allergen binds IgE on basophils/mast cells
• Mechanism:
o Cross linking of IgE causes degranulation mast cells
o Immediate release of vasoactive amines (histamine, tryptase, leukotrienes, PG, PAF)
o Delayed inflammatory response (INF, TNF, GMSCF)
o Effects: oedema, secretions, smooth muscle spasm (upper/lower RT), skin reactions (angioedema, urticaria), GIT (vomiting, diarrhoea, cramps)

Antigens

  • Pollen
  • Food
  • Venom
  • Drugs

Examples

  • Anaphylaxis
  • Urticaria
  • Angioedema
  • Atopy – asthma, rhinitis
87
Q

Type 2 hypersensitivity - general

A

Subacute, cytotoxic antibody

Mechanism
• Antibody-dependent cytotoxic
• Onset: mins-hrs after exposure
• Trigger: IgG/IgM/IgA attacks antigens on cell surface
• Mechanism:
o Complement activation
o Lysis or opsonization with phagocytosis (macrophages) of target cell (often RBC, platelet)

Antigens

  • RBC
  • Platelets

Examples

  • Autoimmune hemolytic anaemia
  • Goodpasture syndrome
  • Blood transfusion reaction
  • Myasthenia or Graves
88
Q

Type 3 hypersensitivity - general

A

Immune complex

Mechanism
• Immune complex
• Onset: 1-3 weeks after exposure
• Duration: 10-15hours
• Mechanism:
o IgG/IgM form Ag-Ab complexes which deposit beneath endothelium of vessels/tissues
o Activate complement and trigger inflammation (neutrophils) with tissue destruction

Antigens

  • Blood vessel
  • Liver
  • Spleen
  • Kidney
  • Lung

Examples

  • SLE
  • GN
  • HSP
  • Serum sickness-LIKE reaction eg. ceflacor
89
Q

Type 4 hypersensitivity - general

A

Delayed, cell mediated

Mechanism
• Cell mediated
• Onset: 2-7days, must have previous exposure
• Trigger: APCs display antigens to T helper cells
• Mechanism:
o T lymphocyte drive  release cytokines & interferons  macrophages + cytotoxic T cells
o Infiltration caused by macrophages

Examples

  • Contact dermatitis and allergies to haptens (cosmetics)
  • Type I diabetes
  • Transplant rejection
  • TB skin test
  • TEN/SJS
90
Q

Atopy/IgE mediated allergy - gen b/g

A
  1. Epidemiology
    a. Strong familial predisposition
    b. 60-70% heritability in twin studies
    c. One parent with allergic disease, child 25% risk
    d. If both parents have allergic disease, child 50-75% risk
  2. Pathogenesis
    a. Rapid expansion of Th2 cells -> secrete IL4, IL5, IL 13 -> IgE synthesis/isotype switching + eosinophilia
  3. Components of allergic response
    a. IgE
    i. Involves cross linking of receptor bound IgE molecules by allergen
    ii. IgE receptor found on surface of APCs (+ mast cells/ basophils)
    b. Eosinophils
    i. Contain granules -> damage epithelial cells, induce airway hyper-responsiveness and cause degranulation of basophils and mast cells
    iii. Also secrete prostaglandins + leukotrienes
    c. Mast cells
    iv. Secrete tryptase + chymase, histamine/ proteases/ proteoglycans/cytokine
    v. Activation occurs with cross linkage of IgE-IgE receptor with multivalent antigen
  4. Phases of allergic response
    a. Early phase response
    i. Mast cell degranulation and release of preformed mediators -> increase vascular permeability –> leakage of plasma proteins, tissue swelling –> itching/ sneezing/ wheezing etc
    iii. 10 mins after allergen exposure, resolves w/i 1-3hrs
    b. Late phase response
    i. Infiltration of neutrophils/eosinophils/macrophages, within hours of allergen exposure, resolves by 24 hours
    ii. Oedema/ redness induration , nasal blockage, persistent wheezing
    c. Chronic allergic disease
    i. Tissue inflammation persists for days to years
    ii. Repeated stimulation of mast cells, basophils, eosinophils and Th2 cells
    iii. Th2 cytokines induce tissue remodeling
  5. Treatment
    a. Antihistamines
    i. Reversible
    ii. Competitive inhibition of histamine by binding to H1 receptor
    iii. First generation = lipophilic and cross BBB leading to central effects (sedation, cognitive impairment)
    iv. Second generation = cetirizine, fexofenadine (less sedating)
    b. Allergen immunotherapy
    i. Gradually increasing doses of allergens
    ii. Used in seasonal rinoconjunctivitis, asthma and insect venom sensitivity
    iii. NOT recommended for < 5 except for insect venom therapy
    iv. NOT recommended for (no evidence) food allergy, atopic dermatitis, acute/ chronic urticarial
91
Q

Eosinophilia - differentials

A
  • Allergic disease – atopic conditions
  • Respiratory – eosinophilic pneumonia, ABPA
  • GIT – eosinophilic gastroenteritis, allergic colitis, IBD
  • Infections – helminthic infection
  • Neoplastic – eosinophilic leukemia, Hodgkin disease
  • Drug induced
92
Q

High IgE - differentials

A
  • Allergic disease – atopic conditions (eczema most common)
  • Helminthic infection
  • Hyper IgE syndrome
  • ABPA
  • Wiskott/Aldrich syndrome
  • Bone marrow transplant
  • Hodgkin disease
  • Bullous pemphigoid
  • Idiopathic nephritic syndrome
93
Q

Allergen specific IgE tests - general principles

A

Skin prick test, serum IgE assays (RAST, radioallergosorbent testing), intradermal testing, complement resolved diagnosis

  1. Key principles
    a. Be specific in what you want
    b. Do NOT perform to foods if already ingesting with no history of immediate reaction
    c. Does NOT predict severity of future reaction (only the likelihood of a reaction)
    d. Accuracy SPT/ssIgE always depends on history
    i. Receny of reaction + size
    ii. BUT would not perform OFC if recent history of reaction and positive SPT (3mm+) or ssIgE (>0.35 KuA/L)
    e. Each food has own cut-off values for SPT and ssIgE
  2. Purpose of investigations
    a. Confirm diagnosis of IgE mediated food allergy
    b. Determine when safe to proceed to oral supervised food challenge
    c. NOTE
    i. Strength of positivity of test associated with likelihood of true allergy
    ii. NEITHER predict severity of allergic reaction
  3. When should they not be used?
    a. Tolerating food already without IgE reaction (‘what is my eczema due to doctor’)
    b. Food intolerances
    c. Chronic idiopathic urticaria
    d. Most non-IgE mediated food allergies (unless concurrent IgE mediated food allergy)
    e. NOTE: IgG ‘food panel’ testing NOT useful; IgG physiological reaction to food; multiple positive reactions and do NOT assist in diagnosis/ management of food allergy/ intolerance)
94
Q

Skin prick testing (+ intradermal testing) - general

A

i. Commercial allergen scratched onto skin (usually back or volar aspect of arm)
ii. Read after 15 minutes – wheal size, average of height and width (L+W/2)
iii. Positive = >=3 mm above saline control

iv. Key points
1. Sensitive, inexpensive and rapid
2. Based on presence of antibodies (which does not necessarily mean allergies)
a. Allergen crosslinks with IgE bound to mast cells
b. Activates cells to release histamines and other cytokines
v. Controls = saline (negative), histamine (positive)

vi. Size of SPT influenced by
1. Allergen extract used
2. Site of application (back&raquo_space;> arm)
3. Pressure applied by operator
4. Device used for SPT
5. Skin integrity (eczema)
6. Drawing of wheal not ‘exact science’
7. Oral antihistamines – none for 4-5 days pre test

vii. Other factors influencing test result
1. Recent anaphylaxis
2. Dermatographism

viii. Interpretation = pre-test probability + likelihood ratio  post-test probability (Fagan’s nomogram)
1. The larger the SPT size, the more likely an IgE mediated reaction will occur
2. Does NOT tell you
a. Severity of reaction
b. Non-IgE mediated reaction
3. Negative predictive value ~50%
4. +ve test and +ve hx  suggestive of allergy
5. -ve test and +ve hx  need to do food challenge

c. Intradermal testing
i. Involves injecting 0.01-0.02 L o dilute allergen extract into the dermis

95
Q

Serum IgE assays / RAST (+CRD) - general

A

ssIgE

i. Blood test (in vitro)
ii. Allergen on a well
iii. Add patient serum and then anti-IgE marker and measure signal (ELISA)
iv. Interpretation= predictive value of test dependent on
1. Patient factors
2. Food allergens
a. Cow’s milk, egg, peanut vs wheat – soybean/wheat/tree nut not as good tests; fish, peanut, milk and egg better
b. Raw vs cooked egg
- positive if >0.35 KuA/L
- ?no specific contraindications (cf SPT where can’t do if severe eczema, oral antihistamines, dermatographism, +/- recent anaphylaxis)

Complement resolved diagnosis (CRD)

i. ssIgE – however specific allergen protein is purified
ii. More expensive and in clinical practice usually only peanut CRD used (Ara h 2)
iii. Very expensive
iv. Used if SPT 3-8 mm and/or ssIgE 0.35-15 KuA/L (grey zone)
1. Distant clinical reaction
2. Sensitisation only
v. Arah 1,2,3 and 8
1. Usually order Ara h 2 – as expensive if order 1,2,3 and 8
2. High Ara h 2 don’t challenge

96
Q

Drugs that affect skin prick testing

A

DO affect

  • antihistamine (generally cease 4 days prior)
  • H2 antagonist (1 day e.g. ranitidine)
  • antidepressant (7 days)
  • prochlorperazine
  • neuroleptics (up to 2 weeks, e.g. chlorpromazine, quetiapine, fluphenazine)

NO effect

  • leukotriene receptor antagonists
  • decongestants
  • SABA/LABA
  • glucocorticoids
  • theophylline (oral)
  • cyclosporine
97
Q

Anaphylaxis - background

A
  1. Key points
    a. Do not allow children with anaphylaxis to stand or walk
    b. Most reactions occur within 30 minutes of exposure to a trigger but can occur up to 4 hours
    c. Treatment of anaphylaxis is IM adrenaline 10 micrograms/kg or 0.01ml/kg of 1:1000 (maximum 0.5ml), into lateral thigh which should be repeated after 5 minutes if the child is not improving
  2. Definition (uptodate)
    Anaphylaxis is highly likely when any ONE of the following three criteria is fulfilled:
  3. Acute onset of an illness (minutes to several hours) with involvement of the skin, mucosal tissue, or both (eg, generalized hives, pruritus or flushing, swollen lips-tongue-uvula)
    AND AT LEAST ONE OF THE FOLLOWING:
    A. Respiratory compromise (eg, dyspnea, wheeze-bronchospasm, stridor, hypoxemia)
    B. Reduced BP* or associated symptoms of end-organ dysfunction (eg, hypotonia, collapse, syncope, incontinence)
  4. TWO OR MORE OF THE FOLLOWING that occur rapidly after exposure to a LIKELY allergen for that patient (minutes to several hours):
    A. Involvement of the skin mucosal tissue (eg, generalized hives, itch-flush, swollen lips-tongue-uvula)
    B. Respiratory compromise (eg, dyspnea, wheeze-bronchospasm, stridor, hypoxemia)
    C. Reduced BP* or associated symptoms (eg, hypotonia, collapse, syncope, incontinence)
    D. Persistent gastrointestinal symptoms (eg, crampy abdominal pain, vomiting)
  5. Reduced BP* after exposure to a KNOWN allergen for that patient (minutes to several hours):
    A. Infants and children - Low systolic BP (age-specific)* or greater than 30% decrease in systolic BP
    B. Adults - Systolic BP of less than 90 mmHg or greater than 30% decrease from that person’s baseline

b. NOTE (Boast notes):
i. For insect bite/sting gastrointestinal symptoms ALONE is sufficient for treatment as anaphylaxis with adrenaline
ii. Lip swelling is NOT considered airway involvement

RCH:
Anaphylaxis is a multi-system severe allergic reaction characterised by an acute onset of cardiovascular (eg hypotension) or respiratory (eg bronchospasm) symptoms. It is usually associated with typical skin features (urticarial rash or erythema/flushing and/or angioedema) and/or persistent severe gastrointestinal symptoms.

  1. Epidemiology
    a. Egg is most common food allergy
    b. Trigger of anaphylaxis – peanut, tree-nut, cow milk
    c. Death in infants from anaphylaxis is very rare <4 years
  2. Aetiology
    a. Foods - Peanut, tree nuts, cow milk, eggs, soy, shellfish, fish, wheat
    b. Bites/stings - Bee, wasp, jack jumper ants
    c. Medications- Beta-lactams
    d. Other - exercise, idiopathic
    Newer monoclonal antibody therapies may produce delayed anaphylactic reactions and rebound symptoms that occur more than 12 hours after the initial reaction
    NB: a cause is not identified in 20% of cases
98
Q

Anaphylaxis - RFs, sx

A
  1. Risk factors for fatal anaphylaxis
    - Delay to administration of adrenaline or emergency response services
    - Poorly controlled asthma
    - Allergy to nuts, shellfish, drugs and insect stings
    - Adolescence
    - Pre-existing cardiac and respiratory conditions
Respiratory	(Most common in children)
•	Persistent cough
•	Wheeze
•	Tongue swelling
•	Stridor 
•	Hoarse voice or change in character of the cry
•	Subjective feeling of swelling or tightness/tingling in the throat
•	Dysphagia	
Cardiovascular 	
•	Pale and floppy (infant)
•	Palpitations
•	Tachycardia
•	Bradycardia
•	Hypotension
•	Collapse with or without unconsciousness
•	Cardiac arrest	

Neurological
• Headache (usually throbbing)
• Dizziness
• Altered consciousness/ confusion

GIT	
•	Nausea
•	Vomiting
•	Diarrhoea
•	Abdominal/pelvic pain

Dermatological
• Urticarial rash
• Erythema/flushing
• Angioedema

  1. Types of anaphylactic reactions
    a. Uniphasic = 90%
    b. Biphasic
    i. Initial symptom resolution with treatment
    ii. Then rebound symptoms (mild-severe) 1-72 hours later
    iii. 5% of paediatric cases presenting to ED
    iv. Potential risk factors include >1 dose adrenaline and/or need for IV fluids
    c. Protracted
    i. Lasts for hours to days with incomplete resolution
99
Q

Anaphylaxis - ix, rx

A
  1. Investigations
    a. Anaphylaxis is a clinical diagnosis
    b. Tryptase = helpful if diagnosis is unclear (eg. anaesthetic reaction)
    i. NO role in acute management of anaphylaxis
    ii. Should be obtained 15 minutes to 3 hours post anaphylaxis
    iii. Second level 24 hours is used for comparison
    iv. If level is >11.4 or elevated by 20% above baseline – diagnosis confirmed

RX:
a. Remove allergen (if still present)

b. Posture
i. Do not allow the child to stand or walk
ii. Fatality can occur within seconds if the child stands or sits suddenly
iii. Movement = empty heart syndrome

c. IM 10 micrograms/kg or 0.01ml/kg of 1:1000 (maximum 0.5ml), into lateral thigh
i. Repeated after 5 minutes if the child is not improving – x2 doses call PICU
ii. Do not use SC adrenaline, as absorption is less reliable than the IM route.
iii. Do not use IV bolus adrenaline unless cardiac arrest is imminent.
iv. Use an adrenaline autoinjector if unable to calculate exact dose or to avoid delay, including in children <1 year
- continue IM adrenaline as needed every 5 minutes until IV access obtained

d. Adrenaline infusion
i. If the child is not improving after repeated doses of IM adrenaline (> 2 doses), consider adrenaline infusion (0.05 - 5 mcg/kg/min)
ii. Should only use 1:1000 adrenaline
iii. Never give IV bolus of adrenaline (unless in cardiac arrest); due to risk of cardiac ischaemia

e. Adjunctive treatment
- O2 if necessary
i. Fluid bolus = if hypotensive
ii. Nebulised adrenaline
1. Not recommended as first-line therapy
2. May be a useful adjunct to IM adrenaline if upper airway obstruction or bronchospasm is present (commonly used in children)
iii. Oxygen + Salbutamol = recommended if the child has respiratory distress with wheezing and consider other anti-asthma medications
iv. Antihistamines = may be given for symptomatic relief of pruritus
1. Second generation antihistamines are preferred (avoid promethazine as it can cause hypotension)
v. Corticosteroids, antihistamines and leukotriene antagonists have no proven immediate benefit on life threatening anaphylaxis
1. No evidence reduces risk of biphasic reactions
2. May be useful if concurrent asthma

f. Glucagon infusion
i. Consider in those with severe anaphylaxis and beta2 blockade
ii. Acts on glucagon receptors in the heart by exerting positive inotropic (BP) and chronotropic (HR) effects by increasing cardiac cAMP
iii. Independent of adrenaline effect
iv. NO effect on bronchi

