Ears, Eyes, Teeth Flashcards

1
Q

Outer ear anatomy

A

a. Two parts
i. Pinna/auricle = projecting from the side of the head
ii. External acoustic meatus = canal leading inward

b. Auricle
i. Cartilage covered with skin
c. External acoustic meatus
i. Tube which transmits sound waves through to the tympanic membrane at the medial part of the outer ear
i. Meatus is partly cartilaginous (lateral 1/3 cartilaginous, medial 2/3 bony parts of temporal bone)
ii. Two nerve supplies to the meatus
1. Posterior and inferior = branches of vagus nerve
2. Superior and anterior = innervated by the auricular temporal nerve (branch of CNV 3)

b. Tympanic membrane = separates the external acoustic meatus from the middle ear

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2
Q

Middle ear anatomy

A

a. Space between tympanic membrane and petrous part of temporal bone

b. Eustachian tube = auditory tube = pharyngotympanic tube
i. Communicates between nasopharynx and tympanic cavity
ii. Auditory tube projects antero-inferiorly from wall of the middle ear

c. Ossicles
i. Malleus, incus, stapes
1. Malleus = lateral: tympanic membrane  incus
2. Incus = medial: malleus  stapes
3. Stapes = further medial: stapes  oval window
ii. Together transmit energy of vibration (mechanical) via bones towards the inner ear
d. Two muscles = 1) tensor tympani (CNV) + 2) stapedius (CNVII)
Contraction = limit the amplitude of vibration produced by soundwaves -> controlled by reflexes
i. produced by loud sounds

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3
Q

Inner ear anatomy

A

c. Inner ear = series of cavities within the petrous part of the temporal bone between the middle ear laterally and the internal acoustic meatus medially

a. Overview
i. Bony labyrinth = vestibule + 3 semicircular canals + cochlea
ii. Membranous labyrinth = suspended within the perilymph is the membranous labyrinth

b. Function
i. Cochlea = hearing
ii. Vestibule + semicircular canal = head movement and equilibrium (vestibular apparatus)

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4
Q

Clinical manifestations of ear disorders

A
  1. Otalgia
  2. Purulent otorrhoea (otitis externa, otitis media with perf, first branchial cleft cyst)
  3. Hearing loss
    a. Most common cause of hearing loss in children is otitis media
  4. Swelling
  5. Vertigo
    a. Uncommon complaint in children
    b. Aetiology
    i. Labyrinthitis
    ii. Peri lymphatic fistula – due to trauma or congenital defect
    iii. Cholesteatoma
    iv. Vestibular neuronitis
    v. BPPV
    vi. Meniere disease
    vii. Disease of CNS
  6. Nystagmus
    a. Vestibular in origin
    b. Associated with vertigo
  7. Tinnitus
    a. Rarely described by children
    b. Most common in those with eustachian tube-middle-ear disease or SNHL
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5
Q

Hearing assessments - ABR

A

= auditory brainstem response

a. Newborn screening test
b. Measures the summation of action potentials from the vestibulocochlear nerve in the inferior colliculus of the midbrain in response to a click stimulus
c. Tests 35 dB
d. “Pass” or “Refer” result
e. 50% referred have permanent hearing loss

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6
Q

Hearing assessments - otoacoustic emission test

A

a. Evaluates hearing from the middle ear to outer hair cells
b. Click or tone played to ear, measures vibrations of cochlear outer hair cells in response
c. Cannot detect auditory neuropathy

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7
Q

Hearing assessments - pure tone audiometry

A

a. Each ear tested individually
b. Test both air conduction (via headphones) and bone conduction (via oscillatory on mastoid)

c. Interpretation
i. Vertical axis = loudness in dB (logarithmic scale)
1. Conversation 45dB
ii. Horizontal axis = pitch in frequency (Hz)
iii. Right ear = round = red
iv. Left ear = cross = blue
v. < = bone conduction in right ear
vi. > = bone conduction in left ear
d. Results
i. Air = bone, R = L, normal amplitude = normal
ii. Air < bone = conductive hearing loss or mixed picture (bone conduction heard at lower decibel as bypasses middle ear)
iii. Air and bone both lost = sensorineural loss

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8
Q

Hearing assessments - acoustic reflectometry

A

a. Measures the reflection of sound from the tympanic membrane
b. Provides a measure of the difference in sound intensity from the incident and reflected sound waves around the frequency of maximal nullification
c. Normal TM = 50% of the incident sound is reflected back to the device
d. Fluid in ear = tympanic membrane is immobilized and the reflected sound is louder with a narrower spectrum

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9
Q

Hearing assessments - tympanometry

A

a. Use = assess middle ear function to evaluate membrane compliance

b. Measure of:
i. Compliance of middle ear (ear drum movement)
ii. Ear canal volume
iii. Middle ear pressure

c. Abnormal if:
i. Fluid
ii. Ossicular dysfunction
iii. Eustachian tube abnormalities

d. Interpretation
i. X axis = pressure
ii. Y axis = volume

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10
Q

Hearing assessments - Weber and Rinne

A

a. Weber test
i. Tuning fork to forehead
ii. Sensorineural hearing loss = sound heard in unaffected ear
iii. Conductive hearing loss = sound heard in affected ear

b. Rinne test
i. Normally air conduction > bone (positive test- also the case in SNHL)
ii. Bone conduction > air in conductive hearing loss

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11
Q

Hearing loss - general bg

A
  1. Key points
    a. Prevalence 1/1000 >40dB at birth
    b. Doubles up to 9 years age (not screened, false negatives, acquired cases)
    c. Hearing loss in the first few years of life - impacts on speech, language and cognitive deficit
    d. Early identification of hearing loss is critical
  2. Classification
    a. Central
    i. An auditory defect originating along the central auditory nervous system pathways from distal CNVIII to the cerebral cortex
    ii. Rare in children
    b. Peripheral
    i. Conductive = dysfunction in the transmission of sound through the external or middle ear
  3. Most common cause of hearing loss in children
    ii. Sensorineural = involving inner ear, cochlea or the auditory nerve
    c. Mixed
  4. Severity
    a. Mild = 20-30 dB
    b. Moderate = 30-50 dB
    c. Severe = 50-70 dB
    d. Profound = >70 dB
  5. Aetiology
    a. Congenital
    i. Genetic = 50%
  6. Syndromic = 1/3
  7. Non-syndromic = 2/3 (Connexin 26 most common)
    b. Acquired
    i. Prenatal
    ii. Perinatal
    iii. Postnatal
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12
Q

Hearing loss - newborn screening

A

Screening detects hearing loss >35 decibels, and is reliable in children <3mo.

a. Screened for hearing loss
i. Auditory brainstem response: sensors on baby forehead, clicking sounds played whilst baby asleep -> responses to noise with movement recorded
ii. Pass/repeat/refer
iii. Refer after two failed screens

b. Referred for further testing (0.7%)
i. Half then found to be normal
ii. Half abnormal -> then audiologist

c. Audiologist
i. Auditory brainstem response: gives information on softest sounds a bub can hear
ii. Auditory steady state response
iii. Otoacoustic emissions: sounds given off by the inner ear when the cochlea is stimulated by sound
iv. Tympanometry

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13
Q

Hearing loss - assessment

A

a. History
b. Examination – biometrics, developmental assessment, dysmorphism (face/ears), digits/neck, eyes, skin for hypo/hyperpigmented lesions, neurological
c. Characterise with – pure tone audiometry + tympanometry
i. Family and sibling audiograms
d. Vestibular function testing (30-40% with bilateral severe-profound loss have areflexia - idea of cause)
e. Ophthalmology – 40-60% have visual deficiencies, and to detect associations (Usher)
f. Genetic testing – Connexin 26, others
g. CMV testing – asymptomatic/symptomatic infection
h. ECG – in those with FHx long QT or developmental delay
i. Urinalysis – microscopic haematuria for Alport’s syndrome
j. Imaging – MRI best for cochlear (most common cochlear dysplasia), CT for outer ear

k. Other tests – only if indicated
i. TORCH serology
ii. FBE and UEC
iii. Autoimmune screen
iv. Metabolic screen
v. Renal US
vi. Further genetic testing
vii. Clinical photography