100
Q

Anaphylaxis - observation, long term rx

A
  1. Observation
    a. All children with anaphylaxis should be observed for at least 4 hours in a supervised setting with facilities to manage deterioration
    b. Admission for a minimum 12 hour period of observation is recommended if:
    i. Further treatment is required within 4 hours of last adrenaline administration (biphasic reaction)
    ii. Previous history of biphasic reaction
    iii. Poorly controlled asthma
    iv. The child lives in an isolated location with delay to emergency services
  2. Long-term management
    a. Update medical record
    b. Refer to allergist/ paediatrician
    c. Confirm with SPT/ ssIgE
    d. Avoid the food trigger(s) +/- dietician involvement
    e. Prescribe adrenaline auto-injector (and demonstrate its use)
    i. <20 kg = EpiPen Jnr® (150 µg)
    ii. > 20 kg = EpiPen® (300 µg)
    f. Provide ASCIA red action plan
    g. Review
    i. Nuts/seafood – tends to persist; review every 5 years
    ii. Egg, wheat, milk – vast majority cease; review 12-18 months
  3. Epipen prescribing
    a. Anyone with anaphylaxis to food requires an adrenaline auto-injector
    b. Ensure educated on use and gone through action plan
    c. Dose depends on weight
    i. 150 mcg (junior) <20 kg
    ii. 300 mcg if 20 kg +

Consider prescribing epipen without anaphylaxis if risk factors e.g. adolescence, asthmatic, nuts/shellfish, remote living / concerns re seeking medical attention

101
Q

Anaphylactoid reaction - general

A

• Anaphylaxis-like reaction
• Occurs due to direct mast cell activation eg. red man syndrome
o Ie. Non-IgE mediated activation of mast cells/basophils

Typical triggers
- Often drugs – opiates, contrast, vancomycin, NSAIDs, blood products

102
Q

Allergic rhinitis - bg

A
  1. Key points
    a. Inflammatory disorder of the nasal mucosa
    b. Often related conjunctivitis, sinusitis, otitis media, serous otitis, hypertrophic tonsils and adenoids, and eczema
    c. Associated with 3x fold increased risk in asthma at an older age
    d. Symptoms usually appear in infancy; diagnosis established by age 6
  2. Risk factors
    a. Family history of atopy
    b. Elevated IgE by age 6
    c. Children whose mothers smoke heavily
    d. Heavy exposure to indoor allergens
    e. LUSCS associated with atopy in children with family history of atopy
  3. Pathogenesis
    a. Exposure of an atopic host to an allergen  IgE production
    b. Bridging of IgE molecules  mast cell activation + degranulation  release of pre-formed inflammatory mediators (histamine, prostaglandin, leukotrienes)
    c. Late phase allergic response (4-8 hours)  eosinophils, neutrophils and mast cells infiltrate nasal mucosa  leukotrienes, eosinophil peroxidase, major basic protein + IL-3, IL-5, GCSF
  4. Phases
    a. Acute – sneezing, itch, rhinorrhoea (due to histamine)
    b. Delayed – nasal congestion (due to infiltration inflammatory cells)
103
Q

Allergic rhinitis - classification

A

Intermittent
- <4 days/week or <4 weeks at a time
Persistent
- >4 days or 4 weeks as above

Mild

  • Normal sleep, daily activities, work, school
  • No troublesome symptoms

Mod-severe
- one or more of: abnormal sleep, impaired daily activities/sport/leisure, difficulties at work or school, troublesome symptoms

  1. Clinical classification
    a. Seasonal – airborne pollens (typically grasses)
    b. Perennial – indoor allergens (house dust mite, mould, dander, animal)
    c. Episodic/occupational – intermittent exposure to allergens (E.g. pets at visiting house)
  2. ARIA classification
    a. Episodic - <4 weeks
    b. Persistent - >4 weeks
    c. Mild – nil below features
    d. Moderate to severe – sleep disturbance, school interruption
104
Q

Allergic rhinitis - ix, rx

A
  1. Exclude
    a. Non allergic causes of rhinitis (e.g. vasomotor rhinitis, bacterial and viral infections, sinusitis)
    b. Overuse of decongestant sprays (less common)
    c. Tumours or vocal cord dysfunction (rare)
  2. Investigations
    a. Serum specific IgE to assess for specific allergen if history indicates
  3. Treatment
    a. Non-pharmacological
    i. Allergen avoidance
    ii. Nasal irrigation
    b. Pharmacological
    i. Topical inhaled corticosteroids
  4. First line treatment for perennial and seasonal allergic rhinitis
  5. Take for 2-4 weeks before maximum benefit is achieved
  6. Continue for a minimum 3-6 months - this should be continuous treatment
  7. Useful for sneezing and eye symptoms
  8. Mometasone furorate - children over 3 years
  9. Budesonide - children over 6 years
  10. Fluticasone fluroate - children over 12 years
  11. Beclomethasone dipropionate -children over 6 years
  12. Triamcinolone acetonide - children over 12 years
    ii. Antihistamines
  13. Manage itching, sneezing and eye symptoms; LESS HELPFUL FOR NASAL CONGESTION
    iii. Decongestants
  14. Short term use ONLY (<3 days) – long-term associated with rebound symptoms
  15. Reduce nasal congestion
  16. AE = hypertension, CNS effects such as insomnia, agitation, anxiety
  17. NOT for use in young children (<6 years)
105
Q

Eczema - bg

A
  1. Key points
    a. Features
    i. Defective skin barrier
    ii. Reduced skin innate immune response
    iii. Exaggerated T cell responses to environmental allergens (Th2 response)
    b. Two forms have been identified
    i. Atopic eczema = associated with IgE mediated sensitivity occurs in 70-80%
    ii. Non-atopic eczema = NOT associated with IgE
  2. Epidemiology
    a. Most common chronic relapsing skin disease
    b. Affects 10-30% of children worldwide
    c. Associated with other atopic conditions
    d. 80% outgrow by 5 years
  3. Pathogenesis
    a. Genetic predisposition
    i. Defective epidermal barrier function
  4. Allows allergens to penetrate barrier and interact with immune cells
  5. Severely dry skin is a hallmark of AD
  6. Filaggrin is a structural protein in the epidermis
    a. Mutations in filaggrin gene family identified in up to 50% of patients with severe AD
    ii. Immune dysregulation
  7. Circulating T cells (/cutaneous) produce increased levels of Th2 cytokines (IL-4, IL-13) -> isotype switching to IgE
    b. Environmental factors
    i. Environmental irritants – all patients
  8. Drying agents - water, soaps, shampoo, chlorine
  9. Abrasive clothing - wool, nylon, acrylic (patient and carers)
  10. Abrasive surfaces - carpet when crawling, sandpits, lamb wool covers
  11. Heat – only in active eczema
  12. Chemicals – fragrance, preservatives (e.g. in sorbelene/topical steroids)
    ii. Infections – all patients
  13. Staph colonization can exacerbate inflammatory process due to exotoxin that acts as superantigen, stimulating T cells to produce more IgE via Th2 response
    iii. Airborne – some patients
  14. House dust mite (important for infants that don’t grow out of it), pollens, grasses (important from first year onwards)
  15. Identified with SPTs and RAST
    iv. Food tolerance – some patients
  16. 40% have co-existing food allergy
  17. Ingestion breast milk, formula, solids
  18. Most significant first 1-2years (CAN ALTER MATERNAL DIET)
  19. Eggs/nuts > cows milk > wheat
  20. Identified with skin prick or RAST testing
106
Q

Eczema - manifestations

A

a. Typically begins in infancy
i. Onset as infants = 50% <12months
1. Usually 2-6 months
2. Uncommon >6 months
3. Distribution infants up to 18 months - cradle cap, nape of the neck, trunk and extensor surfaces of limbs, spares flexures and nappy region
ii. After 2 years = 30% diagnosed between 1 and 5 years
1. Resolves (most)
2. Chronic and moves on into flexures and lichenification (exaggeration of normal creases)

b. Key features
i. Intense pruritis
ii. Cutaneous reactivity
iii. Skin lesions
1. Types
a. Acute = erythematous papules
b. Subacute = erythematous, excoriated, scaling papules
c. Chronic = lichenification, fibrotic papules
2. Distribution
a. Infancy = face, scalp, extensor; diaper area spared
b. Older children = flexural folds

c. Triggers
i. Food – cow milk, egg, peanut, tree nuts, soy, wheat
ii. Aeroallergens
iii. Infection – HSV, staphylococcus, molluscum
iv. Reduce humidity + dryness + excessive sweating
v. Irritants – water, soap, saliva, urine/faeces, fabrics, additives, sand/chlorine
vi. Heat

107
Q

Eczema - rx

A

a. Overview
i. Manage triggers
ii. Reduce inflammation
iii. Treat super-infections

b. Non-pharmacological
i. Avoidance of triggers = irritants, foods, aeroallergens, infections
ii. Moisturizers = usually twice daily adequate
iii. Wet dressings

c. Pharmacological
i. Cutaneous steroids
1. Face
a. 1% hydrocortisone E.g. DermAid, Sigmacort, Cortic
b. Pimecrolimus – E.g. Elidel – for moderate facial eczema
2. Trunk and limbs – avoid face + genitals
a. Methylprednisolone 0.1% - E.g. Advantan fatty ointment
b. Mometasone furoate 0.1% - E.g. elocon
3. Adverse effects
a. Perioral dermatitis – if used around the face
b. No long-term risk of skin thinning, tachyphylaxis, facial telangiectasia (face; reversal)
c. Can contribute to striae – must be striae prone area in a striae prone individual
d. Theoretically can cause suppression of HPA – but practically does NOT occur (1 tube of potent steroids/week on 6 month old is safe)
4. Key points
a. Aim to clear eczema then stop - clearing bursts rather than daily
b. Use strong (efficient) cortisones
c. Do not use ‘sparingly’; prescribe large quantities

ii. Systemic immunosuppression
1. Pharmacological
a. Topical Calcineurin inhibitors = pimecrolimus ointment
b. Systemic corticosteroids - rare
c. Cyclosporine
d. Azathioprine = most commonly used
e. Methotrexate
2. Phototherapy
a. UVB = anti-inflammatory

iii. Adjuncts
1. Tar preparations
2. Antihistamines - Do NOT directly benefit eczema
iv. Treat infections
1. Bleach bath
2. Systemic antibiotics or antiviral

108
Q

Eczema - prognosis

A
  1. Prognosis
    a. More severe and persistent in young children
    b. Periods of remission more common with age
    c. Predictive factors of poor prognosis = widespread AD in childhood, filaggrin gene mutations, concomitant allergic rhinitis and asthma, family history, early age at onset, very high IgE

d. Trouble shooting of no response
i. ECMA
ii. E = existing diagnosis correct?
iii. C = co-existent disease process?
1. Infection
2. Scabies
3. Immunodeficiency = hyperIgE, Wiskott-Aldrich, SCID
iv. E = environmental
v. M = medication adequate
vi. A = allergy or intolerance
1. History clues
a. Exacerbation with exposure
b. Fluctuating erythema – usually reacting to breast feeds
c. Nocturnal itch – dust mite allergy
d. Constant topical steroid therapy
2. Examination clues
a. Morphology of dermatitis (white dermographism and pronounced erythema)
b. Extent and distribution – around mouth and nappy rash if food
c. Pattern of facial involvement – eyes and forehead in dust mite
3. Investigations = SPT and RAST testing
4. Management = investigation and avoidance

109
Q

Infections in eczema

A
  1. Staphylococcus aureus
    a. Frequent infection
    b. Signs – honey crusting, folliculitis, pyoderma
    c. Treatment = remove crust, oral antibiotics, bleach baths
    d. Long-term oral bactrim prophylaxis
    e. Topical antibiotics (IN)
  2. Viral infections
    a. Herpes simplex = most common
    i. Involved skin painful and itchy
    ii. Signs – punched out erosions, haemorrhagic crusts and/or vesicles
    iii. Treatment = oral antiviral therapy
    b. Enterovirus
    c. Molluscum contagiosum
  3. Fungal infection
    a. Tinea infections more common in patients with eczema, can be treated with standard topical or oral antifungals
    b. Malessezia furfur yeast (normal component of skin flora) can be exacerbating factor in head/neck eczema
110
Q

Discoid (nummular) eczema - general

A
•	Unknown etiology
•	Starts with eczema at one site for any reason
•	Skin breaks out in ‘sympathy’ patches
•	Predominantly a vicious cycle 
•	Treatment
o	Topical steroids
o	Wet dressings
o	Sunlight/UVB 
o	Systemic immunosuppression
111
Q

Perioral dermatitis vs eczema

A

Perioral eczema is CONTINUOUS with lips, perioral dermatitis has a zone of sparing

Perioral dermatitis

  • zone of sparing
  • variant of rosacea
  • occurs as rebound effect from corticosteroids
  • treat with erythromycin/tetracycline
112
Q

Insect allergy - general

A
  1. Key points
    a. Usually IgE mediated reactions
    i. Stings from venomous insects of the order Hymenoptera or from ticks, spiders, scorpions
    ii. Hymenoptera – apids (honeybee, bumblebee), vespids (yellow-jacket wasp, hornet), formicids (fire and harvester ants)
    b. Anaphylaxis rare
  2. Classification
    a. Local reaction
    b. Large local reaction
    c. Generalised cutaneous reaction
    d. Systemic reaction – anaphylaxis
    e. Serum sickness
  3. Risk factors
    a. Elevated tryptase
    b. Absence of cutaneous signs
    c. Latency < 5 minutes
    d. Age
    e. Honey bee venom
    f. Concurrent beta blocker/ ACE inhibitor use
  4. Diagnosis
    a. History of exposure
    b. Serum specific IgE
    c. Tryptase
    d. Venom specific skin prick testing
    i. Negative tests can occur if – loss of skin sensitivity with time, anergic phase (too close to recent reaction – within 6 weeks), false negative
    ii. If negative, double check with serum IgE
  5. Repeat test 1-6 months later
  6. If both skin test + IgE is negative, likely not anaphylactic but cases of anaphylaxis have occurred
113
Q

Insect allergy - reaction definitions (local, large, generalised)

A
  1. LOCAL REACTION
    a. Clinical manifestations
    i. Consist of symptoms confined to the tissues contiguous with the sting site
    ii. Redness and painful swelling (1-5cm) at the site of the sting
    iii. Usually mild and transient – develops within minutes and resolves within a few hours; occasionally last for one to two days
    iv. Nil systemic symptoms
    b. Complications
    i. Large local reactions
    ii. Secondary bacterial infection
    c. Treatment
    i. Remove stingers
    ii. Cold compress
  2. GENERALISED CUTANEOUS REACTION
    a. Progress within minutes
    b. Includes cutaneous symptoms of urticaria, angioedema and pruritis
  3. LARGE LOCAL REACTION
    a. Approx 10% of individuals develop exaggerated redness and swelling at the site of the sting
    b. Thought to be IgE mediated
    c. Clinical manifestations
    i. Gradually enlarges over 1-2 days
    ii. Peak at approximately 48 hours and gradually resolve over 5 to 10 days
    iii. Area of swelling typically measures about 10 cm in diameter
    d. Treatment
    i. Cold compress
    ii. Oral prednisolone given as single dose or rapidly tapered may help to reduce swelling
    iii. NSAID for pain
    iv. Pruritis treated with anti-histamine
    e. Future reactions
    i. Patients with a history of an LLR often have the same response to subsequent stings
    ii. It is not known if the risk of recurrent LLRs changes over time
    iii. The risk for systemic allergic reaction in the future is 7%

NOTE: Vomiting + Abdominal pain with venom -> TREAT AS ANAPHYLAXIS

114
Q

Venom immunotherpay (VIT) - general

A
  • Hymenoptera VIT is highly effective (95-97%) in decreasing risk of anaphylaxis
  • Risk of systemic reaction for those who experienced a large local reaction is no more than 5-10%  VIT not indicated
  • HOWEVER there is evidence to show that VIT can reduce the size and duration of large, local reactions
  • Takes 3-5 years

• Mechanism
o Shift T cell phenotype from Th2 (IL-4, IL-5) to Th1 (IFN-gamma) or Treg (IL-10)
o Produce IgG rather than IgE
• Indications
o Specific IgE to venom allergen
o Generalised urticaria OR systemic reaction

• Adverse effects
o Large local reaction (50%)
o Systemic reaction (2-15%)

•	Risk of relapse
o	More severe allergic
o	Honey bee allergy 
o	Reaction during VIT
o	< 5 years of treatment
115
Q