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14
Q

SNHL - congenital causes

A

a. Infection = classified as congenital OR acquired depending on resource
b. Malformations
c. Perilymph fistula

d. Genetic
i. Occurs in 1/2000 births
ii. Accounts for 50% of sensorineural hearing loss = 1/3 syndromic, 2/3 non-syndromic
iii. Non-syndromic
1. Autosomal recessive – 80%
a. >80 distinct loci
b. GJB2 gene encoding connexin 26***
i. Mutations in on chromosome 13
ii. 50% of all bilateral moderate to profound congenital hearing loss in non-syndromic children
iii. Connexins are proteins essential for potassium ion metabolism in the cochlear

i. Syndromic
1. Down’s syndrome
2. Autosomal dominant
a. Waardenburg syndrome type 1 and 2
b. Branchio-oto-renal syndrome
c. Treacher Collins
d. CHARGE
3. Autosomal recessive
a. Pendred syndrome (SNHL+goitre)
b. Usher syndrome (SNHL+visual loss)
c. Jervell and Lange Neilsen syndrome (Long QT + SNHL)
d. Alport syndrome (eyes, ears, kidney)
4. Other
a. Goldenhar Syndrome (conductive, SNHL, mixed)
b. Hereditary motor-sensory neuropathies – E.g. Charcot Marie Tooth, Friedreich ataxia etc, neurofibromatosis
c. Mitochondrial diseases = multisystem
i. Infants – progressive deterioration
ii. Adults – diabetes + SNHL
iii. Associated with increased susceptibility to aminoglycoside ototoxicity

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15
Q

SNHL - acquired causes

A

a. Prenatal
i. Intra-uterine infections
1. CMV = leading infectious cause, occurs in symptomatic + asymptomatic individuals, and can be progressive/delayed onset, and unilateral or bilateral
2. Toxoplasmosis, rubella, syphilis
ii. Ototoxic medication give to mother during pregnancy

b. Perinatal
i. Hypoxia – mechanical ventilation
ii. Prematurity, Low BW <1500g
iv. Hyperbilirubinaemia
v. ECMO
vi. Bacterial meningitis
vii. Ototoxic drugs

c. Postnatal
i. Infections
1. Complications of OM
2. Viral labyrinthitis
3. Meningitis
ii. Ototoxic drugs
1. Aminoglycosides
2. Other antibiotics = macrolides, vancomycin, tetracyclines
3. Chemotherapy
a. Cisplatin – hearing loss in 10-25% of children
b. Other – 5FU, bleomycin
4. Salicyclates
iii. Trauma
iv. Metabolic diseases – bone diseases
v. Neoplastic disease – infiltration of the cochlear with leukaemia or other tumours
vi. Noise exposure

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16
Q

Congenital malformations of the ear - summary

A
  1. Pinna malformations
    a. Isolated abnormalities occur in 1% of children
    b. Pit-like depression in front of the helix and above the tragus
    i. Common
    ii. Unilateral or bilateral
    iii. Surgical removal only if recurrent
    c. Accessory skin tag
    i. Incidence of 1-2/1,000 births
    ii. Removed for cosmetic regions
    d. Microtia = subtle abnormalities of the size, shape and location of the pinna and ear canal, OR major abnormalities
    e. Anotia = absence of pinna and ear canal
  2. Congenital stenosis or atresia of the external auditory canal
    a. Occurs in association with malformation of the auricle and middle ear
    b. Isolation or as part of genetic syndrome – T21, brachio-oculofacial syndrome
    c. Reconstructive surgery required
  3. Congenital middle-ear malformations
    a. Usually associated conductive hearing loss
    b. Most malformations involve the ossicles – incus most commonly affected
  4. Congenital inner ear malformations
  5. Congenital cholesteatoma
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17
Q

Otitis external - general

A
  1. Key points
    a. Inflammatory condition of the external auditory canal
  2. Risk factors
    a. Excessive wetness = swimming, bathing, humidity
    b. Dryness
    c. Presence of other skin pathogens
    d. Trauma
  3. Aetiology
    a. Infectious
    i. Bacteria
  4. P. aeruginosa***
  5. Other GP and GN organisms
    ii. Fungi = Candida, Aspergillus
    b. Non infectious
    i. Atopic dermatitis
    ii. Psoriasis
    iii. Seborrheic dermatitis
    iv. Acne
  6. Clinical manifestations
    a. Ear canal + erythema
    b. Thick, clumpy otorrhoea
  7. Diagnosis = clinical
  8. Treatment
    a. Topical antibiotics
    b. IV antibiotics
  9. Complication = necrotising otitis externa
    a. Can result in facial paralysis, CN abnormalities, vertigo and SNHL
    b. Usually due to Pseudomonas
    c. Rare in children
    d. Usually associated with immunocompromise or severe malnourishment
    e. IN adults associated with DM
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18
Q

Otitis media - bg

A
  1. Key points
    a. Peak incidence and prevalence first 2 years of life
    b. 50% children by 12 months
    c. 70% children by 3 years
  2. Spectrum
    a. Acute otitis media
    b. Chronic otitis media with effusion
    c. Atelectasis of the tympanic membrane
    d. Chronic adhesive otitis media
    e. Chronic suppurative otitis media
    i. Tubotympanic (safe)
    ii. Atticoantral (unsafe) = cholesteatoma
  3. Risk factors
    a. Child
    i. Younger age 6-12months
    ii. Genetics/Atopy
    iii. Cleft palate
    iv. Immune deficiency
    v. Indigenous (more severe disease)
    b. Environment
    i. Family member with AOM (strongest)
    ii. Daycare exposure (second)
    iii. Siblings (more)
    iv. Household smoking
    v. Bottle feeding/dummies
    c. Protective factors
    i. Breastfeeding for at least 3 moths
  4. Microbiology
    a. 25% viral
    b. 35% strep pneumoniae
    c. 25% non-typeable Haemophilus
    d. 15% Moraxella
    e. Other
    i. A streptococcus, Staphylococcus aureus, Gram-negative organisms.
    ii. S. aureus and GN = most commonly in neonates and very young infants who are hospitalized
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19
Q

Otitis media - sx, dx

A
  1. Clinical manifestations
    a. Ear pain
    b. Fever
    c. Anorexia
    d. Vomiting
    e. Lethargy
  2. Examination
    a. Haemorrhagic, injected or cloudy appearance of TM
    b. Bulging TM – most specific finding of AOM (97%) but has lower sensitivity (51%)
    c. Many febrile or crying children have red TMs. A red TM alone is not AOM
  3. Diagnosis
    a. History of acute onset symptoms + signs (otalgia, ear pulling, otorrhoea, fever, anorexia, vomiting)
    b. Demonstratable middle ear effusion characterised by
    i. Bulging of TM
    ii. Limited or absent movement
    iii. Air-fluid level
    iv. Perforation of TM with otorrhoea
    c. Signs and symptoms of middle ear inflammation – characterised by redness of TM
  4. Natural history
    a. 80% resolve in 7-14days (without treatment)
    b. NNT antibiotics is 7 (good improvement without treatment)
    c. Between 2-7 days antibiotic therapy reduces pain in 40%
  5. Recurrent AOM
    a. 3 episodes in 6 months or 4 in 12 months
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20
Q

Otitis media - rx, cx

A
  1. Treatment
    a. Analgesia
    i. Topical lignocaine
    ii. Paracetamol/neurofen
    b. Antibiotics
    i. Consider none in the first 48 hours
    ii. If no improvement – amoxicillin 30-45 mg/kg/dose BD for 5 days
    iii. Other indications
  2. <12 months
  3. Immunocomprimised
  4. Indigenous
  5. Unwell
  6. Severe pain
  7. Suppurative complication - perforation, bilateral OM
  8. Single ear
  9. Cochlear implant
    iv. If recurrent acute or no improvement – augmentin
  10. Complications
    a. Otologic
    i. TM perforation
    ii. Chronic suppurative OM
    iii. Ossicular necrosis
    iv. Cholesteatoma
    v. Persistent effusion (often leading to hearing loss) – most common cause of hearing loss in children
    b. CNS
    i. Meningitis
    ii. Brain abscess
    iii. Facial nerve paralysis
    c. Other
    i. Mastoiditis
    ii. Labyrinthitis
    iii. Sigmoid sinus thrombophlebitis
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21
Q

Otitis media with effusion - general

A

a. Middle ear effusion without acute symptoms + signs
b. 70% will have effusion at 2 weeks
c. Diagnosed by pneumotoscopy +/- tympanometry (flat)
d. No acute symptoms
e. Often causes mild conductive hearing loss
f. 60% resolve 1 month, 90% 3 months
g. Risk factors = parental smoking, dummies
h. Management
i. Observe for 3-6months if no speech or language delays
ii. Refer ENT for ventilation tubes if associated with hearing loss >25dB
i. Long term effects on development unclear

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22
Q

Chronic middle ear effusion - general

A

a. >2 months
b. Affects 90% of children <2 years

c. Treatment
i. Otovent = no significant improvement, useful short term treatment
ii. Grommets recommended if 4-6 months of bilateral OM with effusion and hearing loss
1. Factors that favour surgery
a. Bilateral
b. >3months
c. Multiple drug allergies
d. Comorbidities – cleft, craniofacial abnormalities, Down’s
e. Risk factors present – Group day care, frequent smoke exposure
f. Symptomatic – recurrent AOM, ear pain, tugging, TM retraction
g. Complicated – Bilateral conductive hearing loss, speech delay, misarticulation, abnormal behavior, poor school performance
h. At risk children – suspected or diagnosed speech + language delay, ASD, blindness or uncorrectable visual impairment

d. Outcomes
i. No evidence to suggest difference in language/speech/learning outcomes with insertion of grommets
ii. Provides short term symptomatic improvement
iii. Usually fall out 9-18months later

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23
Q

Chronic suppurative otitis media - general

A

a. Chronic discharge from the ear from perforation of TM
i. Tubotympanic = safe – central perforation +/- hearing loss
ii. Atticoantral = unsafe – marginal perforation, granulation tissue which destroys structures and develops into cholesteatoma

b. Management
i. Ear cleaning – dry mopping and betadine washouts
ii. Topical antibiotics E.g. ciprofloxacin ear drops until discharge resolves

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24
Q

Cholesteatoma - general

A

Key

  • abnormal growth of squamous epithelium in the middle ear and mastoid
  • may progress to destroy ossicles -> conductive hearing loss
  • average age 5 years, usually unilateral

Exam

  • white mass behind TM
  • granulation tissue on TM
  • new hearing loss

Treatment
- surgery

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25
Q

Mastoiditis - general

A
  1. Classification
    a. Acute mastoiditis
    i. Complication of AOM with retroauricular inflammation & protrusion of auricle
    ii. Patients are younger
    iii. Inflammation of post-auricular area, with displacement of the pinna inferiorly and anteriorly
    iv. Strep pneumoniae and strep pyogenes
    v. Diagnosis – CT of temporal bones
    b. Chronic mastoiditis
    i. Extensive history of OM, including grommets
    ii. Patients are older
    iii. Less than 50% have retroauricular swelling
    iv. Most likely cause is pseudomonas aeruginosa
  2. Treatment
    a. Myringotomy
    b. Mastoidectomy
    c. IV antibiotics
  3. Complications
    a. Petrositis – temporal bone involvement where eye pain prominent symptom due to irritation of ophthalmic branch CN5
    b. Gradenigo syndrome – triad suppurative OM, paralysis external rectus and eye pain on same side
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26
Q

BPPV - general

A

= Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo

a. Disorder of early childhood manifested by recurrent episodes of brief disequilibrium
i. A family history of migraine headaches is frequently present
b. Pathogenesis
i. Particles form in the semicircular canals (most often posterior)

c. Clinical manifestations
i. During the attacks, the child appears frightened and off balance
ii. Associated with nystagmus, diaphoresis, nausea, and vomiting
iii. Vertigo or dizziness
iv. Episodes usually last less than a minute and are not associated with an altered consciousness

d. Natural history
i. Episodes recur in clusters, occurring daily for several days in a row, then remitting for several weeks, and recurring again
ii. Spontaneously remits by age 5
iii. Many patients subsequently develop typical migraine headaches

e. Treatment = Hallpike manoeuvre

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27
Q

Tonsils and Adenoids - general

A
  1. Function + anatomy
    a. Immunologically reactive tissue at the entrance to the aerodigestive tract
    b. Framework of fibrous tissue and lymphocytes, covered by epithelium
    c. Waldeyer’s ring – circle of lymphoid tissue
    i. Lingual, Palatine, Pharyngeal, Lateral pharyngeal
    d. Role in immunity from exposure to both inhaled + ingested antigens
    e. Composed of mainly B lymphocytes
    f. Exposure to Ag produces secretory Ab + lymphokines
    g. Removal does NOT produce significant immunological problems
  2. Indications for T + A
    a. Recurrent tonsillitis
    i. 7 infections in one year
    ii. 5 infections/year for 2 consecutive years
    iii. 3 infections/year for 3 consecutive years
    iv. >2 weeks missed school
    b. Recurrent quinsy
    c. OSA
    i. Severity NOT proportional to tonsil size
    ii. Combination of anatomical + neuromotor factors
    iii. Present in 2% of young children – peak 2-8 years
    iv. Most common groups
  3. Marked tonsil + adenoid hypertrophy without obesity
  4. Obesity with milder upper airway lymphoid hyperplasia
  5. Craniofacial + neuromuscular disorders – Crouzon and Apert, T21, CP
    d. Suspected malignancy (Fanconi anaemia)
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28
Q

Tracheostomy - general

A
  1. Indications
    a. Airway obstruction
    b. Prolonged ventilation
    c. Airway toileting
    d. Airway surgery
  2. Complications
    a. Early
    i. Stomal/tracheal granuloma
    ii. Obstructed tube
    iii. Haemorrhage
    iv. Pneumothorax
    v. Pneumomediastinum
    vi. Infection
    b. Late
    i. Stoma/tracheal granuloma
    ii. Tracheal stenosis
    iii. TOF
    iv. Erosion into vessels
    v. Tracheocutaneous fistula
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29
Q

Normal vision development - birth to 5 years

A
Birth 	
•	Brief fixation on face, light, object 
•	No contrast, no colour differentiation
•	Hyperopic (farsighted) 
•	VA 20/400  
•	May have imperfect coordination of eye movements + alignment during early days and weeks 
•	Test = visual evoked potential 

6 weeks
• Maintain fixation on face, object or light and follow through 90 degrees
• Smiling and visual response (especially to a face)
• Test = fix and follow using bright objects (180 degrees)

6 months
• Reach for small object
• Actively follow object
• Proper eye coordination – if noted >6 months should b referred
• Test = identify and pick up small object

One year
• Vision similar to adult
• Test = Reach for a tiny object (eg. 100 and 1000s)

2-3 years
• VA 20/40
• Test = Picture matching (Kay picture test)

3-4 years
• VA 20/30
• Test = Letter matching (Sheridan Gardiner test), Tumbling E test, HOV test (modified Snellen)

5 years
• VA 20/20
• Test = Snellen acuity, LogMAR/STYCAR tests, Tumbling E test

  1. When to refer
    a. Suspect poor or subnormal vision
    b. Visual acuity of 6/12 or worse
    c. Nystagmus at 8-12 weeks of age can be a sign of poor vision
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30
Q