Ocular allergies - general

A
  1. Allergic conjunctivitis
    a. Most common hypersensitivity reaction
    b. Caused by direct exposure of the mucosal surface of the eye to environmental allergens
    c. Seasonal allergic conjunctivitis typically associated with allergic rhinitis
    d. Perennial allergic conjunctivitis triggered by HDM or animal dander – symptoms usually less severe
    e. Clinical manifestations
    i. Ocular itching
    ii. Tearing
    iii. Bilateral injected conjunctivae with vascular congestion
    iv. May progress to chemosis or conjunctival swelling and watery discharge
  2. Vernal keratoconjunctivitis
    a. Severe bilateral chronic inflammatory process of the upper tarsal conjunctival surface
    b. May threaten eyesight if there is corneal involvement
    c. Most frequently occurs in children with seasonal allergies, asthma, or atopic dermatitis
    d. Affects primarily children in temperate areas, with exacerbations in the spring and summer
    e. Clinical manifestations
    i. Ocular itching exacerbated by exposure to irritants, light or perspiration
    ii. Giant papillae occur predominantly on the upper tarsal plate – described as Cobblestoning
    iii. Long eyelashes
  3. Atopic conjunctivitis
    a. Chronic inflammatory ocular disorders most commonly involving the lower tarsal conjunctiva
    b. May threaten eyesight if there is corneal involvement
    c. Almost all patients have atopic dermatitis, significant number have asthma
    d. Rarely presents before late adolescence
  4. Giant papillary conjunctivitis
    a. Linked to chronic exposure of FB such as contact lenses, ocular prostheses and sutures
  5. Contact allergy
    a. Involves eyelids usually but can involve the conjunctivae
    b. Associated with exposure to topical medications, contact lens solutions and preservatives
116
Q

Acute urticaria - bg

A

= Pruritic, elevated skin lesions surrounded by erythematous base commonly described as “hives”, d/t transient extravasation of plasma into the dermis
• Urticaria = swelling of the dermis
• Angioedema = swelling of dermis, subcutaneous tissues, mucous membranes
• Urticaria + angioedema occurs in 50% of patients – the remaining 50%, 40% have urticaria alone and 10% have angioedema
ALWAYS CONSIDER ANAPHYLAXIS

  1. Key points
    a. Self-limited process
    b. Represents reaction pattern to variety of stimuli
    c. Due to mast cell degranulation
    d. Can be due to hypersensitivity
    e. Can be due to toxic reactions or intolerance
    f. Triggers = reasons that cause the mast cells to suddenly become sensitive
    g. Exacerbating factors = reasons that cause spillage of products from sensitize mast cell
    h. Once triggered, can be active for days, weeks, months or years
  2. Pathogenesis
    a. IgE mediated = occurs when allergen activates mast cells in the skin
    b. Non-IgE mediated = activation of mast cells by other agents eg. radiocontrast, viruses, NSAIDs
  3. Classification
    a. Acute = < 6 weeks
    i. Infection in 80%
    ii. Infestation and insects
    iii. Medications/foods
    b. Chronic = > 6 weeks (either persistent/ recurrent) – kinin mediated
    i. 75-90% idiopathic
    ii. Other causes
  4. Hereditary angioedema
  5. ACE inhibitor
  6. Rheumatological/ endocrine/ neoplastic causes
117
Q

Acute urticaria - aetiology, exacerbating factors, sx

A

Aetiology (mostly idiopathic or viral)

  • Foods
  • Medications
  • Insect stings
  • Infections
  • Contact allergy
  • Transfusion reactions
  1. Exacerbating factors
    a. Heat
    b. Pressure dermographism
    c. Salicylates – acidic foods
    d. Viruses and other immune stimuli
    e. Sweating – cholinergic urticaria
    f. Cold
    g. Sun
  2. Clinical manifestations
    a. Urticarial lesions – circumscribed, raised, erythematous plaques often with central pallor or duskiness
    i. May be round, annular or serpiginous
    ii. May appear flatter if individual taking h1 antihistamine
    iii. Transient, each lesion lasts a few hours to one day then resolves without leaving a mark
    iv. Lesions extremely pruritic – worse at night
    v. NOTE: urticaria associated with serum-sickness reactions, SLE or other vasculitides – burn more than itch, last >24 hours, do not blanch, blister, heal with scarring, may be associated with purpura
    b. Angioedema – episodic submucosal or subcutaneous swelling that is usually asymmetric in distribution, affects non-dependent parts of the body over minutes to hours, and is non-pitting
    c. NOTE: angioedema involving the throat, tongue or lips, WITHOUT urticaria should prompt consideration for drug-induced angioedema (eg. seen with ACE), hereditary angioedema, or acquired C1 inhibitor deficiency
    d. Dermographism common
118
Q

Acute urticaria - ddx, ix, rx

A
  1. DDx
    a. Urticaria vasculitis (including HSP)
    i. Longer lasting lesions (>24 hours)
    ii. Evidence of purpura or may leave bruising
    iii. More likely to have arthralgia + systemic symptoms
    b. Erythema multiforme
    How to distinguish? EM is:
    - Usually not itchy
    - Does not move around - individual lesions persist for days
    - Has target lesions with a central papule, blister, purpura or ulcer.
    - Often has mucosal involvement
    c. Annular erythema
    d. Other viral and drug eruptions
    e. Cutaneous lupus

Investigations: Usually not indicated for acute urticaria

Treatment:
Remove identifiable cause if any

If symptomatic:
Cool Compresses
Avoid aggravating factors such as avoiding excessive heat or spicy foods
Aspirin and other NSAIDs should also be avoided as they often make symptoms worse
Anti-histamines to alleviate itching. A non-sedating antihistamine is preferred
Cetirizine (Zyrtec) 0.25mg/kg/dose (adult 10mg) 12-24H oral. Can give up to 4 times the recommended dose to a maximum total daily dose of 40mg. Can be used in children from 6 months of age

Steroid creams do not work. For severe cases, not responding to increased doses of non-sedating antihistamines, a single dose of oral prednisolone may be considered

119
Q

Chronic urticaria - bg

A
  1. Key points
    a. 50% have associated angioedema
    b. No external allergic cause or contributing disease in 80-90%
    c. Self-limited disorder in most patients; lasts 2-5 years
    - chronic = >6 weeks
  2. Definition
    a. Recurrent urticaria +/- angioedema
    b. Lasts for 6 weeks or longer
    c. 50% of cases of chronic urticaria accompanied by angioedema
    d. Angioedema WITHOUT urticaria often due to allergy but raises question about other diagnoses

• Approximately 30% of chronic urticaria cases are physical urticaria and 60-70% are idiopathic

Aetiology (PREDAN)

  • P = physical - cold, pressure, heat
  • R = rheumatological - SLE, JIA
  • E = endocrine - hypo/hyper thyroid
  • D = drugs - ACE inhibitor
  • A = angioedema - hereditary, acquired
  • N = neoplastic - lymphoma, leukaemia
120
Q

Chronic urticaria - sx, ddx

A
  1. Clinical manifestations
    a. Cutaneous
    i. Urticaria
    ii. Angioedema
    b. Systemic
    i. Headache, fatigue, pain or swelling of joints, wheezing, flushing, GI symptoms, palpitations
    c. Triggers
    i. Physical factors
    ii. Anti-inflammatory – NSAIDs (20-50%)
    iii. Stress
    iv. Variations in dietary habits an alcohol
  2. Differential diagnosis
    a. Erythema mutiforme
    b. Dermatitis herpetiformis
    c. Bullous pemphigoid
    d. Mastocytosis
    e. Urticaria pigmentosa
    f. Muckle-Wells syndrome = SNHL, amyloidosis, arthralgias, skeletal abnormalities
    g. Schnitzler syndrome = chronic urticaria, macroglobulinaemia, bone pain, anaemia, fever, fatigue and wt loss
121
Q

Chronic urticaria - ix, rx

A
  1. Investigations
    a. Often not required
    b. Limited screen may be indicated
    i. FBE – eosinophilia should prompt evaluation for atopic disorder or parasitic infection
    ii. CRP/ESR – usually normal
    iii. TSH level
    c. Allergy testing (SPT or RAST)
    i. If <18/12
    ii. Suggestive for food on history
    iii. Parental pressure test IgE
  2. Treatment
    a. Reassurance
    b. Explain aetiology
    c. Explain prognosis – days, weeks, months, year
    d. Avoidance of exacerbating factors
    e. Role of therapy is to alleviate symptoms whilst waiting for natural resolution
    f. Dietary manipulations (controversial)
    g. Pharmacotherapy
    i. Antihistamine
  3. Prophylactically
  4. Only help with itch and elevation of wheal
    ii. Glucocorticoids – temporary
  5. If acute and/or severe
  6. Start with 1 mg/kg and wean down over 1/52 – may need longer
  7. Explain potential for recurrence after finishing course
    iii. Second line options
  8. LT receptor antagonist
  9. H2 blockers
  10. Sodium cromoglycate
  11. UVB
  12. Omalizumab (monoclonal antibody to free IgE, indicated for maintenance treatment of moderate-to-severe allergic asthma in patients treated with inhaled corticosteroids and with raised serum IgE levels, severe chronic rhinosinusitis with nasal polyps inadequately controlled with intranasal corticosteroids, chronic spontaneous urticaria inadequately controlled with antihistamines)
122
Q

Angioedema - general

A
  1. Key points
    a. Angioedema supposed to represent deeper variant (cf urticaria)
    i. Deferent presentations for some situation such as adults taking ACE inhibitors
    ii. Nonspecific swelling
    b. Some areas of urticaria show much more swelling as skin tension is less
    i. Lips and eyes
    ii. Involvement of these sites not inherently concerning
  2. Aetiology of recurrent angioedema
    a. Idiopathic angioedema
    b. Type I hereditary angioedema
    c. Type II hereditary angioedema
    d. Hereditary angioedema with normal C1 inhibitor (type III)
    e. Acquired C1 esterase inhibitor deficiency
    f. Vasculitis
  3. Screen for cause on H+E
    a. Fever
    b. General well-being
    c. Food ingestion – urticaria usually commence head and neck
    d. Medication history
    e. Localising signs for infection/ rheumatological disease
  4. Assess for associated anaphylaxis
    a. Wheeze
    b. History of coughing/voice change
    c. Vomiting
    d. Altered conscious state
    e. Tongue swelling
123
Q

Hereditary angioedema - bg

A
  1. Key points
    a. Recurrent episodes of angioedema without urticaria or pruritis
    b. Usually affects skin or mucosal tissue of upper respiratory or GIT
    c. Swelling self-limited and lasts 2-5 days
    d. Laryngeal involvement may cause fatal asphyxiation
  2. Genetics + pathogenesis
    a. AD (type I and II) – spontaneous mutation in 25%
    b. Classification
    i. Type I = C1 inhibitor deficiency -> protein and functional levels of C1INH are low
    ii. Type II = C1 inhibitor dysfunction -> function is low but protein levels are normal or elevated

d. C1-INH
i. Synthesized by hepatocytes and monocytes
ii. Inhibits C1 -> unchecked activation of C1 causes cleavage of C4 and C2
1. Levels of C3 are normal
iii. Also inhibits other components of the fibrinolytic, clotting and kinin pathways (kallikrein), e.g. bradykinin -> bradykinin results in vasodilation + increased vascular permeability -> oedema

124
Q

Hereditary angioedema - sx

A

a. 40% have first attack by age 5 years
b. Repeated attacks in pre-adolescent children uncommon
c. Attack frequency increases in puberty
d. Diagnosis usually made in 2nd-3rd decade
e. Triggers
i. Physical triggers
ii. Medication = oestrogen containing, tamoxifen, ACE-I
iii. Hormonal change in women

f. Attacks
i. Cutaneous attack
1. Most commonly localised to hand or foot – can involve genitalia
2. Onset in childhood and severe during adolescence
3. Swelling becomes more severe over 1.5 days then resolves over same period
4. May have preceding erythema marginatum
ii. Gastrointestinal attack
1. Caused by oedema of mucosa of GIT – results in colic, N+V, diarrhoea
2. May be severe and mimic acute abdomen
iii. Laryngeal/pharyngeal attack
1. Can result in complete respiratory obstruction
2. Life-threatening attacks are uncommon
3. 50% of all patients experience a laryngeal attack
4. Predyspnoea phase (first noticeable symptom of sensation of lump or feeling tight in throat/ swallowing phase) -> dyspnoea -> loss of consciousness -> death

125
Q

Hereditary angioedema - ix, rx

A
  1. Investigations
    a. C1 inhibitor deficiency = type I and II
    b. Low C4 (substrate for C1 esterase) – during acute and quiescent phases
    c. C2 levels low during attacks only
  2. Treatment
    a. Does NOT respond to adrenaline, antihistamines or glucocorticoids
    b. Varies based on underlying cause
    c. First line therapies for severe
    i. Human plasma-derived C1 inhibitor concentrate = Berinert/Cinryze
    ii. Recombinant human C1 inhibitor
    iii. Icatibant – bradykinin B2 receptor antagonist
    iv. Ecallantide – kallikrein inhibitor
    d. Mild attacks
    i. Tranexamic acid – partially inhibits bradykinin pathway, no effect on C4 levels
    ii. Danazol – attenuated androgen – causes C4 levels to return to normal by increasing hepatic production of C1 esterase inhibitor
  3. Indications – post-pubertal children, pre-pubertal if life threatening event in past, peri-operative
126
Q

Serum sickness - bg

A
  1. Key points
    a. Serum sickness = systemic, immune-complex mediated hypersensitivity vasculitis triggered by heterologous or chimeric protein therapeutic
    b. Serum sickness-like reaction (SSLRs) = caused by other drugs
  2. Aetiology
    a. Proteins from other species
    i. Anti-venom
    ii. Monoclonal antibodies
    b. Drugs
    i. Antibiotics = cefaclor (serums-sickness like reaction), penicillins, bactrim, minocycline, meropenem
  3. In children – SSLR are 15x more likely with cefaclor than other antibiotics
  4. SSLRs occur in 0.024 to 0.2% of courses
    ii. Neurologic = bupropion, carbamazepine, phenytoin, sulfonamides, barbiturates
    iii. Hepatitis B
  5. Pathogenesis
    a. Class III hypersensitivity – caused by Ag-Ab complexes
    i. Small complexes – circulate harmlessly
    ii. Large complexes – cleared by reticuloendothelial system
    iii. Intermediate complexes = may deposit in blood vessel wall and tissues – trigger vascular (leukocystoclastic vasculitis) and tissue damage (activation of C’)
    b. Immune complexes involving heterologous (animal) serum proteins and complement activation
    c. Serum-sickness like reaction may be attributed to drug allergy, particularly triggered by antibiotics (celcor)
    i. Do NOT exhibit the immune complexes, hypocomplementaemia, vasculitis and renal lesions
127
Q

Serum sickness - sx, ix, rx

A
  1. Clinical manifestations (rash/urticaria, fever, arthralgia/arthritis)
    a. 7-21 days after foreign material - onset accelerated if previous exposure
    b. Cutaneous
    i. Site of injection erythematous and oedematous
    ii. Mucous membranes NOT involved
    iii. Rashes = urticaria and morbilliform (can be other)
    iv. Usually pruritic rash
    c. Polyarthritis/arthralgia
    d. Other – oedema, myalgia, lymphadenopathy, arthralgia or arthritis, GI complaints
    e. Symptoms resolve in 2 weeks (as long as 2-4 months)

f. Serum-sickness like reactions
i. Fever, pruritis, urticaria + arthralgia
ii. Begin 1-3 weeks after drug exposure
iii. Urticarial eruption increasingly erythematous and can evolve into dusky centre with round plaques

  1. Complications
    a. Carditis
    b. Glomerulonephritis
    c. Guillain-Barre syndrome
    d. Peripheral neuritis
  2. Investigations
    a. Thrombocytopenia, neutropenia
    b. Elevated ESR and CRP
    c. Urinalysis shows proteinuria +/ haematuria
    d. Low C3 + C4 (nadir day 10) + total haemolytic complement (CH50)
    e. Skin biopsy (if done) = findings similar to those seen with urticaria; IgM, IgA, IgE C3 deposits
  3. Treatment
    a. Supportive + withdrawal of culprit agent
    b. Antihistamines, NSAIDs
    c. Steroids sometimes used
128
Q