Amblyopia

A
  1. Key points
    a. Decrease in visual acuity (unilateral or bilateral) that occurs in visually immature children
    b. Occurs due to a lack of a clear image projecting onto the retina
    c. Amblyopia occurs ONLY during the critical period of development before the cortex is visually mature – within the first decade of life
    d. The younger the child, the more susceptible to amblyopia
  2. Pathogenesis
    a. Developmental of visual acuity normally proceeds rapidly in infancy + early childhood
    b. Anything that interferes with the formation of a clear retinal image during this time can produce amblyopia
  3. Aetiology + classification
    a. Strabismic (50%)
    i. Due to a deviated eye
    ii. Abnormal interaction between two foveas -> different + unfusable images
    iii. Visual cortex suppresses the image from one eye
    b. Refractive/ ametropic (15-20%)
    i. Unequal refractive errors -> one eye not focused on the fovea
    c. Anisometropic - unequal need for vision correction
    d. Derivational (<5%)
    i. Congenital cataracts
    ii. Vitreous haemorrhage
    iii. Severe refractory error
    e. 15-20% is combined
  4. Treatment
    a. Remove media opacity
    b. Glasses
    c. Good eye is covered (occlusion therapy) or blurred with glasses (fogging) or drops – stimulates the proper visual development of the more affected eye
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31
Q

Relative afferent pupillary defect

A

Sensitive measure of retinal and/or optic nerve dysfunction.

Direct pupil dilates when light shined in that eye.

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32
Q

Hyperopia

A

= farsightedness [can see far]

o Parallel rays of light come to focus posterior to the retina
o Results from short AP diameter of eye or lower refractive power of cornea or lens
o Majority of children hyperopic at birth
o Manifests as eye strain, headaches or fatigue
o Results in great accommodative effort
o If not treated can result in bilateral amblyopia (ametropic amblyopia) or esotropia

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33
Q

Myopia

A

= near sightedness [can see near]
o Parallel rays of light come to focus anterior to the retina
o Results from long AP diameter of the eye or higher refractive power of the cornea or lens
o Tend to squint – as results in improved VA (pinhole effect)
o Infrequent in infants and preschool aged children
o More common in infants with retinopathy of prematurity
o Hereditary tendency
o Degree of myopia increases with age

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34
Q

Astigamatism

A

= refractive powers of the various meridians of the eye differ
o Most cases due to irregularity in the curvature of the cornea
o Mild cases do not require treatment and are asymptomatic
o With greater degrees can result in visual distortion
o May require glasses

Causes consistent blurred vision both near and far (but as above often mild/asymptomatic)

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35
Q

Anisometropia

A

= differences in refractive state of each eye

o If uncorrected can develop amblyopia due to constantly being out of focus

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36
Q

Accommodation disorders

A

o Accommodation = ciliary muscle contracts, the suspensory fibers of the lens relax, and the lens assumes a more rounded shape increasing the lens power
o Amplitude of accommodation is greatest in childhood and gradually decreases with age (= presbyopia)
o Disorders in accommodation is relatively rare

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37
Q

Blindness - general

A
  1. Definitions
    a. Vision impaired = VA 20/70 – 20/200
    i. Prevalence 1/500 school aged children
    b. Blindness = VA >20/200
  2. Epidemiology
    a. Severe visual impairment (corrected vision poorer than 6/60) and blindness in children is uncommon
    b. Incidence 2.5 per 100,000 children
    c. Incidence highest in developing countries, LBW infants and in first year of life
  3. Aetiology
    a. Mild-moderate
    i. Usually refractory errors
  4. Most commonly myopia near sighted
    b. Blindness/severe impairment
    i. Most common is retinopathy of prematurity
    ii. Cataracts
    iii. Albinism
    iv. Congenital infection
    v. HIE
    vi. Hydrocephalus
Key Question – Is there nystagmus? 
•	If no 
o	Cortical visual impairment 
o	Delayed visual development  
o	COMA – oculomotor apraxia; abnormality in enervation of saccades, cannot generate rapid eye movements; blink end fixation 
•	If yes
o	Anterior – cataract, aniridia, albinism, cornea
o	Posterior segment pathology
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38
Q

Diplopia - general

A

• Generally, results from misalignment of the visual axes

• Binocular
o Occluding either eye relieves the diplopia if it is binocular in effect
o Affected eye commonly squint, cover one eye with a hand, or assume abnormal head tilt
o Onset of diplopia requires full evaluation
o DDX
 Increased ICP/ brain tumour
 Infection
 Migraine
 GBS
 Orbital mass

• Monocular
o Monocular diplopia results from dislocation of the lens, cataract, dry eyes or defect in media or macula
o Covering the non-diplopic eye will not relieve symptoms
o May be psychological

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39
Q

Nyctalopia

A

= night blindness

•	Vision that is defective in reduced illumination 
•	Aetiology
o	Inherited – AD, AR, X linked
o	Vitamin A deficiency
o	Drugs – quinine
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40
Q

Amaurosis - general

A
  1. Amaurosis = partial or total loss of vision; describes profound impairment, blindness or near blindness
  2. Aetiology
    a. Congenital (neurological, developmental malformation, infection, hypoxia, trauma)
    b. Acquired
    i. Ocular disease
  3. Cataract
  4. Chorioretinitis
  5. Retinoblastoma
  6. Retinitis pigmentosa
    ii. Rapid onset
  7. Infectious process
  8. Vasculitis
  9. Migraine
  10. Leukaemia
  11. Demyelination
  12. Clinical manifestations
    a. Nystagmus or strabismus
    b. Timidity, clumsiness, behavioural change
  13. Investigations
    a. Complete ophthal assessment
    b. Imaging
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41
Q

Cortical visual impairment

A

• Visual impairment caused by a brain problem rather than eye problem

•	Aetiology
o	Hypoxia 
o	Developmental brain abnormality
o	Head injury
o	Infections – meningitis, encephalitis
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42
Q

Delayed visual maturation

A

• Describes infants who do not exhibit the ability to fix or follow objects in the environment
o Child appears blind – unable to focus attention, fixate or follow
• Normal ocular and neurological examination
• Improves by age of 6 months without treatment
• Pathophysiology unknown

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43
Q

Aniridia

A

a. Hypoplastic iris tissue
b. May be associated with other eye abnormalities – macular and optic nerve hypoplasia
c. Bilateral in 98% of cases

d. Aetiology = genetic
i. 2/3 of cases AD
ii. 1/3 of cases sporadic

e. Consequences
i. Glaucoma – develops in 75%
ii. Wilm’s tumour – develops in 20% of individuals with sporadic aniridia
1. Gene for aniridia close to the Wilm’s tumour gene

f. Management
i. Screening using renal USS 3-6/12 until 5 years of age if there is an 11p13 region deletion

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44
Q

Coloboma

A

a. Developmental defect of the iris – defect of a sector, hole or notch in the pupillary margin
b. May be associated with other abnormalities
c. Always located inferiorly
d. AD in most cases

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45
Q

Congenital mydriasis

A

a. Pupils appear dilated and do not constrict significantly to light or near gaze
b. Respond minimally to miotic agents
c. Iris is otherwise normal
d. Affected individuals usually healthy

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46
Q

Anisocoria

A

a. Inequality of pupils – due to local or neurological disorders

b. Note
i. If inequality is more pronounced in the presence of bright focal illumination or near gaze – defect in pupillary constriction and the larger pupil is abnormal (CNIII)
ii. If inequality is more pronounced with reduced illumination – defect in dilation the smaller pupil is abnormal (Horner’s syndrome)

c. Aetiology
i. Neurological = parasympathetic or sympathetic lesions
1. CNIII palsy
2. Horner’s syndrome
ii. Local causes
1. Synechiae = adhesions
2. Congenital iris defects

47
Q

Paradoxical pupil reaction

A

a. Paradoxical constriction of the pupils to darkness
b. Mechanism unclear
c. Aetiology
i. Night blindness
ii. Albinism
iii. Retinitis pigmentosa
iv. Leber congenital retinal amaurosis