Food allergies - background

A
  1. Classification
    a. Immediate = IgE mediated
    b. Delayed = Non-IgE mediated
    i. Food protein proctocolitis
    ii. Food protein enteropathy
    iii. Food protein induced enterocolitis syndrome (FPIES)
    iv. Eosinophilic oesophagitis/ gastritis/ enteritis/ colitis
    v. Multiple food protein intolerance (MFP1)
    c. Mixed reactions
    d. Non-immunological
  2. Epidemiology
    a. 2-5% overall
    b. >10% of 12 month old infants in Melbourne
    c. 5-10% of children overall
    d. Risk factors
    i. Australian born infant with 2 Asian born parents 20% risk
    ii. Severe eczema 40% chance of allergy
    e. Children
    i. Egg, milk (most common food allergy), peanut (most common cause anaphylaxis)
    ii. Soy, wheat, fish
    iii. Other allergens = tree nut, shellfish
    f. Persistent into adulthood
    i. Peanut, tree nut, shellfish – 80% persist
    g. Overall prevalence in children
    i. Cow’s Milk = 2.5% in first two years of life
  3. Most develop by 12 months
    ii. Egg = 1-2% of young children
  4. Most by 18 months
    iii. Peanut and tree nut = 0.4-1.3% of children
  5. Median age of first reaction is 14 months
    iv. Wheat = 0.4-1% of children
    v. Seafood = <1% of children
    vi. Strawberries = Rare
  6. Natural history
    a. Most children with egg, cow milk and wheat allergy will outgrow
    i. 30% by 3 years
    ii. 50% by 5 years
    iii. 80% by 12 years
    b. Fish, shellfish and nut allergy much more difficult to outgrow and most are allergic lifelong (peanut, tree nut 10-20% chance tolerance by 5 years of age)
129
Q

Food allergies - key features (IgE v nonIgE v mixed)

A

a. IgE mediated reactions
i. Onset 30 minutes to 1 hour
ii. Multisystem features:
1. Skin – erythema/ angioedema/ urticarial
2. GI – vomiting /diarrhoea/ cramps
3. Resp – cough/ stridor / wheeze/ hoarse voice
4. CVS – hypotension/ pale / floppy infants
iii. Reproducible
iv. Skin and GI symptoms the most common
ssIgE/SPT positive

b. Non-IgE mediated
i. Eg FPIES / food protein induced colitis
ii. 1-48 hours onset
iii. Features
1. Vomiting /diarrhoea
2. FTT/ LOW
3. Abdominal pain
4. Hypotension can occur – but only due to fluid loss
ssIgE/SPT negative

c. Mixed
i. Tend to have onset 1-48 hours
ii. Features
1. Eczema
2. Vomiting/ diarrhoea
3. FTT/LOW
4. Abdominal pain
5. GOR

130
Q

Food allergies - gen rx

A
  1. Management
    a. Allergen avoidance
    b. Dietary education if excluding major food groups
    c. Risk minimization
    i. Action plan
    ii. Adrenalin, indicated if
  2. Hx of anaphylaxis
  3. Adolescents
  4. Remote location
  5. Poorly controlled asthma
  6. Allergy to peanut/ treenuts
    iii. Control asthma
    d. Annual review
    e. Allergist referral if:
    i. Anaphylaxis
    ii. Discordant hx/ skin prick test
    iii. Non-IgE mediated syndromes
    iv. Not responding to exclusion diet
    f. Introduction into diet via baking = not if previous severe reaction, previous reaction to trace amount, asthma or multiple food allergies
  7. Prevention of food allergy
    a. Exclusive breast feeding for 4-6 mo
    b. Introduce solid (complementary) foods after 4-6 mo of exclusive breast feeding
    c. Introduce low-risk complementary foods 1 at a time
    d. Introduce potentially highly allergenic foods (fish, eggs, peanut products, milk, wheat) soon after the lower-risk foods (no need to avoid or delay)
    e. Don’t avoid allergenic foods during pregnancy or nursing
    f. Soy-based formulas do not prevent allergic disease
131
Q

Non-IgE mediated food allergy - overview

A

• Gastrointestinal inflammatory reaction and thus presenting with GIT symptoms + signs
o Vomiting and/or diarrhoea – may be bloody
o Abdominal pain/bloating
o Growth impairment in some non-IgE conditions
• Can have associated eczema flare
• Usually does NOT occur in exclusively breasted infants (exception is allergic Proctocolitis; and some cases FIIPES)
• Unlike IgE food allergy
o No urticaria/ angioedema/ respiratory difficulty
o ssIgE/SPT usually negative/ low positive
o No fatalities

Conditions

  1. Eosinophilic oesophagitis – also classified as mixed IgE and non-IgE
  2. Allergic eosinophilic esophagitis – also classified as mixed IgE and non-IgE
  3. Allergic proctocolitis
  4. FPIES
  5. Dietary protein-induced enteropathy
  6. Celiac disease (gluten sensitive enteropathy)
  7. Contact dermatitis
  8. Dermatitis herpetiformis
  9. Pulmonary haemosiderosis
132
Q

Allergic proctocolitis - general

A
  1. Key points
    a. Also called food protein-induced allergic proctocolitis (FPIAP)
    b. Common cause of rectal bleeding
    c. Characterised by inflammation of distal colon in response to one or more food proteins
    d. Most common triggers
    i. Cow’s milk protein – 75%
  2. Can be exposed through breastmilk or infant formula
    ii. Egg – 16%
    iii. Soy protein – 6%
    iv. Corn – 2%
  3. Pathogenesis
    a. Characterised by inflammation of distal colon in response to one or more food proteins
  4. Clinical manifestations
    a. Healthy, non-febrile baby
    b. Usually 2-8 weeks of age; resolves by late infancy
    c. Usually breastfed (or started cow milk/ soy formula) – 60% occur in breastfed infants
    d. Gradual onset fresh blood specks/ clots in stool (frank blood uncommon)
    e. Diarrhoea uncommon (<5%)
    f. Features NOT consistent with allergic proctocolitis = fever, FTT, frank diarrhoea, forceful vomiting and/or abdominal distension
  5. Investigations
    a. Clinical diagnosis
    b. SPT/ssIgE not require
    c. Rectal biopsy – (NOT DONE) – eosinophilic infiltration
  6. Management
    a. Remove cow’s milk +/- soy from maternal diet if BF
    b. Remove corn/egg from maternal diet if BF (if fail to respond to removing milk/soy)
    c. Extensively hydroylsed formula
    d. Amino acid formula
    e. Usually resolves by 12 months of age – re-introduce food triggers after 12 months of age
133
Q

Food protein enteropathy - general

A
  1. Key points
    a. Infantile food protein enteropathy
    b. Note this is the same pathology as celiac disease
    c. Triggers
    i. Cow’s milk – most common
    ii. Soy, egg, wheat – other common triggers
  2. Pathogenesis
    a. T cell activation
    b. Villous atrophy with loss of lactase function at tips of villi – lactose intolerance
    c. Chronic diarrhoea – osmotic, fat malabsorption, protein loosing enteropathy
  3. Clinical manifestations
    a. Usually present within first 12 months
    b. Chronic, non-bloody diarrhoea within weeks after introduction of food
    c. Often have FTT
    d. Other features
    i. Vomiting
    ii. Abdominal distension
    iii. Early satiety
    iv. Malabsorption
  4. Investigations
    a. Anaemia
    b. Hypoalbuminaemia
    c. +/- endoscopy
  5. Management
    a. Allergen avoidance in most cases
    i. Improvement 6-12weeks
    ii. Increase appetite 2-4weeks
    iii. Weight gain 8-12weeks
    b. Remove cow’s milk and soy
    c. EHF if no FTT -> if no response then try amino acid
    d. If presenting with FTT -> amino acid
    e. Resolves by 24-36 months of age
134
Q

Eosinophilic oesophagitis - general

A
  1. Key points
    a. Oesophageal eosinophilic inflammation (+/- gastrointestinal eosinophilc inflammation)
    b. Increased prevalence with time – 22x per 100,000
    c. Triggers – 6 implicated
    i. Cow milk, soy, wheat, egg ? Nuts ? Seafood
    ii. ? Aeroallergens
  2. Clinical manifestations
    a. Infant
    i. Vomiting/gagging with meals
    ii. Food refusal/ aversion
    iii. Persistently irritable baby
    iv. Lack PPI response
    v. +/- poor growth (food refusal; ? more extensive GIT eosinophilia)
    b. Child/adolescent
    i. Vomiting/gagging with meals (gag = cough with meal)
    ii. ‘Fussy eaters’
    iii. Food bolus obstruction + atopic child = eosinophilc oesophagitis until proven otherwise
    iv. Abdominal pain
    v. GER symptoms
  3. Investigations
    a. Endoscopy = trachealisation, furrowing
    b. No role for ssIgE/SPT in predicting food trigger
    c. Current only way to ascertain food trigger is elimination and then re-introduction with repeat scope
  4. Management
    a. Initially if diagnosis, try high dose PPI (2 mg/kg) for 6-8 weeks and re-scope – 25% remission rate
    b. If PPI un-responsive, then management options
    i. Amino acid formula alone (young children)
    ii. Dietary elimination (4-6 food triggers); need dietician
  5. ‘Melbourne diet’ – no dairy, soy, wheat, egg
  6. Other centres – may also eliminate nuts and seafood
    iii. Swallowed flixotide inhaler or budesonide slurry
  7. Higher risk of adrenal suppression with flixotide than budesonide
  8. Slurry budesonide made with Splenda
    c. Re-scope once therapy instituted
    d. If-reintroducing new food trigger, repeat scope to determine success
135
Q

Allergic eosinophilic gastritis - general

A
  1. Key points
    a. Occurs at any age
  2. Clinical manifestations
    a. Chronic/ intermittent abdominal pain
    b. Emesis
    c. Irritability
    d. Poor appetite
    e. FTT
    f. Weight loss
    g. Anaemia
    h. Protein losing enteropathy
    i. Gastroenteropathy
  3. Diagnosis
    a. History
    b. Positive SPT
    c. Serum specific IgE
    d. Biopsy – conclusive diagnosis
  4. Treatment
    a. Not well established
    b. Elimination diet
    c. Elemental diet
136
Q

FPIES - bg, sx

A

Food protein induced enterocolitis syndrome

  1. Key points
    a. 15 per 10,000 infants <2 years old in Australia
    b. Innate immune system activation and remains a clinical diagnosis
    i. Often mistaken for sepsis/ gastroenteritis
    ii. +/- OFC if unsure of diagnosis
    c. No fatalities
    d. Trigger
    i. Rice commonest trigger – 75% react only to one food
    ii. Other common triggers – cow’s milk, soy
    iii. Rare to be triggered by food proteins through breastmilk
  2. Clinical manifestations
    a. Usually present <12 months of age
    b. Typically present 2-4 hours after eating a newly introduced food
    c. Acute
    i. Profuse vomiting every 10-15 minutes (approximately 1-3 hours after ingestion)
    ii. Diarrhoea (approximately 5 hours after ingestion) – some develop diarrhoea (blood +)
    iii. Floppy, pale
    iv. Appear shocked and dehydrated
    v. Hypothermic, hypotensive
    vi. Abdominal distension
    vii. No cutaneous or respiratory features
    d. Chronic
    i. Vomiting
    ii. Diarrhoea
    iii. Lethargy
    iv. Dehydration
    v. Abdo distension
    vi. Weight loss, faltering growth
  3. Natural history
    a. Symptoms resolve with removal of allergen from diet
    b. Usually presents with neonates or infants, ‘outgrown’ by 3 years
    i. Cow’s milk = 90%
    ii. Soy = 25-90%
    iii. Vegetables = 67%
    iv. Oats = 66%
    v. Rice = 40%
    c. 30% go on to develop atopy (cf. allergic proctocolitis where no risk)
    d. Positive IgE predicts protracted course
137
Q

FPIES - ix, rx

A

Food protein induced enterocolitis syndrome

  1. Investigations
    a. Neutrophilia, thrombocytopaenic
    b. Normal ESR/CRP
    c. Hypoalbuminaemia
    d. Gas = metabolic acidosis, methaemoglobinaemia (1/3rd of patients with severe reactions – may be caused by severe intestinal inflammation and reduced catalase activity resulting in increased nitrites)
    e. Stool = faecal leukocytes and eosinophils, frank/occult blood
    f. Negative IgE test to trigger food in most cases
  2. Management
    a. Repeat SPT (especially to egg/ cow milk) prior to challenge due to risk of IgE mediated transformation (ie. negative SPT to positive SPT and IgE food allergy)
    i. Big difference between OFC for IgE mediated allergy and FPIES challenge
    b. FPIES only non-IgE mediated FA where challenges recommended in hospital
    i. +/- IV inserted
    ii. Usually single dose given
    iii. Observed for 4 hours post dose
    iv. If reaction – IV fluids, oral/IV ondansetron
    c. Good prognosis in majority – usually re-challenge in hospital 12 months post-last reaction
  3. Dietary management
    a. Cow’s milk FPIES
    i. Try soy (30-60% cross reaction) but with OFC
    ii. EHF safer
    b. Fish/shellfish FPIES – introduce other fish/shellfish under OFC
    c. Chicken FPIES – avoid all poultry; usually single FPIES
    d. Rice FPIES – wheat corn usually safe, high risk reaction to oats
    e. Some children react to most
138
Q

Cow’s milk allergy - IgE and non-IgE

A

IgE

Anaphylaxis
• Breastfeeding = continue
o Anaphylaxis to CMP via breast milk rare
• First line = amino acid
• Fail to tolerate due to taste -> try under medical supervision
o Extensively hydrolysed
o Soy

Non-Anaphylaxis
• Breastfeeding = continue – do not usually need to restrict CMP unless residual symptoms (eg. eczema)
• First line = soy or novalac rice formula
• Second line = extensively hydrolysed
• Third line = amino acid
• Baked products
o 60-70% of children with egg/cow milk allergy tolerate it in baked form
o Insufficient evidence that exposure results in acceleration to tolerance
o Evidence that improves quality of life
o Unpredictable reaction – challenge done under medical observation
• Use of soy formula
o Soy not recommended until >6 months
 Higher rate of concurrent soy allergy (25% <6 months vs 5% >6 months)
 Nutritional concerns

Non-IgE Mediated
• Breastfeeding = soy and cow’s milk exclusion
• First line = extensively hydrolysed (per lecture)
• Second line = AAF (per guidelines)

139
Q

Multiple food protein intolerance - general

A
•	Pathophysiology unclear
•	Often unsettled infants whilst breastfeeding but worsened on solid food 
•	Need to exclude
o	GIT
o	Metabolic
o	EOIBD if blood ins tools/FTT
•	Symptoms settle on amino acid formula
•	Children outgrow condition over time (3 years+)
140
Q

Immunodeficiency - overview

A
  1. Epidemiology
    a. Acquired immune deficiency more common – malnutrition, HIV, chemotherapy
    b. Primary immune deficiency is rare
    i. Overall Australian prevalence 1/10,000 (Excludes IgA 1/500)
    ii. XLA 1/103,000
    iii. DiGeorge 1/66,000
    iv. SCID 1/66,000
    v. CVID 1/83,000
    vi. CGD1/181,000
    c. Most disorders are autosomal recessive
  2. Indications to consider PID
    a. 2 or more serious respiratory/ bacterial infections within 1 year
    b. >1 episode of sepsis
    c. 8/more ear infections within a year
    d. 2/more months with antibiotics with little effect
    e. 2/more deep seated infection
    f. Recurrent deep skin /organ abscesses
    g. Persistent thrush > 1 year
    h. Need for IV ABX
    i. Infections with unusual pathogens: PJP, Aspergillus, Serratia,
    j. FTT
    k. Chronic diarrhoea, monoliasis, persistent infections after live vaccines
  3. Clinical manifestations
    - B cell: BACTERIAL (esp polysaccharide organisms e.g. Strep, Hib)
    - T cell: VIRAL, fungal (e.g. chronic candidiasis)
    - Phagocytic: poor wound healing, delayed umbi separation
    - Complement: angioedema, Neiserria meningitidis
141
Q

Primary immunodeficiency - screening ix

A

COMPLETE BLOOD COUNT, MANUAL DIFFERENTIAL, AND ERYTHROCYTE SEDIMENTATION RATE
• Absolute lymphocyte count (normal result rules against T-cell defect)
• Absolute neutrophil count (normal result rules against congenital or acquired neutropenia and [usually] both forms of leukocyte adhesion deficiency, in which elevated counts are present even between infections)
• Platelet count (normal result excludes Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome)
• Howell-Jolly bodies (absence rules against asplenia)
• Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (normal result indicates chronic bacterial or fungal infection unlikely)

SCREENING TESTS FOR B-CELL DEFECTS
• Immunoglobulin (Ig) A measurement; if abnormal, IgG and IgM measurement
• Isohemagglutinins
• Antibody titers to blood group substances, tetanus, diphtheria, Haemophilus influenzae, and pneumococcus

SCREENING TESTS FOR T-CELL DEFECTS
• Absolute lymphocyte count (normal result indicates T-cell defect unlikely)
• Flow cytometry to examine for the presence of naïve T cells (CD3+CD45RA+ cells)

SCREENING TESTS FOR PHAGOCYTIC CELL DEFECTS
• Absolute neutrophil count
• Respiratory burst assay

SCREENING TEST FOR COMPLEMENT DEFICIENCY

142
Q

Primary immunodefiiency - T cell summary

A

Age at onset
• Early onset
• Usually 2-6 mo of age

Affected organs	
•	Any type of infection
•	Extensive mucocutaneous candidiasis
•	Respiratory infections
•	Protracted diarrhea
•	FTT

Pathogen
• Bacteria: common GP and GN bacteria and mycobacteria
• Viruses: CMV, EBV, adenovirus, parainfluenza 3, varicella, enterovirus
• Fungi: Candida, PJP

Special features
• GVHD caused by maternal engraftment or nonirradiated blood transfusion
• Postvaccination disseminated BCG or varicella
• Hypocalcaemic tetany in infancy (?DiGeorge)

Investigations
• Lymphocyte count
• Delayed hypersensitivity skin tests
• Flow cytometry

143
Q

Primary immunodeficiency - B cell summary

A
  1. Key points
    a. The most common type of immunodeficiency
    b. Onset 3-6 months after maternal IgG wanes
    c. Common features
    i. Recurrent infections with encapsulated bacteria/ enterovirus
    ii. Sinopulmonary / respiratory infections / otitis media/ conjunctivitis/ diarrhoea

Age at onset
• Onset after maternal antibodies diminish,
• Usually after 5-7 mo of age, later childhood to adulthood

Affected organs
•	Recurrent sinopulmonary infections/ bronchiectasis 
•	Chronic gastrointestinal symptoms
•	Malabsorption
•	Arthritis
•	Enteroviral meningoencephalitis
•	Usually NO growth impairment 

Pathogen
• Bacteria: pneumococci, streptococci, staphylococci, Haemophilus, Campylobacter, Mycoplasma [encapsulated organisms]
• Viruses: enterovirus (X-linked agamma), poliovirus
• Fungi and parasites: giardia, cryptosporidia

Special features
• Autoimmunity
• Lymphoreticular malignancy: lymphoma, thymoma
• Postvaccination paralytic polio

Investigations
•	Ig levels 
•	Protein antigens
•	Protein-conjugated antigens – Hib
•	Polysaccharide 
•	Flow cytometry
  1. Management
    a. Antibiotics
    b. IV / SC immunoglobulin
    i. Aim is to provide missing antibodies, not to raise IgG levels
    ii. Options
  2. IVIG (Intragram P) Q3-4H
  3. SCIG (Evogram) weekly
    iii. Dose = 300-600 mg/kg/month
    iv. Aim for IgG trough or steady state 7-8 g/L
    v. Does not correct IgA deficiency
    vi. Reactions = anaphylaxis (esp if IgA deficiency and have antibodies to IgA)
    c. SCT – more for combined (CD40ligand/ X linked lymphoproliferative)
144
Q

Primary immunodeficiency - granulocyte defect summary

A

Age at onset
• Early onset

Affected organs
•	Skin: abscesses, impetigo, cellulitis
•	Lymph nodes: suppurative adenitis
•	Oral cavity: gingivitis, mouth ulcers
•	Internal organs: abscesses, osteomyelitis

Pathogens
• Bacteria: staphylococci, Pseudomonas, Serratia, Klebsiella, Salmonella
• Fungi and parasites: Candida, Nocardia, Aspergillus

Special features
• Prolonged attachment of umbilical cord
• Poor wound healing

Investigations
•	Neutrophil counts
•	BT die test
•	Chemotaxis assay
•	Myeloperoxidase stain
145
Q

Primary immunodeficiency - complement defect summary

A

Age of onset
• Onset at any age

Affected organs
•	Meningitis
•	Arthritis
•	Septicaemia
•	Recurrent sinopulmonary infections

Pathogens
• Bacteria: pneumococci,
Neisseria [encapsulated organisms]
• No virus/ parasites

Special features
• Autoimmune disorders: SLE, vasculitis, dermatomyositis, scleroderma, GN, angioedema

Investigations
• CH50
• AH50
• C1- inhibitor level and function

146
Q

X-linked agammaglobulinaemia - bg, ix, rx

A

AKA Bruton agammaglobulinaemia

  1. Genetics + pathogenesis
    a. Xq22 – XLA gene = codes for B-cell protein tyrosine kinase (Bruton tyrosine kinase)
    b. BTK = necessary for pre-B-cell expansion and maturation (probably has roles at all stage of B -cell development)
    c. Expression of Btk in cells of myeloid linage is important – boys with XLA often have neutropenia at the height of an acute infection
    d. >500 different mutations have been identified
  2. Investigations
    a. Neutropenia at height of infection
    b. Flow cytometry
    i. Peripheral blood B lymphocytes < 1% (demonstrated on flow cytometry), pre B cells present in bone marrow
    ii. ↑ T cell percentage, normal T cell subset ratios, normal T cell function and thymus
    c. Immunoglobulin levels
    i. IgG, IgA, IgM, IgE <95% centile for age and race
    ii. <100 mg/dL
    iii. Isohaemagluttinins (natural Ab to type A and B polysaccharide antigens) absent
    iv. Antibodies to vaccines absent
    d. Intestinal biopsy: absence of plasma cells
    e. Prenatal testing – can be performed on male fetuses if family has known mutation
  3. Management
    a. Lifelong IVIG (IV/ Subcut)
    b. ABX
147
Q

X-linked agammaglobulinaemia - sx

A

AKA Bruton agammaglobulinaemia

  1. Clinical manifestations
    a. Well until 6-9 months of life (maternally IgG antibodies)
    b. Lymphoid hypoplasia on examination – no palpable lymph nodes
    c. Improve with ABX/ immunoglobulin therapy
    d. Neutropenia responsive to GCSF

e. Pathogens
i. Recurrent infections with extracellular pyogenic organisms – Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae
ii. Viral infection normally handled EXCEPT hepatitis + enterovirus
1. CNS infections with echovirus and coxsackie virus
2. Echovirus associated myositis
iii. Mycoplasma infections
iv. Chronic fungal infections
v. Paralysis with poliovirus

f. Type of infection
i. Sinusitis
ii. Otitis media
iii. Pneumonia
iv. Sepsis or meningitis

g. Counterintuitive association with autoimmunity
i. Rheumatoid arthritis
ii. Sarcoid
iii. Lymphoreticular malignancy

148
Q

Common variable immunodeficiency - bg

A

Uptodate:

Common variable immunodeficiency (CVID) is a heterogeneous disorder involving immune dysfunction of B and T cells and dendritic cells. The characteristic immunologic defect is the inability of B cells to differentiate into plasma cells capable of secreting all immunoglobulin types.

Definition — CVID is defined by the following:
●Age-specific reduction in serum concentrations of immunoglobulin (Ig)G, in combination with low levels of IgA and/or IgM (at least two standard deviations below mean for age)
●Poor or absent response to immunizations and/or absent isohemagglutinins and/or low switched B cells (<70 percent of age-related normal value)
●Absence of profound T cell immunodeficiency
●Absence of any other defined immunodeficiency state

  1. Key points
    a. Syndrome characterised by hypogammaglobulinaemia with phenotypically NORMAL B cells
    b. Also called ‘acquired hypogammaglobulinaemia’ due to the generally later age of onset of infections
    c. Experience similar infections as XLA however echovirus and meningoencephalitis is RARE
    e. Normal numbers of circulating lymphocytes - do not differentiate into Ig producing cells when stimulated
149
Q

Common variable immunodeficiency - sx

A

a. Looks similar to XLA except echovirus/ meningoencephalitis is rare
b. Onset is later – late childhood/ adulthood
c. FHX autoimmunity, immunodeficiency, malignancy
d. Normal tonsils/ lymph nodes
e. Splenomegaly in 25%

f. Recurrent infection
i. Pathogens
1. Encapsulated bacteria
ii. Type of infection
1. Pneumonia – can develop bronchiectasis
2. Sinusitis
3. Otitis media
4. Diarrhoea – bacterial, giardiais
5. Meningitis with encapsulated organisms

g. Pulmonary manifestations = 85%
i. Pulmonary airway obstructive disease

h. Lymphoproliferative and granulomatous manifestations
i. Granulomatous interstitial lung disease (GILD)
ii. Lymphadenopathy
iii. Splenomegaly

i. Autoimmune disease = 25%
i. Examples = alopecia areata, haemolytic anaemia, gastric atrophy, thrombocytopaenia, pernicious anaemia, scleroderma, vasculitis, thymoma

j. Risk of malignancy
i. Increased risk of lymphoreticular malignancy - 8%

k. Malabsorption
i. Sprue like syndrome: steatorrhoea, malabsorption, PLE
ii. Nodular follicular lymphoid hyperplasia
iii. Giardia

l. Other
i. Asthma/ rhinitis
ii. IgA deficiency – often in first degree relatives ?common genetic basis

150
Q

Common variable immunodeficiency - ix, rx

A
  1. Investigations (variable spectrum)
    a. Normal B cell levels (can be reduced)
    b. Immunoglobulins – marked decrease of IgG and IgA +/- low IgM
    c. Poor Ab response to vaccines and/or absent isohaemagglutinins
    d. Low switched memory B cells (<70% of age-related normal values)
    e. Normal T cell numbers, reversed CD4:8 ratio
    f. Normal T cell proliferative responses in most (can decline with time)
  2. Management
    a. IVIG – will not reverse chronic lung disease
    b. ABX
    c. Physiotherapy/ drainage
151
Q

Selective IgA deficiency - bg

A

Uptodate: Selective immunoglobulin A (IgA) deficiency (sIgAD) (MIM 137100) may be defined as the isolated deficiency of serum IgA (ie, in the setting of normal serum levels of immunoglobulin G [IgG] and immunoglobulin M [IgM]) in an individual older than four years of age in whom other causes of hypogammaglobulinemia have been excluded.

  1. Key points
    a. <10 mg/dL of serum and secretory IgA
    b. The most common immunodeficiency disorder, up to 0.33% (1/500)
    c. Other causes
    i. Drugs – phenytoin / carbamazepine, valproic acid, d-penicillamine, gold, sulfasalazine, hydroxychloroquine, NSAIDs
    ii. Congenital rubella/ CMV
    iii. Association with other immunodeficiency – ataxia telangiectasia/ DiGeorge/ CVID
    d. Associations
    i. Allergic disease
    ii. Coeliac disease
    iii. Autoimmune disease – SLE/ RA/ Thyroiditis/ Addison’s
    iv. Anti-IgA antibodies in 33%
  2. Genetics + pathogenesis
    a. Basic defect unknown
    b. Phenotypically normal B cells
    d. Familial clusters of IgA deficiency and CVID
152
Q

Selectie IgA deficiency - sx/ix/rx

A
  1. Clinical manifestations
    a. MOST are asymptomatic
    b. Type of infections
    i. Respiratory
    ii. Gastrointestinal
    iii. Urological
    c. Pathogens = as for other Ab deficiency syndromes
    i. Intestinal giardiasis is common
    d. Other features
    i. Coeliac like syndrome – may or may not respond to gluten free diet
    ii. Increased risk of autoimmune disease + malignancy
    e. ↑ autoantibodies, autoimmune disease and malignancy
    f. Can have anaphylactic reactions to IgA products – need washed blood
  2. Investigations
    a. Immunoglobulin levels
    i. IgA < 0.07 g/L in patient over 4 (NOT detectable)
    ii. High incidence of IgG2 deficiency
    iii. Other immunoglobulin levels normal
    b. Serum antibodies to IgA in 45%
    c. Worth checking ab function
  3. Management
    a. IVIG NOT indicated for isolated IgA deficiency (not useful and may have risk of anaphylaxis)
    b. Transfusion
    i. Serum antibodies to IgA in 45%
  4. If IgE subtype – can cause fatal anaphylactic reaction following administration of blood products containing IgA
  5. 5-10x washed donor erythrocytes or blood products from IgA deficient individuals should be transfused
    ii. Many IVIG preparations contain enough IgA to cause anaphylactic reaction
  6. Should use >99% IgG IVIG
153
Q

IgG subclass deficiency - general

A
•	Key points 
o	Normal total IgG serum concentration but deficient subclass
o	IgG2 deficiency may be associated with IgA/ CVID 
o	Most patients with absent/ very low IgG2 have IgA deficiency 
o	Some patients go on to develop CVID 
•	Clinical manifestations 
o	Biologic significance unclear – some individuals with normal IgG subclasses are clinically unaffected 
o	May not make specific antibodies to protein and polysaccharide antigens 
o	IVIG should not be administered unless shown to have a deficiency of Ab to a broad array of Ag
154
Q

Transient hypogammaglobulinaemia of infancy - general

A
  1. Key points
    a. Persistence of normal nadir of Ig seen at birth
    b. Features
    i. Normal Ab production to challenge
    ii. Normal growth patterns
    iii. Lack of opportunistic infections – may have recurrent respiratory viral infections
    c. Delayed synthesis of immunoglobulins until after maternal IgG catabolized
    d. Resolves spontaneously after 4 years (by definition)
    e. Specific antibody production is normal
    f. Serious infections rare, can be seen in FHx of SCID
    g. More common in males 60%, associated with atopy
  2. Treatment
    a. Ab prophylaxis
    b. Rarely IVIG 3-6 months
    c. Monitor IgG, tends to increase with time
155
Q

Secondary antibody deficiency - examples/causes

A
•	Protein loss
o	Protein losing enteropathy
o	Intestinal lymphangiectasia 
o	Chylothorax
o	Nephrotic syndrome

• Drugs
o Steroid
o Rituximab

156
Q

Specific antibody deficiency - general

A

Specific antibody deficiency (SAD) describes an inadequate antibody response to polysaccharide antigens in an individual with normal responses to protein antigens, normal serum levels of immunoglobulins (Ig), and normal IgG subclass concentrations. It is believed to be the most common form of antibody disorder in older children and adults with recurrent rhinosinusitis and/or bronchopulmonary infections.

Pathogenesis unclear.

Recurrent or severe rhinosinusitis and/or bronchopulmonary infections are the primary presenting disorder.

The diagnosis of SAD is made in a patient older than two years of age with recurrent or severe sinopulmonary infections, in whom the only identifiable abnormality is a deficient response to polysaccharide vaccines. Other measurements of immunologic function, including serum levels of IgG, IgG subclasses, IgA, IgM, and IgE, should be normal, and responses to protein vaccines should be normal. In addition, no other primary or secondary immune disorders should be present. The diagnosis is not appropriate in a child younger than two years, because deficient polysaccharide responses are commonly seen and not considered abnormal.