48
Q

Heterochromia

A

a. The irides are of different colour
b. Simple heterochromia AD

c. Congenital heterochromia also a feature of Waardenburg syndrome
i. AD
ii. Lateral displacement of the inner canthi and puncta
iii. Pigmentary disturbances – median forelock and patches of hypopigmentation of the skin
iv. Defective hearing

49
Q

Leukocoria

A

a. Includes any white pupillary reflex

b. Aetiology
i. Cataract
ii. Chorioretinal coloboma
iii. Retinoblastoma
iv. Persistent hyperplastic primary vitreous
v. Cicatricial retinopathy of prematurity
vi. Retinal detachment
xi. Leukaemia

50
Q

Lisch nodules

A

a. Commonly seen in NF
b. Melanocytic hamartomas of the iris
c. No visual disturbance
d. Found in 92-100% of individuals >5 years of age
e. Slit-lamp may be required

51
Q

Strabismus - bg

A
  1. Key points
    a. Misalignment of the eyes
    b. Definition = abnormality in ocular alignment resulting in inadequate binocular vision and loss of depth perception
    c. Most common eye problem in children – affects 4% of children <6 years
    d. Can result in vision loss (amblyopia) + psychological effects
    e. 30-50% develop amblyopia
    f. Restoration of proper visual axis essential for normal binocular vision
  2. Classification
    a. Esotropia / convergent – inward rotation, with nasal deviation relative to fixated eye
    b. Exotropia / divergent – outward rotation, with temporal deviation relative to fixated eye
    c. Hypertropia – upwards rotation
    d. Hypotropia – downwards rotation
  3. Consequences
    a. Child
    i. Amblyopia
    ii. Loss of binocular depth perception
    b. Adults
    i. Diplopia
    c. Children + adults
    i. Head may be turned to maximise binocular function - abnormal or compensatory head posture
52
Q

Strabismus - aetiology

A

a. Benign and common
i. Primary failure of binocular vision
ii. Abnormality of convergence or divergence
iii. Refractory error

b. Loss of vision in one eye
i. Trauma
ii. Eye – Retinoblastoma, cataract, prematurity
iii. CNS – hydrocephalus, increased ICP with tumor, CN 6 palsy (esotropia), CN3 palsy (exotropia), CNS infection
iv. NM – GBS, myasthenia, MS, botulinism
v. Acquired - Grave’s disease, drugs, toxins

c. Genetic component

d. Syndromes
- monocular elevation deficiency
- Duane syndrome (retraction of the globe on adduction)
- Mobius syndrome (congenital facial paresis, bilateral/asymmetric/incomplete)
- Brown syndrome
- Parinaud syndrome

53
Q

Strabismus - sx, cx

A
  1. Clinical manifestations
    a. Head posturing
    b. Strabismus
  2. Key complications = amblyopia
    a. Amblyopia is a functional reduction in VA caused by visual dysfunction during critical period of eye development
    b. Head postures
    c. Loss of binocular depth position
  3. Patterns
    a. Esotropia = convergent (2/3 most common)
    i. Can occur as normal variant <6months
    ii. Hyperopia in one eye – usual onset 0-3years
  4. Begins as intermittent or latent (worse when tired), gets worse with looking at near objects
    iii. Pathological causes (as per aetiology card)
  5. Suspect if late onset and constant
  6. Constant, no change with near/far objects
    b. Exotropia = divergent (1/3)
    i. Congenital – present from infancy
    ii. Myopia in one eye – usual onset >4years
  7. Intermittent, latent, worse when looking at far away objects
    iii. Pathological causes
  8. Suspect if late onset and constant
54
Q

Strabismus - assessment

A

a. Visual acuity – cover eye test assumes VA
b. Eye movements – cover eye test assumes movements
c. Red reflex – cataract/Rb/coloboma
d. Fundoscopy and slit lamp Ex for intraocular pathology

e. Observation
i. Test for pseudostrabismus (appearance of strabismus due to flat nasal bridge, epicanthal folds, closely spaced eyes) = Hirschberg corneal light reflex test – shine light onto corneal surface at distance of 1m
1. Symmetry on both sides = pseudostrabismus
2. Asymmetry = strabismus
ii. Head posturing
1. Multiple causes
2. Can differentiate eye problem from muscular – cover eyes and if eyes then will correct, if binocular vision and cover one eye then will correct

f. Cover/uncover eye test
i. Cover
1. If tropia, affected eye will fix when normal eye covered
ii. Uncover
1. If tropia and there is immediate return to previous strabismus then can assume decreased VA in affected eye
2. If tropia and there is delay in return to previous strabismus then assume equal VA between eyes

g. Other
i. Measure vision (including Stereoacuity)
ii. Document diplopia
iii. Measure deviation
iv. Measure refractive index
v. Examine for other diseases

55
Q

Strabismus - rx

A

a. Aims of treatment
i. Treat amblyopia
ii. Minimise/ overcome diplopia
iii. Maximise binocular depth perception
iv. Improve binocular visual field (convergent squints only)
v. Improve cosmesis

b. Types
i. Correct refractive errors with glasses
ii. Eye patch
1. Indicated if amblyopia
2. First line in preference to surgical management
3. Remove patch for 2 hours each day
iii. Surgery

56
Q

Nystagmus - bg

A
  1. Key points
    a. Nystagmus = rhythmic oscillation of one or both eyes
    b. Caused by abnormality in any one of the 3 mechanisms which maintain position + movement of eye
    i. Fixation
    ii. Conjugate gaze
    iii. Vestibular mechanism
    c. Name the nystagmus by naming the fast movement
    d. Pathological nystagmus more likely dysconjugate
    e. NOTE: INO = abducting nystagmus + adducting defect
  2. Aetiology
    a. Idiopathic
    b. Chiasmal misrouting = albinism, achiasma
    c. Associated with other ocular disease
    i. Achromatopsia
    ii. Congenital stationary night blindness
    iii. Ciliopathies
    d. Neurological abnormalities – eg. T21, Noonan, brain tumours, periventricular leukomalacia
  3. Classification
    a. Motor
    i. Congenital nystagmus
    ii. Variably reduced vision
  4. Vision not determined by how fast or how much it moves – determines on how often it fixates
  5. Only needs to be still for 100th of a second to perceive things
    iii. Null point with compensatory head position
    b. Sensory
    i. Anything that reduces vision significantly in the first 3 months can cause nystagmus
    ii. Albinism
    iii. Untreated bilateral cataract
    iv. Retinal abnormality
57
Q

Lagophthalmos

A

a. Complete closure of the lids over the globe is difficult or impossible
b. Exposure of the eye may result in drying, infection, corneal ulceration or perforation of the cornea

c. Aetiology
i. Facial nerve palsy
ii. Thyrotoxicosis
iii. Structural – due to burns or injury to the eyelid
iv. Craniosynostosis

58
Q

Ectropion, entropion, epiblepharon

A

a. Ectropion = eversion of the lid margin
b. Entropion = inversion of the lid margin
c. Epiblepharon = commonly seen in children; roll of skin beneath the lower eyelid lashes causes the lashes to be directed vertically and touch the cornea

59
Q

Blepharitis

A

a. Inflammation of the lid margin
b. Commonly bilateral and chronic or recurrent
c. 2 main types = staphylococcal, seborrheic

60
Q

Stye

A

a. Infection of the glands of the lid may be acute or subacute
b. Usually caused by staphylococcal aureus

61
Q

Chalazion

A

= meibomian cyst

a. Granulomatous inflammation of a meibomian gland
b. Characterised by firm, non-tender nodule in the upper or lower eyelid
c. May require surgery
d. Often spontaneously resolve

62
Q

Dacrostenosis

A

= congenital nasolacrimal duct obstruction

  1. Key points
    a. Most common disorder of lacrimal system
    b. Occurs in 20% of newborn infants
    c. Usually caused by failure of canalization of duct
    d. Partial or complete
  2. Clinical manifestations
    a. Excessive tear lake
    b. Overflow of tears
    c. Reflux of mucoid material that is produced in the lacrimal sack
    d. Erythema or maceration of the skin due to irritation and rubbing
  3. Risk factors
    a. T21
    f. CHARGE syndrome
    g. Goldenhar syndrome
    Other syndromes
  4. Complications
    a. Dacrocystitis = inflammation and infection
    b. Pericystitis = inflammation of surrounding tissue
    c. Periorbital cellulitis
  5. Treatment
    a. Nasolacrimal massage 2-3 x per day
    b. Topical antibiotics
    c. 96% resolve by age 1 of year
    d. If not improved by 1 year the nasolacrimal duct may be probed with topical anaesthesia
63
Q

Alacrima

A

Dry eye

  1. Key points
    a. Reduced or absent tear secretion
  2. Aetiology
    a. Syndromes
    i. Familial dysautonomia
    ii. Anhidrotic ectodermal dysplasia
    iii. Triple A syndrome (achalasia (denervation of oesophage), Addisons, alacrima)
    b. Aplasia of CN and lacrimal aplasia/ hypoplasia
  3. Clinical manifestations
    a. Asymptomatic
    b. Dry eye
    c. Photophobia
    d. FB sensation
    e. Reduced vision
  4. Treatment
    a. Aggressive lubrication
64
Q

Epiphora

A

Wet/watery eye, excessive watering of the eye

DDx
•	Acute
o	Corneal FB – eye often erythematous, acute
o	Corneal abrasion
o	Subtarsal foreign body
•	Chronic
o	Nasolacrimal duct obstruction 
o	Allergic conjunctivitis 
o	Glaucoma
65
Q

Conjunctivitis - general

A
  1. Bacterial conjunctivitis
    a. Characterised by conjunctival hyperaemia, edema, mucopurulent exudate, glued eyes, pain and discomfort
    b. Usually bacterial infection
    c. More common in young children (<5 years)
    d. Most frequently caused by H influenza (60-80%), pneumococci (20%) and staphylococci (5-10%)
    e. Treatment with topical antibiotics
  2. Viral conjunctivitis
    a. Characterised by watery discharge, follicular changes (aggregates of lymphocytes) in the palpabebral conjunctiva
    b. May be unilateral
    c. Often associated with periauricular nodes
    d. More common in older children
    e. Adenovirus most common
  3. Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis
    a. Due to adenovirus type 8
    b. Presents as FB sensation, itching, burning
    c. Subsequently edema and photophobia develop with large oval follicles in the conjunctiva
  4. Allergic conjunctivitis
    a. Characterised by intense itching, clear watery discharge, conjunctival edema (chemosis)
    b. Seen in Spring
  5. Vernal conjunctivitis
    a. Usually begins in pre-pubertal years
    b. Large, flattened cobble stone like papillary lesions of the palpebral conjunctivae are characteristic
    c. Stringy exudate and a milky conjunctival pseudomembrane are common
  6. Parinaud oculoglandular syndrome
    a. Form of cat-scratch disease caused by Bartonella hensalae
    b. Bacteria can deposit in the conjunctiva after rubbing eye after handling cat
    c. Lymphadenopathy and conjunctivitis are hallmarks of the disease
66
Q

Megalo and micro-cornea

A
  1. Megalocornea
    a. Non-progressive enlarged cornea
    b. Myopia frequently present
    c. Complication is the development of opacities in adult life
    d. All modes of inheritance described
    e. May be associated with Marfan syndrome, craniosynostosis and Alport syndrome
  2. Microcornea
    a. Small cornea in an otherwise normal eye
    b. Associated defects – coloboma, microphakia, congenital cataract, glaucoma, aniridia
67
Q

Dendritic keratitis

A

a. Infection with HSV – tree-like ulceration
b. Accompanied by pain, photophobia, tearing, blapherospasm, and conjunctival injection
c. Requires aggressive treatment with systemic antivirals
d. Topical corticosteroids may exacerbate superficial herpetic disease resulting in corneal perforation

68
Q

Corneal ulcers

A

a. Result in focal or diffuse corneal haze, hyperaemia, lid edema, pain, photophobia, tearing, and blepharospasm
b. Hypopyon (pus in anterior chamber) common
c. Usually occur in contact lens wearers
d. Serious infections – Pseudomonas, Neisseria
e. Aggressive treatment required
f. Unexplained corneal ulcers in children should raise concerns of sensory defect – Riley-Day, Goldenhar-Gorlin syndrome, or metabolic disorder such as tyorisnaemia

69
Q

Corneal manifestations of systemic disease

A

a. Cystinosis = polychromatic crystals deposited through the cornea
b. MPS = corneal deposits
c. GM gangliosidoses = corneal deposits
d. Kayser-Fleischer ring = Wilson disease

70
Q

Cataracts

A
  1. Key points
    a. Cataract = lens opacity
    b. 60% are isolated, 20% part of a syndrome
    c. More common in LBW infants
  2. Disorders associated with cataracts
    a. Craniofacial syndromes = Smith-Lemli-Opitz, inherited craniosynostosis syndromes, Pierre-Robin
    b. Metabolic = galactosaemia, mannosidosis, refsum, Zellweger
    c. Skeletal = Stickler syndrome, chondrodysplasia punctate
    d. CNS disorders
    e. Intrauterine infection = toxo, rubella, CMV, HSV, syphilis
    f. Dermatological = ectodermal dysplasia, incontentia pigmenti, Rothmund-Thomson syndrome, congenital icthyosis, Cockayne syndrome
    g. Renal = Lowe syndrome, Alport syndrome
    h. Muscular disorders = myotonic dystrophy, walker-warburg syndrome
    i. Apical = Rubenstein-Taybi, Bardet-Biedl, oculodentodigital dysplasia
    j. Chromosomal abnormalities = T21, T1, T13, Wolf-Hirschhorn syndrome (4p syndrome), Turner, Cri du chat syndrome (5p syndrome)
    k. Miscellaneous = aniridia, Stickler, ROP, NF type 2
71
Q

Ectopia lentis

A

Lens displacement

  1. Key points
    a. Abnormality in the suspensory system of the lens may result in displacement
    b. Results in blurred vision, diplopia
  2. Aetiology
    a. Trauma
    b. Ocular disease – uveitis, tumour, congenital glaucoma, high myopia, megalocornea, aniridia
    c. Systemic diseases
    i. Marfan syndrome – occurs in 80%, evident in 50% by 5 years of age
  3. Usually superior and temporal
  4. Usually bilateral
    ii. Homocystinuria – often evident by 5 years of life
  5. Inferiorly and nasally displaced
  6. Treatment
    a. Surgical repair
72
Q

Lenticonus

A

• Anterior lenticonus = rare bilateral condition in which the anterior capsule of the lens thins, allowing the lens to bulge forward centrally
o Prominent feature of Alport syndrome*** (pathognomonic - anterior)
• Posterior lenticonus = bulge of the posterior lens capsule and lens
o More common than anterior

73
Q

Uveitis - general

A
  1. Key points
    a. Uveal tract = iris, ciliary body + choroid
    b. Uveitis = inflammation of any component of the uvea
    c. Most important cause in children is JIA***
  2. Aetiology
    - Anterior: rheum/autoimmune/systemic
    d. Beware the PANAFY = pauciarticular ANA positive female young -> more regular screening for JIA patients who are ANA positive
    - Posterior: infection, TINU
    - some overlap between causes
  3. Clinical manifestations
    a. Anterior uveitis (pain+red, no visual change)
    i. Pain and redness
    ii. Erythema primarily at the limbus
    iii. Constricted pupil + pain
    iv. Variable visual loss
    b. Posterior + intermediate uveitis (no pain/red, changed vision)
    i. Usually painless
    ii. Non-specific visual changes such as floaters and/or reduced visual acuity
    iii. Erythema is NOT a prominent feature
  4. Complications
    a. Band keratopathy = deposition of calcium in the epithelium of the cornea
    b. Posterior synechiae = adhesion of the iris to the lens which lies posterior to it
    c. Cataract = resulting from inflammation in some patients or glucocorticoid treatment in others
    d. Intraocular hypertension + glaucoma
  5. Investigations
    a. Slit lamp examination diagnostic
  6. Treatment
    a. Treatment dependent on underlying cause
    b. Immunosuppression for JIA
74
Q