Treatment of patients with SAD includes the following:
●Immunization with conjugate vaccines
●Aggressive management of other conditions predisposing to recurrent sinopulmonary infections (eg, asthma, allergic rhinitis, chronic rhinosinusitis)
●Increased vigilance and appropriate antibiotic therapy for infections
●Prophylactic antibiotics
●Intravenous or subcutaneous immunoglobulin replacement

157
Q

X-linked lymphoproliferative disease - bg

A

AKA Duncan disease

  1. Key points
    a. Rare, severe dysregulation of the immune system
    b. Usually occurs in response to EBV
    c. Rare, 1 in 3 million males
  2. Clinical presentation
    a. Presentation is usually with the first exposure to EBV, usually <5yrs (2.5yrs most common)
    b. Well prior to then
    c. Outcomes
    i. HLH
    ii. Lymphoma
    iii. Dysgammaglobulinaemia
  3. Genetics + pathogenesis
    a. XLR trait with clinical hallmark of inadequate response to EBV
    b. Defect in SLAM associated protein (SAP) in 60% - acts on particularly T and NK cells, but also B cells to mobilize cellular and humoral defenses
158
Q

X-linked lymphoproliferative disease - sx, ix, rx

A
  1. Clinical picture (3 types)
    a. Fulminant EBV infection (often fatal) – 60%
    i. Thrombocytopenia, anaemia, hepatic dysfunction, meningoencephalitis
    ii. Secondary HLH (Haemophagocytic lymphiohistiocytosis) can also be triggered by EBV
    iii. Coinciding XLD and HLH is a poor prognostic feature
    b. Lymphomas (especially B cell lineage) – 30%
    i. Impaired immune surveillance by T cells
    ii. Often extranodal disease, especially ileocaecal
    c. Acquired hypogammaglobulinaemia/ Dysgammaglobulinaemia – 20-30%
    i. Best prognosis
    ii. low IgG, high IgA and high IgM
    iii. Other: vasculitis, aplastic anaemia, lymphoid granulomatosis
  2. Investigations
    a. Diagnosis difficult due to variable clinical picture
    b. B and T cell numbers normal but function is impaired
    c. IgG low, IgM, IgA may be high
    d. Anaemia, thrombocytopaenia, abnormal LFTs
    e. Dx: gene testing (FISH for SAP)
  3. Treatment
    a. Avoid infections
    b. Manage EBV infection: anti-viral, IVIG, rituximab
    c. HLH = need BMT
    d. Lymphoma = chemo +/- RTx
    e. Prevention = rituximab (anti-CD20) wipes out B cells can control primary infection / prevent infection pre BMT
    f. Curative = BMT
  4. Prognosis
    a. In 1995; 70% die by 10yrs, 100% by 40yrs
    b. Now, overall survival ~70%
159
Q

Cellular immune defects - v brief points

A
  • More severe than antibody disorders
  • Rarely survive beyond infancy
  • Thymic transplantation or HSCT treatment of choice
160
Q

DiGeorge syndrome - general (imm perspective)

A
  1. Classification
    a. Partial DiGeorge = variable hypoplasia of the thymus and parathyroid glands
    b. Complete DiGeorge = total aplasia
    i. <1% of patients with DiGeorge syndrome
    ii. 1/3 have associated CHARGE syndrome – mutations in CHD7 gene found in 60-65% of individuals with CHARGE syndrome
  2. Genetics + Pathogenesis
    a. Microdeletion of sequences from 22q11 - main problem is error in T box transcription factor TBX1
    b. Dysmorphogenesis of 3rd + 4th pharyngeal pouches -> hypoplasia/ aplasia of the thymus + parathyroid glands
  3. Clinical manifestations (immune)
    a. Complete DiGeorge
    i. Resembles SCID – opportunistic infections including PJP, GVHD from nonirradiated blood transfusions
    b. Partial DiGeorge – few infections, normal growth
    c. Associated defects – R sided aortic arch, oesophageal atresia, bifid uvula, congenital heart disease (conotruncal/ atrial + ventricular septal defects), short philtrum
  4. Investigations
    a. Absolute lymphocytes – moderately low for age
    b. T cell counts decreased – correlate with the degree of thymic hypoplasia
    c. Mitogen stimulation – reduced response
    d. Immunoglobulin levels usually normal
    i. IgA may be reduced
    ii. IgE may be elevated
    e. All children with primary hypoparathyroidism, CHARGE, truncus/ interrupted aortic arch should be investigated
  5. Treatment
    a. Non SCID patients: prophylactic abx +/- immunoglobulin replacement
    b. Thymic transplantation
    c. OR bone marrow transplantation
161
Q

Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis - ddx

A

• Syndrome characterised by impaired immune responsiveness to Candida

•	Conditions 
o	APECED/ APS 1
o	CARD9 mutation 
o	HyperIgE syndrome 
o	Autosomal recessive deficiency of IL-17 receptor A (IL17RA) chain 

• Clinical manifestations
o Symptoms begin in the first month of life or as late as the 2nd decade of life
o Chronic severe Candida skin and mucous membrane infection
o Rarely develop systemic Candida disease

• Treatment
o Systemic azoles

162
Q

APECED/APS1 - general

A

= autoimmune polyendocrinopathy candidiasis ecto- dermal dystrophy OR autoimmune polyglandular syndrome 1

  1. Genetics
    a. Mutation in Autoimmune Regulator (AIRE) gene
  2. Pathogenesis
    - AIRE allows expression of autoantigens during T cell development/in thymus -> mutation prevents this, leading to propagation of auto-reactive T cells (would normally be eliminated)
  3. Clinical manifestations
    a. Mucocutaneous candidiasis  hypoparathyroidism  adrenal failure
    b. Classic triad
    i. Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
  4. Oral cavity, nails, skin, less frequently esophagus, vagina and gastrointestinal tract
  5. Presenting features in 60%, present in all patients by age 40
  6. Candida albicans most common infection
    ii. Hypoparathyroidism
  7. Most common endocrine abnormality and second most common feature of AIRE
  8. Presenting feature in 30%, >80% eventually affected
  9. Results in hypocalcaemia and hypoMg – can result in seizures
    iii. Adrenal failure
  10. Third most common features
  11. Occurs in 5% at presentation, but >60% by age 115

c. Other manifestations
i. Other endocrinopathies
ii. Other autoimmune manifestations
iii. Complications due to chronic Candida infection
iv. Antibody deficiency to polysaccharide antigens
v. Other oral and gastrointestinal manifestations
vi. Other ocular features
vii. Pulmonary disease, interstitial nephritis, encephalopathy

163
Q

Severe combined immunodeficiency - bg

A
  1. Key points
    a. Combined immunodeficiency syndrome = disturbance in the development and function of T and B cells
    b. Termed ‘severe’ if result in early death from overwhelming infection, particularly in the first year of life
    c. Various mutations that lead to absence of adaptive immune function +/- lack of NK cells
  2. Pathogenesis
    a. Mutation in 1 of 13 known genes that encode components of immune system for lymphoid development
    b. In some cases, results in only T cell deficiency; however, T cell dysfunction precludes effective humoral immunity as B cells require T cells to produce antibodies
    c. NK cells develop via a pathway distinct from B an T cells; present in 50% of patients with SCID and may provide a degree of protection against bacterial and viral infections
  3. Genetics
    a. X-linked
    i. Majority of cases X-linked
    ii. Most common mutation IL2RG – encodes IL-2 receptor (common cytokine receptor)
    b. Autosomal recessive
    i. Mutations include
  4. JAK3
  5. IL-7RA
  6. RAG1 and RAG2
  7. DCLRE1C
  8. ADA
    c. Unknown mutation in 25% of cases
164
Q

Severe combined immunodeficiency - sx

A
  1. Clinical manifestations
    a. Clinical presentation
    i. Severe infections
    ii. Chronic diarrhoea
    iii. FTT
    b. Infections
    i. Persistent mucocutaneous candidiasis
    ii. Infections with common viral pathogens – adenovirus, CMV, EBV, rotavirus, norovirus, RSV, VZV
    iii. Opportunistic infections with non-pathogenic organisms – PJP
    iv. Attenuated vaccine organisms – polio vaccine virus, rotavirus, varicella, BCG
    c. GVHD
    i. Transfusions of blood products containing viable lymphocytes
    ii. Transplacental passage of alloreactive maternal T cells
  2. Classification
Classic SCID
•	Present in infancy
•	Persistent viral respiratory +/- gastrointestinal infection
•	PJP
•	Disseminated BCG
•	FTT
•	Superficial candidiasis
•	Absent lymphoid tissue
•	Absent Ig
•	Absent T lymphocytes
Omenn Syndrome 
i.	Most commonly caused by RAG1/ RAG2 mutations 
ii.	Due to abnormal T cells proliferating and accumulating in skin 
•	Present in infancy 
•	Erythroderma
•	Alopecia
•	Hepatosplenomegaly
•	Massive lymphadenopathy
•	Inflammatory pneumonitis/ enteritis
•	Raised IgE
•	Eosinophilia
•	Lymphocytosis
- recurrent skin infections
Atypical SCID 
•	Present >12 months
•	Recurrent, severe, prolonged viral infections
•	Bronchiectasis
•	Autoimmune cytopenias
•	FTT 
•	Granulomatous cutaneous lesions
•	EBV-associated lymphoproliferation
•	Partial or restricted antigen specific Ab responses
•	Lymphopaenia
165
Q

Severe combined immunodeficiency - ix

A

a. Screening = TREC
i. T cell receptor excision circle – biomarker of naïve T cells;
ii. Formation of TREC from excised DNA occurs during the VDJ recombination of TCR in the thymus
- will be low in SCID (low numbers circulating T cells) but also low in other disorders of T cells e.g. DiGeorge

b. Imaging = Absence of thymic shadow on CXR
c. Bloods
i. Low absolute lymphocyte count
ii. Abnormalities of lymphocyte subpopulations
iii. T cell mitogen response extremely low (PHA test)
d. Histological features
i. Small thymuses – fail to descend, have no thymocytes, no corticomedullary distinction of Hassal corpuscles
ii. Follicular and paracortical areas of spleen depleted of lymphocytes
iii. Lymph nodes, tonsils, adenoids and Peyer patches absent or underdeveloped
e. Antenatal diagnosis
i. Lymphocyte count of cord blood
ii. Do NOT do specific gene testing unless know specific mutation

166
Q

Severe combined immunodeficiency - rx, prog

A
  1. Treatment
    a. Protective measures
    i. Mother should receive booster vaccine
    ii. Protective isolation
    iii. Prophylaxis – PJP, fungus
    iv. IVIG replacement
    v. Avoidance of live vaccines
    vi. Blood products – irradiated, leukodepleted and CMV negative
    vii. No breast feeding
    viii. Nutrition
    ix. Aggressive treatment of infection eg. CMV
    b. HSCT
  2. Prognosis = Fatal in first year of life unless HSCT
167
Q

Combined immunodeficiency syndrome - general

A
  1. Key points
    a. Distinguished from SCID by presence of low but NOT absent T cell function
    b. Usually survive longer than infants with SCID – but still FTT and die early in life
    c. Diverse genetic causes
  2. Clinical manifestations
    a. Recurrent or chronic pulmonary infections
    b. FTT
    c. Oral or cutaneous candidiasis
    d. Chronic diarrhoea
    e. Recurrent skin infections
    f. GN bacterial sepsis
    g. UTI
    h. Severe varicella in infancy
  3. Investigations
    a. Neutropenia + eosinophilia common
    b. Serum Ig may be normal or elevated
Conditions
•	Hyper IgM syndrome
•	Wiskott-Aldrich
•	Ataxia-telangiectasia
•	DiGeorge syndrome
•	Nijmegen breakage syndrome 
•	PNP deficiency 
•	MHC I and II deficiency 
•	STAT 1 deficiency 
•	Cartilage hair hypoplasia
168
Q

Hyper IgM Syndrome - general

A
  1. Key points
    a. Genetically heterogenous
    b. Characterised by normal or elevated serum IgM levels, low or absent IgG, IgA and IgE serum levels
    c. Defect in class switching recombination (CSR) process
  2. Genetics
    - Multiple (CD40/CD40L, NEMO, AID, UNG)

b. Clinical manifestations (variable between different types above)
i. Small tonsils, no palpable lymph nodes
ii. Profound neutropenia
iii. Infection
1. Recurrent pyogenic infections by 1-2 years of life – otitis media, sinusitis, pneumonia, tonsillitis
2. Impaired T cell interactions with monocytes/ macrophages -> PJP, cryptosporidiosis, CMV
a. Marked susceptibility to PJP
iv. Malignancy + autoimmunity

d. Management
i. Very poor prognosis without treatment
ii. Avoidance of live vaccines
iii. Avoidance of cryptosporidium
iv. Stem cell transplant early
v. Monthly infusion with IVIG / use of G-CSF for those who are neutropenic

169
Q

Purine nucleoside phosphorylase deficiency - general

A

Purine nucleoside phosphorylase (PNP) deficiency (MIM #613179) is a rare, autosomal-recessive immunodeficiency. It is characterized by progressive immune abnormalities ranging from severe to nonsevere combined immunodeficiency (table 1) and neurologic symptomatology that includes ataxia, developmental delay, and spasticity. Autoimmunity, especially autoimmune hemolytic anemia, is also frequently present.

• Point mutation in PNP gene 14q13
• Like ADA deficiency but no physical / skeletal abnormalities
• Clinical manifestations
o Usually less severe but can present as SCID
o 2/3 have neurologic abnormalities
o 1/3 have autoimmune disease
o Death from generalised vaccinia, varicella, lymphosarcoma, or GVHD
• Investigations
o Serum and urinary urate DEFICIENT
o Lymphopenia with normal NK cells
o B cell function may be near normal

170
Q

Cartilage hair hypoplasia - general

A
  1. Key points
    a. Unusual form of short-limbed dwarfism + frequent infections
    b. Predominantly occurs in Amish population
    c. Associated conditions
    i. Deficient erythrogenesis
    ii. Hirschsprung disease
    iii. Malignancy
  2. Genetics + pathogenesis
    a. AR
    d. Decreased number of T cell and defective T cell proliferation
  3. Clinical manifestations
    a. Physical
    i. Short pudgy hands, redundant skin
    ii. Hyperextensible joins
    iii. Fine/ light hair and eyebrows
    iv. Bones – scalloping, sclerotic or cystic changes
    b. Immune dysfunction -> frequent infections
    i. Defective Ab mediate immunity
    ii. CID = most common
    iii. SCID
  4. Investigations
    a. Cytopenias
171
Q

Schimke immune osseous dysplasia - general

A

• AR
• Mutation in SMARCAL1 – involved in chromatin remodeling
• Features
o Short stature, spondilo-epiphyseal dysplasia
o Typical facies
o Hx of IUGR
o Nephropathy with steroid resistant nephrotic syndrome
o Cerebral ischaemic
o Develop bacterial, viral and fungal infections

172
Q

Defective expression of MHC complex antigens - general

A

MHC I Antigen Deficiency = Bare Lymphocyte Syndrome
• Rare
• Clinical manifestations
o Milder phenotype than SCID
o Sera contains normal quantities of MHC class I antigens + beta-2 microglobulin
 BUT MHC I not detected on any cells in the body
 Deficiency of CD8 but NOT CD4 T cells

MHC II Antigen Deficiency
• Often North African descent
• Not as severe as SCID
• Clinical manifestations
o Present in early infancy
o Persistent diarrhoea – cryptosporidiosis, enterovirus
o Oral candidiasis
o Bacterial pneumonia
o PJP
o Septicaemia
• Investigations
o Low CD4 T cells, normal/ elevated CD 8 cells
o Hypogammaglobulinemic  impaired antigen specific responses due to absence of APC molecules
o Lymphocytes have normal response to mitogen, no response to antigen

173
Q

Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome - general

A
  1. Genetics + pathogenesis
    a. X linked
    c. Codes for WASP protein
    d. Impaired humoral responses to polysaccharide antigens – diminished isohaemagglutinins, poor or absent Ab response after immunisation with polysaccharide vaccines
  2. Clinical manifestations (TIME = thrombocytopenia, inmmunodeficiency, malignancy, eczema)
    a. Immune deficiency
    i. Otitis media, pneumonia meningitis and sepsis – polysaccharide capsules eg. strep pnuemo
    ii. PJP
    iii. Herpesviruses
    b. Bleeding diathesis
    i. Thrombocytopenic purpura, with normal appearing megakarocytes but small defective platelets
    ii. Prolonged bleeding from circumcision or bloody diarrhoea
    c. Malignancy
    d. Eczema
  3. Natural history
    a. Present in first year of life
    b. Survival beyond teens is rare
    c. Infections, bleeding and EBV-associated malignancies major cause of death
  4. Investigations
    a. IgG2 normal
    b. Highly variable concentration of albumin, IgG, IgA and IgM
    c. % T cells moderately reduced
    d. Lymphocyte response to mitogens variably depressed
  5. Treatment
    a. Monthly IVIG
174
Q

Ataxia-telangiectasia - general

A
  1. Genetics + pathogenesis
    a. Autosomal
    b. ATM gene defect (ataxia telangiectasia mutation)
  2. Clinical features
    a. Cerebella ataxia
    i. Evident soon after children start to walk
    ii. Progresses until confined to wheelchair by age 10-12 years
    b. Oculocutaneous telangiectasias
    i. Develop age 3-6 years
    c. Chronic sinuopulmonary disease
    d. High incidence of malignancy
    e. Variable humoral and cellular immunodeficiency
    i. Selective IgA deficiency most common
  3. Investigations
    a. Depressed response to T / B cell mitogens
    b. Low CD 3 and CD4 T cells
    c. Low IgA, IgE and IgM
    d. Low IgG2 or total IgG
    e. Progressive lymphopenia with antibody deficiency
    f. Hypoplastic thymus with poor organization, lacks Hassal corpuscles
  4. Natural history
    a. Death normally early adulthood
175
Q

Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome - bg, rx

A
  1. Pathogenesis
    a. Abnormal lymphocyte apoptosis resulting in polyclonal population of T cells (double-negative T cells)
    i. Express CD3 and alpha/beta antigen receptors
    ii. Do NOT have CD4 or CD8 receptors
    b. Respond poorly to antigens or mitogens
    c. Do not produce growth or survival factors (IL-2)
    d. Caused by mutations in the Fas pathway
  2. Genetics
    a. Fas gene most common, usually produces a cell surface receptor which induces apoptosis when stimulated -> mutation causes persistent survival and immune dysregulation
  3. Treatment
    a. Immunosuppression
    b. Splenectomy if hypersplenism
    c. Treatment of malignancy
    d. SCT
176
Q