Persistence of foetal vasculature in retina

A
  1. Key points
    a. Spectrum of manifestations
    b. Caused by persistence of various portions of the fetal hyaloid vascular system + associated fibrovascular tissue
    c. Usually unilateral
    d. May occur in infants with no other abnormalities or history of prematurity
  2. Pathogenesis
    a. During eye development the hyaloid artery extends from the optic disc to the posterior aspect of the lens – sends branches into the vitreous and ramifies to form the posterior portion of thee vascular capsule of the lens
    b. Posterior portion of the hyaloid system normally regresses by the 7th fetal month and the anterior portion by the 9th fetal month
    c. Remnants = PFV
  3. Clinical manifestations
    a. Presence of vascularised plaque of tissue on the back surface of the lens
    b. Eye is microphthalmic or slightly smaller than usual
    c. Anterior PFV = leukocoria, strabismus, nystagmus
    i. Usually progressive
    ii. Poor outcome
    iii. Complications = intra-ocular haemorrhage, swelling of the lens caused by rupture of the posterior capsule, and glaucoma
  4. Treatment
    a. Surgery
75
Q

Retinitis pigmentosa

A

MRCPCH book: a pigmentary retinopathy characterised by night blindeness (earliest), progressive loss of peripheral visual field and loss of central vision (final). Symptoms usually do not develop until 2nd-3rd decade. Early retinal changes show pigment deposition as seen in midperipheral retina.

Systemic associations

  • Usher syndrome = most common, deafness then vision
  • Refsum’s disease (peroxisomal disorder)
  • Abetalipoproteinaemia (fat malabsorption -> steatorrhoea, ataxia)
  1. Key points
    a. Group of inherited dystrophies
    b. Characterised by progressive degeneration and dysfunction of the retina - primarily affect the photoreceptor and pigment epithelial function
    c. May occur alone or as part of a syndrome
    d. Family history in 70%
  2. Clinical manifestations
    a. Age of onset
    i. Varies, childhood to adulthood
    ii. Photoreceptor degeneration can be detected many years before become aware of visual problems
    b. Night blindness earliest symptom
    i. Very gradual, can go unnoticed
    c. Loss of visual field
    i. Starts in midperiphery, progresses more peripherally
    ii. Results in constricted visual field
    d. Ophthalmoscopy
    i. Optic disc pallor, attenuated vessels, pigment deposits in bone-spicule pattern
    ii. Macula affected in advanced disease
  3. Investigations
    a. Dark adaptometry: Pt exposed to bright light stimulus, then put in the dark for 30 minutes, minimum intensity light that can be detected by pt measured at interval time points.
    b. Full-field and multifocal electroretinography (ERG): Electrode placed on cornea or skin of eyelid, and colour and intensity of a light stimulus are manipulated to activate cones or rods.
76
Q

Cherry red spot

A

• Cherry red spot = bright to dull red spot at the center of the macula surrounded and accentuated by grayish-white or yellowish halo
o Halo forms due to loss of transparency of the retinal ganglion cell layer secondary to edema or lipid accumulation
o As ganglion cells are not present in the fovea the retina surrounding the fovea is opacified by the fovea transmits the normal underlying choroidal colour (red)

•	Conditions 
o	Sphingolipidoses***
	Tay-Sachs – GM2 type 1
	Sandhoff variant – GM2 type 2
	Generalised gangliosidoses – GM1 type 1 
o	Similar but less distinctive
	Metachromatic leukodystrophy
	Niemann-Pick disease
	Galactosialidosis
	Mucolipidoses 

• NOTE: cherry red spot that characteristically occurs as a result of retinal ischaemia secondary to vasospasm, ocular contusion or occlusion of central retinal artery must be differentiated

77
Q

Phakoma

A

• Herald lesions of hamartomatous disorders
• Tuberous sclerosis = refractile, yellowish, multinodular cystic lesion arising from the disc or retina
o Benign astrocytic proliferations
• NF = rarely have similar lesions
• VHL = haemangioblastoma
• Sturge-Weber = choroidal haemangioma

78
Q

Coat disease

A

Boys, 8-10 years
Unilateral
Peripheral retinal telangiectasias and aneurysmal dilatation lead to extensive areas of exudates giving the retina a yellow-white appearance, which may produce leukocoria.

  1. Clinical manifestations
    a. Blurred vision
    b. Leukocoria
    c. Strabismus
  2. Complications
    a. Rubeosis of the iris
    b. Glaucoma
    c. Cataract
  3. Treatment
    a. Photocoagulation
    b. Laser
79
Q

Diabetic retinopathy

A
  1. Key points
    a. Prevalence and course relates to child’s age
    b. Detectable microvascular changes are rare in pre-pubertal children
    c. Prevalence of retinopathy increases after puberty – especially >14 years
  2. Classification
    a. Non-proliferative
    i. Retinal micro-aneurysms
    ii. Venous dilation
    iii. Retinal hemorrhages = dot blot
    iv. Exudates
    b. Proliferative = more serious
    i. Neovascularisation + proliferation of fibrovascular tissue on the retina
    ii. Traction results in haemorrhage + scarring
    iii. Vision-threatening due to risk of haemorrhage, cicatrization, traction + retinal detachment
    iv. Neovascularisation of the iris may lead to secondary glaucoma
  3. Treatment
    a. Laser photocoagulation
    b. VEGF inhibitors
80
Q

Optic nerve aplasia/hypoplasia

A
  1. Optic nerve aplasia
    a. Rare congenital anomaly
    b. Typically unilateral
    c. Optic nerve, retinal ganglion cells + retinal blood vessels absent
    d. Occurs in otherwise healthy individual
  2. Optic nerve hypoplasia
    a. Non-progressive condition characterised by a subnormal number of optic nerve axons
    b. Nerve head typically appears small and pale, with a pale or pigmented peripapillary halo or double-ring sign
    c. Main feature of septo-optic dysplasia of de Morsier – disorder associated with midline anomalies
    d. Children with periventricular leukomalacia also develop an unusual form of optic nerve hypoplasia
81
Q

Papilloedema

A

a. Swelling of the nerve head secondary to raised ICP
b. Features = oedematous blurring of the disc margins, fullness or elevation of the nerve head, partial or complete obliteration of the disc cup, capillary congestion and hyperaemia of the nerve head, generalised engorgement of the veins, loss of spontaneous venous pulsation, nerve fibre layer hemorrhages, peripapillary exudates

82
Q

Optic neuritis

A

b. Inflammation or demyelination of the optic nerve with reduced function
c. Characterised by pain with eye movement
d. Results in decreased visual acuity, decreased colour vision + RAPD
e. Optic disc may or may not appear normal – if appear normal termed ‘retrobulbar optic neuritis’, if abnormal ten ‘ papillitis’ or ‘intraocular optic neuritis’

83
Q

Childhood glaucoma

A

UTD: Glaucoma is a heterogeneous group of eye diseases that are characterized by a progressive optic neuropathy, manifested by cupping of the optic disc and usually, but not always, associated with increased intraocular pressure (IOP).