Autoimmune lymphoproliferative syndrome - sx, dx

A
  1. Diagnostic features
    a. Required
    i. Chronic non-malignant lymphoproliferation (>6 months lymphadenopathy and/or splenomegaly)
    ii. Elevated peripheral blood double-negative T cells
    b. Accessory
    i. Primary
  2. Defective in vitro Fas-mediated apoptosis
  3. Somatic or germline mutations in ALPS causative genes – FAS, FASL, CASP10
    ii. Secondary
  4. Elevated biomarkers
    a. Plasma soluble FASL > 200 pg/ml
    b. Plasma IL-10 >20 pg/ml
    c. Plasma or serum vitamin B12 >1500 ng/L
    d. Plasma IL-18 >500 pg/ml
  5. Immunohistochemical findings consistent with ALPS as determined by an experienced histopathologist
  6. Autoimmune cytopaenias and polyclonal hypergammaglobulinaemia
  7. Family history of ALPS or non-malignant lymphoproliferation
  8. Clinical manifestations
    a. Autoimmunity
    i. Anaemia Coombs-positive haemolytic anaemia, thrombocytopaenia, neutropenia
    ii. Other autoimmune features – urticaria, uveitis, GN, hepatitis, vasculitis, GN, panniculitis, arthritis, CNS involvement
    b. Chronic persistent or recurrent lymphadenopathy
    c. Splenomegaly + hepatomegaly (50%)
    i. May result in hypersplenism with cytopaenias
    d. Hypergammaglobulinaemia (IgG, IgA)
    e. Malignancy
    i. Hodgkin + NHL
    ii. Solid tissue tumours
  9. Natural history
    a. Most patients present in the first year of life
    b. Usually symptomatic by age 5
177
Q

IPEX - general

A

= Immunodysregulation polyendocrinopathy enteropathy X-linked

  1. Key points
    a. Rare, often fatal, X linked syndrome
    b. Typically presents in infancy with classic triad
    i. Enteropathy = results in life-threatening chronic diarrhoea
    ii. Autoimmune endocrinopathy = neonatal type 1 diabetes or thyroiditis
    iii. Dermatitis = usually eczematous
  2. Genetics + pathogenesis
    a. Mutations in the gene for transcription factor FOXP3 – fundamental to the function of Tregs
  3. Clinical manifestations
    a. Autoimmune
    i. Endocrine
  4. Type 1 diabetes mellitus – most common with onset generally during first year of life
  5. Hypo or hyperthyroidism
    ii. Chronic diarrhoea due to autoimmune enteropathy
    iii. Immune-mediated cytopaenias
    b. Dermatitis – usually eczematous
    c. Infection – severe bacterial infections (meningitis, sepsis, pneumonia, osteomyelitis)
    d. Other
    i. Lymphadenopathy and splenomegaly
    ii. Severe food allergies
    iii. Nephritis
    iv. Failure to thrive
    v. Developmental delay
  6. Investigations
    a. Diagnosis established by mutational analysis of FOXP3 gene
  7. Management
    a. Immune suppression
    b. Dietary modification to avoid food allergies
    c. HSCT – only curative therapy
  8. Prognosis
    a. Untreated – infants with IPEX usually die in early childhood
178
Q

Neutrophil defects - overview, bg

A
  1. Key points
    a. Interaction with pathogen
    i. Direct
    ii. Indirect = opsonized microbes by Fc receptors or complement receptors
    b. Phagosome develops from fusion of neutrophil granules
    c. Results in targeted delivery of antimicrobial molecules + ROS
    d. Neutrophils also produce NETS – release protease components to trap pathogens
  2. Classification
    a. Reduced number of neutrophils
    i. Increased neutrophil destruction
  3. Drug induced – PTU/ penicillin/quinine
  4. Immune neutropenia
    ii. Defects of neutrophil differentiation/ production
  5. Cyclical neutropenia = ELANE mutation
  6. Kostmann syndrome = HAX1 mutation
  7. Glycogen storage disease
    b. Defects of motility
    i. LAD 1-3
    ii. Shwachman Diamond syndrome
    c. Defects of respiratory burst
    i. Chronic granulomatous disease
    ii. Chediak – Higashi syndrome
    iii. Specific granule deficiency
    iv. Myeloperoxidase deficiency
179
Q

Neutrophil defects - overview, sx, ix

A
  1. Clinical manifestations
    a. Recurrent deep tissue infections
    i. Lymphadenitis
    ii. Pneumonia
    iii. Osteomyelitis
    iv. Liver abscesses
    b. Unusual or resistant infections
    i. Staphylococcus aureus
    ii. Pseudomonas
    iii. Klebsiella
    iv. Aspergillus
    v. Burkholderia
    vi. Candida
    vii. Nocardia
    c. Periodontal disease or tooth loss
    d. Omphalitis
  2. History + examination
    a. Family history of recurrent infection
    b. Gingivitis
    c. Chronic diarrhoea
    d. Infections with absence of neutrophilic infiltration
    e. Elevated CRP/ESR
    f. Splenomegaly or hepatomegaly
    g. Moderate lymphadenopathy
    h. Inflammatory anaemia
  3. Investigations
    a. FBE, ESR – exclude lymphopaenia
    b. Immunoglobulins
    c. T+ B cell quantification + subsets
    d. PHA stimulation
    e. Response to tetanus immunisation
    f. Neutrophil evaluation
    i. NBT slide test for
    ii. Tests of oxidative metabolism
    iii. Adhesion molecule expression
    iv. Other – chemotaxis, phagocytosis, bactericidal assays
180
Q

Leukocyte adhesion deficiency - general

A

• Neutrophils arrive at site of inflammation within 2-4 hours after microbial invasion
• All autosomal recessive disorders of leukocyte dysfunction
• Three forms: LAD-1, LAD-2, LAD-3
Constellation of: leukocytosis/neutrophilia, recurrent bacterial infections, absent pus/poor wound healing, delayed separation of umbi/omphalitis

  1. Clinical manifestations (general)
    a. Recurrent, indolent bacterial infections – staph, enteric gram negative , candida, aspergillus
    b. Delayed umbilical separation (>21d), omphalitis
    c. Skin/ mouth / respiratory tract/ lower GI/ genital mucosa infection (but pus does not form)
  2. Investigations
    a. Leukocytosis ++++
    b. Decreased chemotaxis
    c. Flow cytometry = measurements of CD11b/CD18 expression in stimulated and unstimulated neutrophils
    d. LAD-2 = looking for C15 on neutrophils
  3. Treatment
    a. Allogeneic HSCT if severe LAD-1/ LAD-3
    i. Complicated by graft rejection
    b. Bactrim prophylaxis
    c. Some LAD-2 patients respond to fucose (spelt correctly!) supplementation
    d. Ustekinumab – blockade of IL-23 and IL-12 reduced gingivitis + ulcers
  4. Prognosis
    a. Severe deficiency results in death in infancy
    b. Lifelong susceptibility to severe infection
181
Q

Chediak-Higashi syndrome - general

A

Constellation: defective degranulation, albinism, neuropathy, bleeding diathesis

  1. Key points
    a. Rare disorder
    b. Defect in granule morphogenesis – results in large granules in multiple tissues
    c. All cells have oversized/ dysmorphic lysosomes/ granules (neutrophils, melanosomes, neurologic cells)
  2. Clinical manifestations
    a. Light hair
    b. Photophobia with rotary nystagmus
    c. Frequent infections (S aureus most common)
    d. Neuropathy (in teens)
    e. Bleeding diathesis (impaired platelet function)
    f. Short stature
  3. Key complication = HLH (‘accelerated phase’)
    a. Pancytopenia, high fever and lymphohistiocytic infiltration of liver/ spleen and lymph nodes
    b. Neutropenia
    c. Associated with secondary bacterial + viral infections
    d. Occurs in 85% of patients – usually results in death
  4. Investigations
    a. Large inclusions on nucleated blood cells (Wright stain/ peroxidase stain)
    i. May need to do BMA – can be missed on peripheral smear
    b. Progressive neutropenia
    c. Abnormal platelet, neutrophil and NK function
  5. Treatment
    a. High dose ascorbic acid – improves clinical status of children in stable phase
    b. HSCT only curative treatment
    c. If accelerated phase (HLS) -> HSCT required to fix haematopoietic and immunologic function
182
Q

Myeloperoxidase deficiency - general

A
  1. Key points
    a. One of the most common inherited disorders of phagocytes
    b. 1/2000 individuals
  2. Genetics + Pathogenesis
    a. AR
    b. Defect in MPO gene
    c. MPO = green heme protein in lysozymes of neutrophils and monocytes (makes pus green!)
  3. Clinical manifestations
    a. Usually clinically silent
  4. Treatment
    a. No specific therapy required
    b. Antifungal treatment only – for candida cover (can rarely result in disseminated candida)
    c. Excellent prognosis
183
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease - bg, sx

A
  1. Key points
    a. Neutrophils and monocytes have defect in microbicidal oxygen metabolism (NADPH oxidase burst)
    b. Incidence 1/250,000
  2. Genetics + pathogenesis
    a. Mostly X linked but multiple mutations
    b. Leads to defect in generation of microbicidal oxygen metabolites – NADPH oxidase complex, required for oxygen dependent intracellular killing mechanism
    i. Results in the ability of phagocytes (neutrophils, macrophages, monocytes) to destroy certain microbes
  3. Clinical manifestations
    a. Onset can be from early infancy to young adulthood (less common)
    b. Infection
    i. Pathogens
  4. Any catalase +ve organism – most commonly Staph aureus (note all fungi and most bacteria are catalase positive)
  5. Bacteria = S aureus, Burkholderia, Serratia, Nocardia, Salmonella
  6. Fungi = Aspergillus (most common) – particularly Nidulans
    a. Aspergillus responsible for leading cause of mortality
  7. Susceptibility to MTB, including BCG vaccine
    ii. Sites of infection
  8. Focal infections more common than systemic disease
  9. Recurrent pneumonia, lymphadenitis, hepatic / other abscesses, osteomyelitis
    a. Liver abscess rare in children - if present should be Ix for CGD
  10. Colitis
  11. Gingivitis

c. Sequelae of chronic infection
i. Granuloma formation - can cause GI/GU obstruction – hallmark of CGD
ii. Anaemia of chronic disease, poor growth, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly, chronic purulent dermatitis, restrictive lung disease, gingivitis, hydronephrosis, esophageal dysmotility, pyloric outlet narrowing
iii. Note >80% of CGD patients have serology for Crohn disease

184
Q

Chronic granulomatous disease - ix, rx

A
  1. Investigations
    a. Pigment laden macrophages
    b. Nitroblue tetrazolium (NBT) dye test (normally yellow die reduced to blue/black, CGD unable to do)
    c. Diagnostic test = DHR assay
    i. DHR taken up by phagocytes
    ii. Phagocytes activated + super oxide production leads to oxidation of DHR and generation of fluorescence that can be detected by flow cytometry
  2. Management
    a. Prophylaxis
    i. Bactrim
    ii. Antifungal = itraconazole
    b. Aggressive treatment of infections (eg. pneumonia requires 6-8 weeks IV antibiotics)
    i. At risk of deep-seated indolent bacterial infections which can become widespread – need drainage
    ii. ESR can be helpful
    c. Monitoring for disease complications
    d. Granulocyte transfusions if antibiotics ineffective
    e. Interferon gamma = unclear mechanism but reduces infections/ hospitalizations by 7%
    f. Stem cell transplant = curative, long term survival 90%
185
Q

Neutropenia - overview bg, sx, ix

A
  1. Key points
    a. Most cases acquired
    b. Absolute neutrophil count (ANC) = total WBC x percentage of segmented neutrophils + bands
    c. Neutrophils predominate at birth but rapidly decrease, then increase again throughout childhood
    e. Acute neutropenia = rapid neutrophil use and/or compromised neutrophil production
    f. Chronic neutropenia = lasts >3 months and arises from reduced production, increase destruction or increased splenic sequestration
  2. Classification
    a. Decreased production
    b. Infective granulopoiesis
    c. Shift of circulating PMNs to vascular endothelium or tissue
    d. Enhanced peripheral destruction
  3. Clinical manifestations
    a. Fever
    b. Aphthous stomatitis – almost always present by 1 year of age
    c. Gingivitis
    d. Infections
    i. Cellulitis, furunculosis, perirectal inflammation
    ii. Colitis, sinusitis, otitis media
    iii. Pneumonia, deep abscesses, sepsis
    e. Pathogen (many, viral/bacterial/fungal, S aureus most common)
  4. Investigations
    a. Neutropenia = 2-3 times per week for 4-8 weeks – to investigate for cyclical neutropenia
    b. Bone marrow aspirate + trephine
    c. Glucocortoid mobilisation
186
Q

Neutropenia - overview aetiology

A

a. Acquired
i. Post-infectious
ii. Collagen vascular disease – Felty’s syndrome, SLE
iii. Drug-induced – clozapine, thionamides, sulfasalazine
iv. Nutritional
v. Primary autoimmune disorders
1. Immune neonatal neutropenia
2. Chronic autoimmune neutropenia
3. Chronic idiopathic/benign neutropenia
4. Pure white cell aplasia
vi. Complement activation
vii. Hypersplenism
viii. Bone marrow disorders
ix. Hypoplasia – aplastic anaemia, Fanconi anaemia
x. Leukaemia

b. Congenital
i. Disorders of granulopoesis
1. Severe congenital neutropenia
2. Cyclical neutropenia
ii. Disorders of molecular processing
1. Shwachman diamond
2. Dyskeratosis congenital
iii. Disorders of vesicular trafficking
1. Chediak-Higashi
2. Griscelli Syndrome type II
iv. Disorders of metabolism
1. Glycogen storage disease type Ib
v. Other
1. Chronic benign neutropenia
2. Idiopathic chronic neutropenia
3. Myelokathexis
4. Reticular dysgenesis

187
Q

Severe congenital neutropenia - general

A

= Kostmann syndrome

a. 2-3 cases per million
b. Genetics
i. ELANE (most), HAX1, G6PC3
iv. Arrest in myeloid maturation at the promyelocyte stage in the bone marrow

c. Investigations
i. Neutropenia +/- Monocytosis, eosinophilia

d. Clinical presentation
i. Presents in infancy with severe neutropenia –typically in first months of life
ii. No dysmorphic features
iii. Propensity to infection
1. Skin infections – including omphalitis
2. Pneumonia
3. Perirectal abscesses
iv. Oral ulcers, gingivitis

e. Treatment
i. GCSF
ii. HSCT

f. Prognosis
i. Previously died within 1-2 years of life
ii. Long-term risks = myelodysplastic syndrome, AML

188
Q

Cyclic neutropenia - general

A

a. Key points
i. Rare, autosomal dominant
ii. 0.5-1 case per 1 million individuals
iii. Tends to be less severe than congenital neutropenia

b. Genetics + pathogenesis
i. Regulatory abnormality involving early haematopoietic precursor cells
ii. Mutations in ELANE gene most common

c. Clinical manifestations
i. Characterised by neutropenia that recurs every 14 to 35 days – over 90% of patients exhibit a cycle period of 21 days
ii. Symptoms during neutropenic nadir
1. Malaise, fever
2. Oral and genital ulcers
3. Gingivitis, periodontitis
4. Pharyngitis
5. LN enlargement
iii. May have more serious infections – pneumonia, mastoiditis, intestinal perforation resulting in clostridial sepsis

d. Investigations
i. FBE 3 times per week for 6-8 weeks = demonstrating oscillation, or lack indicates those at risk of MDS/AML (only associated with severe congenital neutropenia)
ii. ELANE mutation testing

e. Treatment
i. GCSF – reduce cycle to 9-11 days with 1 day or less of profound neutropenia
iii. Cycles less noticeable in older patients

189
Q

Shwachman-Diamond syndrome - general

A

a. Genetics + pathogenesis
i. AR disorder
ii. Mutation in SBDS gene - protein involved in ribosome biogenesis/ RNA processing

b. Clinical manifestations
i. Key triad
1. Neutropenia
2. Metaphyseal dysplasia
3. Pancreatic insufficiency

c. Treatment
i. Many patients do not require GCSF
ii. May progress to MDS – bone marrow monitoring warranted (associated with monosomy 7)
iii. Pancreatic enzyme replacement

190
Q

Dyskeratosis congenita - general

A

a. Disorders of telomerase activity
b. Present with bone marrow failure rather than isolated neutropenia

c. Classic phenotype
i. Nail dystrophy
ii. Leukoplakia
iii. Malformed teeth
iv. Reticulated hyperpigmentation

191
Q

Disorders of vesicular trafficking - general

A
  • Autosomal recessive defects in biogenesis or trafficking of lysosomes and related endosomal organelles
  • All syndromes share phenotype characteristics including defects in melanosomes contributing to partial albinism, abnormal platelet function, immunological defects (neutrophil, B lymphocyte, NK cell and CTL)
  1. Chediak-Higashi
    a. Rare inherited disorders
    b. Best known for giant cytoplasmic granules in neutrophils, monocytes and lymphocytes
    c. LYST gene mutation
    d. Key features
    i. Oculocutaneous albinism
    ii. Progressive peripheral neuropathy
    iii. Frequent neutropenia
    iv. Tendency to develop HLH
    e. Treatment = BMT
  2. Griscelli Syndrome type II
    b. Peripheral blood granulocytes do NOT show giant granules
    c. Key features
    i. Neutropenia
    ii. Partial albinism
    iii. High risk of HLH
    iv. Hypogammaglobulinaemia
192
Q

Glycogen storage disease 1B - general

A

a. Mutation in G6PT1 – glucose 6 phosphate transport
b. Inhibit glucose transport resulting in defective neutrophil motility + increased apoptosis
c. Key manifestations
i. Massive hepatomegaly
ii. Severe growth retardation
iii. Neutropenia with recurrent infections
d. Treatment
i. GCSF – improves neutropenia but does not correct underlying functional neutrophil defect

193
Q

Chronic benign neutropenia of childhood - general

A

a. Mild to moderate neutropenia that does not lead to increased risk of infection
b. Sporadic or inherited – dominant or recessive
c. Low risk of serious infection – no treatment

194
Q

Idiopathic chronic neutropenia - general

A

a. Onset of neutropenia after 2 years of age with no identifiable cause
b. May have recurrent pyogenic infections
c. Bone marrow shows variable patterns of myeloid formation with arrest generally occurring between myelocyte and band forms

195
Q

Acquired neutropenia - infection related

A
  1. Key points
    a. Transient neutropenia often accompanies or follows viral infections
    b. Most frequent cause of neutropenia in childhood
    - usually benign (short lived)
  2. Aetiology
    a. Viruses
    i. Influenza A and B
    ii. Adenovirus
    iii. RSV, enteroviruses, HHV6
    iv. Measles, rubella, varicella
    v. Parvovirus B19 + Hep A/B – can cause neutropenia but more commonly associated with pure red cell aplasia or multiple cytopaenias (respectively)
    vi. EBV, CMV, HIV – chronic neutropenia
    b. Bacterial
    c. Protozoal
    d. Fungal
    e. Rickettsia
  3. Pathogenesis
    a. Related to virus-induced redistribution of neutrophils from the circulating to the marginating pool
    b. Neutrophil sequestration in virus-induced tissue damage or splenomegaly
  4. Clinical manifestations
    a. First 24-48 hours of illness and persists for 3-8 days – corresponds to period of viraemia
196
Q

Acquired neutropenia - drug induced examples

A

IMMUNOLOGIC
• Aminopyrine
• Propylthiouracil
• Penicillins

TOXIC
• Phenothiazines
• Clozapine

HYPERSENSITIVITY
• Phenytoin
• Phenobarbital

197
Q

Immune mediated neutropenia - general

A

• Presence of circulating anti-neutrophil antibodies  destruction by complement-mediated lysis or splenic phagocytosis of opsonized neutrophils

  1. Alloimmune neonatal neutropenia
    a. Transfer of maternal alloantibodies directed to infant neutrophils – analogous to Rh haemolytic disease
    i. Prenatal sensitisation induces maternal IgG antibodies to neutrophil Ag
    b. Clinical manifestations
    i. Severe neutropenia
    ii. Usually present in first 2 weeks of life
  2. Skin or umbilical infections
  3. Fever
  4. Pneumonia
    c. Natural history
    i. Neutrophil count recovers by 8 weeks
    d. Treatment
    i. Supportive
    ii. Antibiotics
  5. Autoimmune neutropenia of infancy
    a. Benign condition
    b. Usually presents 8-11 months of age
    c. Clinical manifestations
    i. Severe neutropenia, normal total WCC
    ii. Usually diagnosed due to neutropenia with a minor infection – occasionally more severe infection
    iii. No associated autoimmune diseases
    iv. Lasts up to 2 years, resolves spontaneously
    d. Investigations
    i. Anti-neutrophil Ab in serum – although note frequent FP and FN results
    e. Treatment
    i. Not usually necessary
    ii. May give GCSF
198
Q

Mendelian susceptibility to mycobacterial disease (MSMD) - general

A

The conditions grouped together under Mendelian susceptibility to mycobacterial diseases are caused by genetic defects affecting the interactions of mononuclear phagocytes and T helper cells around the synthesis and response to interferon (IFN) gamma, often referred to as the type 1 (Th1) pathway. The majority of these diseases were recognized through adverse effects related to the administration of Bacillus Calmette-Guérin (BCG).

  1. Pathogenesis
    a. Defect in mononuclear phagocytic/ T helper 1 cell pathway
    b. IFN -gamma- IL12 pathway = required for control of bacterial/ parasitic/ viral infections
    i. Macrophages infected with mycobacterium -> IL-12 production -> stimulates Th1 cells and NK cells -> IFN-g -> stimulates macrophage receptors to induce killing of intracellular pathogens
    c. Heterogenous genetic defects in pathway
  2. Clinical manifestations
    a. Typically present with infections with BCG or environmental NTM
    b. Infections = intracellular
    i. Non TB mycobacteria
    ii. BCG
    iii. Salmonella/ listeria/ Leishmania
    iv. Candida/ moulds/ viruses STAT1 defects
  3. Investigations
    a. IFN gamma pathway
    b. IFN gamma production after cell stimulation
    c. STAT1 phosphorylation
    d. Cell surface receptor evaluation
    e. Genetic diagnosis
  4. Management
    a. Prolonged course of abx, prophylaxis
    b. IFN gamma (often require high dose)
    c. HSCT
199
Q

Autosomal dominant hyper IgE syndrome - general

A

AKA Jobs syndrome

  1. Key points
    a. Autosomal recessive forms of HyperIgE also exist
  2. Genetics + pathogenesis
    a. Mutation in STAT3 mutation -> impaired Th17 differentiation and function
  3. Clinical manifestations
    a. Infections
    i. Recurrent staphylococcal skin infections
  4. Begin in infancy
  5. Include abscesses, furuncles, and cellulitis
  6. Frequently results in lymphadenitis
    ii. Sinopulmonary infections
  7. Most commonly due to S. aureus
    b. Severe eczema
    i. Begins in first week of life – papulopustular, often crusted rash
    ii. Begins on the face and scalp and spreads to the upper trunk/ shoulders and buttocks
    iii. Similar to appearance of atopic dermatitis
    iv. Associated with intense pruritis
    c. Facial features
    i. Coarse facial features – thickening of soft tissue of face, ears and nose, resulting in a doughy appearance, present in 80-100%, occurs after puberty
    ii. Increased alar width (broad nasal base) and broad nasal bridge
    iii. Frontal bossing, wider outer canthal distances and deep-set eyes
    iv. Dysmorphia increases with age
    d. Skeletal
    i. Retain primary teeth – require extraction
    ii. Scoliosis and osteoporosis
    iii. Bone fractures with minor trauma
    e. Other
    i. Risk of NHL
    ii. Neurological abnormalities
    iii. Vascular abnormalities
  8. Investigations
    a. Elevated IgE – usually > 2000 IU/ml
    b. Peripheral eosinophilia
  9. DDx
    a. Atopic dermatitis
    i. May have extremely high IgE and recurrent superficial S aureus
    ii. Do NOT have deep-seated abscesses or pneumonia
    iii. Do NOT have facial or bone features
    b. Wiskott-Aldrich syndrome – may have eczema and elevated IgE, however should also have thrombocytopaenia, small platelets and bruising; abscesses less common
    c. SCID
  10. Treatment
    a. Treatment of eczema
    b. Antimicrobial prophylaxis – Bactrim
    c. Treatment of infections
200
Q

Inherited disorders of complement system - bg

A
  1. Key points
    a. Predispose to bacterial infections and/or SLE
    b. Classification
    i. Integral component defects
    ii. Regulatory component defects
    c. Revision of complement
    i. Almost 60 plasma and membrane proteins
    ii. 3 distinct pathways
    iii. Common terminal lytic cascade
    iv. Potent regulators
    d. Key functions
    i. Opsonisation = C3b (or C4b)
    ii. Stimulate inflammatory reactions = C5a (or C3a)
    iii. Complement mediated cytolysis
  2. SUMMARY
    a. Classical pathway
    i. Deficiency of components of classical pathway (C1, C2, C4) predisposes to autoimmune disease
    ii. Deficiency of control proteins (eg. C1 esterase inhibitor) leads to uncontrolled activation of classical pathway
    b. Alternative
    i. Deficiency of components predisposes to infections with encapsulated organisms (eg. Pneumocococcus, Neisseria)
    ii. Deficiency of control proteins leads to uncontrolled activation of alternative pathway
    c. Lectin pathway
    i. ? MBL deficiency may increase risk of encapsulated organism infection (contentious)
201
Q

Inherited disorders of complement system - sx

A

a. Deficiency in an integral component
i. Infections
1. Site
a. Sinuopulmonary
b. Bacteraemia
c. Meningitis
2. Pathogens = encapsulated
a. Streptococcus pneumoniae
b. Hib
c. Neisseria meningitidis
ii. Autoimmunity
1. SLE – commonly develops in individuals deficient in an early component of classical pathway (C1q, C1r, C1s, C4 an C2)

b. Deficiency in regulatory protein
i. Specific disorders from undesirable complement activation
ii. Examples
1. Heterozygous deficiency of C1 inhibitor  hereditary angioedema
2. Haploinsufficiency of factor H  predisposes to atypical HUS and AMD
3. Homozygous deficiency of factor H  alternative pathway activation, cleavage and consumption of C3 and factor B = susceptibility to pyogenic infections

202
Q

Inhertied disorders of complement system - ix, rx

A

a. C3/C4
b. Complement function
i. CH50/AP50 (classic/alternate)
ii. CH100/AP11
c. For HAE = C1 esterase inhibitor level/function

Low A normal C = alternate pathway defect
Normal A low C = classic pathway defect (pre-C3 -> C1/2/4)
Both low = C3 deficiency or MAC component defect
Both normal = properdin deficiency
C1 inhibitor defect = reduced C1 inhibitor function assay = hereditary angioedema

C4 = key component of classical pathway -> if low think classical, if normal think alternative

  1. Treatment
    a. Aggressive treatment of serious infection
    b. Vaccination
    i. ALL routine vaccinations
    ii. Not at increased risk for adverse effects
    iii. Conjugate vaccines preferred over pure polysaccharide vaccines
    c. Antibiotic prophylaxis
    d. Replacement therapy – not currently routine
203
Q

Classical pathway deficiencies - general

A
  1. SUMMARY (Lupus + Neisseria)
    a. Deficiency of components of classical pathway (C1, C2, C4) predisposes to autoimmune disease
    i. Predisposes to SLE – impaired clearance of immune complexes, apoptotic cell debris, development of autoantibodies to nuclear proteins
    b. Deficiency of control proteins (eg. C1 esterase inhibitor) leads to uncontrolled activation of classical pathway
    i. Hereditary angioedema
  2. Uncontrolled activation of classical pathway leads to increased activation of FXII and production of bradykinins -> increased vascular permeability + angioedema (no urticaria as not mast cell driven)
  3. Genetics + pathogenesis
    a. Usually AR – two abnormal alleles required to yield complete deficiency, heterozygotes asymptomatic
    c. Note properdin deficiency autosomal dominant
  4. Indications for screening
    a. Recurrent, unexplained pyogenic infections in the setting of normal WBC and Ig levels
    b. Recurrent Neisserial infections at any age
    c. Multiple family members with Neisserial infections
  5. Screening + interpretation
    a. Total haemolytic complement (THC = CH50)
    b. Genetic screening
  6. Specific disorders
    a. C1 deficiency (C1q, C1r, C1s)
    i. Most common inherited deficiency is C1q
    ii. >90% of C1q deficient individuals develop SLE, may also have recurrent bacterial infections
    iii. Deficiency of C1r or C1s also results in SLE with prominent renal and cutaneous involvement

b. C4 deficiency
i. Rare
ii. 80% present with SLE – severe and at an early age
iii. Note interpretation of C4 in patients with SLE can be complicated – may be low due to consumption OR deficiency
iv. Consumption more likely with reduction in multiple complement components

c. C2 deficiency
i. Manifestations
1. 10-30% present with SLE
2. Recurrent pyogenic infections with encapsulated bacteria
ii. Sometimes associated with IgG subclass deficiency
iii. Other associated diseases = discoid lupus, polymyositis, GN, Hodgkin lymphoma, vasculitis
iv. Tests for ANA may be positive in low titre and show speckled pattern

d. C3 deficiency
i. Major opsonin of the complement system
ii. Results in severe, recurrent infections with encapsulated bacteria
iii. Presents shortly after birth
iv. Particularly prone to infections with pneumococcus
v. Subsequent problems due to excess immune complexes – especially GN

e. C5-C9 deficiency
i. Associated with Neisseria species infections – characteristically an unusual serotype
ii. Tend to be recurrent and clinically mild-to-moderate

204
Q

Alternative pathway deficiencies - general

A
  • Rare
  • Alternative pathway (AH50) screen for deficiency

• Summary
o Deficiency of components predisposes to infections with encapsulated organisms (Strep, Neisseria)

  • Factor B deficiency
    • Increased susceptibility to Strep + Neisseria
  • Properdin deficiency
    • X-linked inheritance
    • Increased susceptibility to Strep + Neisseria
    o Deficiency of control proteins leads to uncontrolled activation of alternative pathway
  • Factor H (defect or deficiency) = aHUS – uncontrolled lysis of normal (host) cells
  • Factor I = aHUS
205
Q

Acquired deficiency in complement system - general

A
  1. Key points
    a. More common than inherited complement disorders
    b. Usually only partial and affect several components at once
    c. Most common – SLE – reduction in C4 and C3
    d. Commonly occur in associated with diseases with autoantibodies
  2. Mechanism
    a. Accelerated consumption by immune complexes – common
    i. SLE
    ii. Antiphospholipid syndrome
    iii. Cryoglobulinaemia
    iv. Vasculitic syndromes
    v. Renal disease
    vi. Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia
    b. Reduced hepatic synthesis – uncommon
    c. Loss of components in the urine – rare
206
Q

Toll like receptor disorders - general

A
  1. Function
    a. Type 1 transmembrane receptors
    b. Extracellular domain recognizes microbial product
    c. Cytoplasmic TIR domain recruits signaling molecules
    d. Activate gene transcription for inflammation + antimicrobial defenses
  2. Types - many
  3. Defects
    a. Susceptibility to bacterial infections
    i. Myd88 and IRAK 4 mutations
  4. Investigations = CD62L shedding
    ii. Anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia
  5. NEMO (XL) or IKBA (AD) gain of function mutation
  6. Investigations = investigations of T and B cells

b. Susceptibility to candida infections
i. Many = STAT1 gain of function
ii. Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis
iii. CARD9 deficiency

c. Susceptibility to virus infection
- STAT1/2 important again

207
Q

Lymphadenopathy - classification/aetiology

A
  1. Classification + Aetiology
    - cervical vs generalised
    - acute vs chronic

a. Generalised
i. Acute = viral/post-viral
ii. Chronic
1. Infective = EBV, CMV, toxoplasmosis
2. Malignancy = leukaemia, lymphoma
3. Inflammatory = JCA, SLE, HIV

b. Cervical
i. Acute
1. Infective = URTI, tonsillitis, EBV, bacterial infection, dental infection
2. Kawasaki disease
ii. Chronic
1. Infective = EBV, TB, atypical mycobacterial, cat scratch
2. As for generalised

208
Q

Cervical lymphadenopathy - causes

A

i. Acute bilateral lymphadenitis
1. Viral URTI
2. Systemic viral infections eg. EBV, CMV
3. Kawasaki disease – may present initially as cervical lymphadenitis alone

ii. Acute unilateral lymphadenitis
1. Gp A strep or Staph Aureus = 40-80% of acute unilateral lymphadenitis, occurs 1-4 years of age
a. Fever, tenderness, overlying erythema
b. May be associated with cellulitis
2. Anaerobic bacteria – older children with dental caries ore periodontal disease
3. Group B strep (neonates)

iii. Subacute/chronic unilateral lymphadenitis
1. Atopic eczema

  1. Infectious
    a. Bartonella henselae (cat-scratch disease)
    i. Occurs about 2 weeks after a scratch or lick from kitten or dog
    ii. Usually involves axillary nodes, tender nodes
    iii. Papule at infection side

b. MAC
i. Patients usually 1-4 years of age
ii. Afebrile, systemically well and not immunocomprimised
iii. Node usually unilateral, slightly fluctuant, non-tender, sometimes tethered to underlying structures and violaceous hue to overlying skin

c. Toxoplasma gondii
i. Systemic features (fatigue, myalgia)
ii. There may be generalised lymphadenopathy

d. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
i. Usually a contact history
ii. Affects older children
iii. Systemic symptoms (eg. fever, malaise, weight loss, non-tender nodes)

e. HIV

  1. Malignancy
    a. Lymphoma = Hodgkin, NHL
    b. Leukaemia
  2. Rheumatological
    a. Juvenile chronic arthritis
    b. SLE