  1. Key points
    a. Glaucoma = damage to the optic nerve with visual field loss that is caused by elevated pressure within the eye
    b. Infantile/congenital = <3 years
    c. Juvenile = 3 to 30 years
  2. Aetiology
    a. Primary (>50%) = isolated anomaly of the drainage apparatus of the eye (trabecular meshwork)
    b. Secondary = other ocular or systemic abnormalities are present
    i. Traumatic
    ii. Intra-ocular neoplasm
    iii. Uveitis
    iv. Lens-induced
    v. Surgery
    vi. Steroid induced
    vii. Rubeosis
    viii. Angle-closure glaucoma
    ix. Increased venous pressure
    x. Maternal rubella
    xi. Intraocular infection
  3. Clinical manifestations
    a. Classic triad
    i. Epiphoria (tearing/watery) (differentiated from nasolacrimal duct obstruction by the presence of rhinorrhoea - absent with duct obstruction)
    ii. Photophobia (sensitivity to light)
    iii. Blepharospasm (eyelid squeezing)
    b. Other features
    i. Corneal edema = results in cloudiness/ haziness
    ii. Corneal and ocular enlargement
    iii. Conjunctival injection
    iv. Corneal enlargement (buphthalmos = ox eye)
    c. Examination
    i. Cupping of the optic nerve
  4. Treatment
    a. Medical
    i. Beta blocker
    ii. Alpha agonist
    iii. Carbonic anhydrase inhibitors (acetazolamide)
    b. Surgical
  5. Prognosis
    a. Blindness if untreated
84
Q

Dacroadenitis

A
  • Inflammation of the lacrimal gland
  • Uncommon in childhood

• Acute
o May occur with mumps or EBV
o Staphylococcus aureus results in suppurative dacryoadenitis

• Chronic
o Associated with sarcoidosis, TB, syphilis

85
Q

Dacrocystitis

A
  • Infection of the lacrimal sac
  • Generally requires obstruction of the nasolacrimal system to allow its development
  • Acute dacryocystitis presents with redness + swelling overlying the lacrimal sac
  • Treated with warm compression + IV antibiotics
  • If occurs in newborns require systemic antibiotics and pressure to relieve obstruction – sometimes require probing to open the duct
86
Q

Orbital/periorbital cellulitis - bg

A
  1. Classification
    a. Periorbital = inflammation of the eyelids and periorbital tissue without signs of true orbital involvement
    b. Orbital = inflammation of the tissue of the orbit (fat and ocular muscles), with proptosis, limitation of eye movement, edema of the conjunctiva, swelling of eyelid +/- reduced visual acuity
  2. Pathogenesis
    a. Orbital cellulitis may result from
    i. Direct infection from a wound
    ii. Bacteraemia
    iii. Direct extension from contiguous site – particularly paranasal (ethmoid) sinuses
  3. Aetiology
    a. Hib – previously most common
    b. Streptococci - more likely if contiguous skin lesion
    c. S. aureus - more likely if contiguous skin lesion
    d. Pneumococcus
    e. Rarely – fungi and mycobacteria particularly if immunocompromised
    i. Mucorales – mucormycosis
    ii. Aspergillus
87
Q

Orbital/periorbital cellulitis - sx, ix

A
  1. Clinical manifestations
    a. Periorbital
    i. Common in young children
    ii. Eyelid swelling + edema – difficult to assess the globe
    iii. Generally mild, normal vision/pupil reactions
    b. Orbital
    i. Mean age 7 years
    ii. Systemic symptoms – fever toxicity, leukocytosis
    iii. Specific features or orbital cellulitis
  2. Pain with eye movements
  3. Proptosis
  4. Ophthalmoplegia with diplopia
  5. Chemosis (may occasionally occur in severe periorbital cellulitis)
    Impaired pupil reflexes (RAPD)
  6. Investigations
    a. CT scan if suspicion of orbital cellulitis
88
Q

Orbital/periorbital cellulitis - rx, cx

A
  1. Treatment
    a. IV ceftriaxone + flucloxacillin
    b. LP contraindicated until post imaging
  2. Complications (orbital)

a. Subperiosteal abscesses
b. Orbital abscesses
c. Extra-orbital extension
i. Meningitis
ii. Epidural or subdural empyema
iii. Brain abscesses
iv. Cavernous sinus thrombosis

d. Vision loss
i. Optic neuritis
ii. Ischaemia resulting form thrombophlebitis/ compression of orbital veins
iii. Pressure resulting in central retinal artery occlusion
e. Other = optic atrophy, exposure keratitis, retinal or choroidal ischaemia

89
Q

Eye injuries - bg

A
  1. Key points
    a. Serious eye injuries can be under-appreciated when children present with a painful eye or blurred vision.
    b. The following traumatic conditions threaten vision:
    i. Ruptured globe
    ii. FB- either intraocular or deep corneal
    iii. Large hyphaemas (intra-ocular bleeding -> causing acute glaucoma)
    iv. Retinal detachment
    v. Corneal burns, either chemical or thermal- alkalis penetrate deeper and have greater potential for serious and delayed burns.
    vi. Contact lens-related corneal infections (bacterial keratitis)
  2. NOTE:
    a. Relative afferent pupillary defect in the eye suggests presence of
    i. Traumatic optic neuropathy
    ii. Vitreous haemorrhage
    iii. Retinal detachment
    iv. Intracranial injury
    b. Traumatic optic neuropathy may result from:
    i. Compressive optic neuropathy
    ii. Optic nerve sheath haematoma
    iii. Optic nerve head avulsion
    iv. Optic nerve laceration
90
Q

Open globe

A
  1. Key points
    a. Penetrating, perforating or blunt injury
    b. One of the most life-threatening injuries that can be sustained
    c. Ophthalmological emergency
  2. Clinical manifestations
    a. Severe loss of vision
    b. Squashed or distorted appearance to globe
    c. Ocular contents extruding from globe
    d. Distorted or peaked pupil
    e. Loss of red reflex
    f. Relative afferent pupil defect
    g. Loss of ocular motility
    h. Shallow anterior chamber
    i. Chemosis - bulging of the conjunctiva
  3. Treatment
    a. Do not force eyelids open, remove protruding body
    b. Surgery
    c. Caution with opioids – aim to avoid vomiting as increases ICP
    d. Imaging
  4. Complications
    a. Vision loss = from corneal scarring, loss of intraocular contents, or infection
91
Q

Corneal abrasion/foreign body

A
  • If very large or deep defect seen, presume full thickness
  • Exclude foreign body, including under eyelid
  • Opthal referral if large, deep or central corneal foreign body
  • Remove under direct vision of slit lamp
  • Chloramphenicol ointment/ drops
  • Pad the eye for four hours (to prevent accidental further eye injury due to anaesthetic effect)
  • Cycloplegic eye drops (cyclopentolate 1% or homatropine 2%) can be used for relief of a very painful eye
  • Patients need daily review until corneal ulceration healed
92
Q

Ocular chemical injuries

A
  1. Key points
    a. Ophthalmological emergency
    b. Alkali burns = more destructive than acid burns as they react with fats to form soaps, which damage cell membranes and allow further penetration
    c. Acid burns = more localised tissue damage – precipitate proteins creating physical barrier against further penetration
  2. Treatment
    a. Copious irrigation with water or saline – minimum 3 L N saline until pH normal (6-8)
    b. Particulate matter – require GA
93
Q

Blowout fracture

A
  1. Key points
    a. Any bone of the orbit may fracture in a traumatic incident
    b. Superior and lateral wall fractures are LEAST common
    c. Orbital floor followed by medial wall most common – referred to as a blowout fracture
    i. Fracture may act as a trapdoor entrapping orbital contents
  2. Clinical manifestations
    a. Periorbital trauma + pain
    b. Diplopia, eyelid swelling, eye movement restriction, hypesthesia
    c. May have associated nausea + bradycardia if inferior rectus is entrapped
  3. Investigations
    a. CT scan
  4. Treatment = surgery
94
Q

Traumatic hyphema

A
  1. Key points
    a. Traumatic hyphema = blood in the anterior chamber
    b. Common complication of blunt or penetrating injury to the eye and can result in permanent vision loss.
  2. Clinical manifestations
    a. Bright red or dark fluid level between the cornea and iris
    b. Photophobia
    c. Decreased visual acuity
    d. Anisocoria (unequal pupils) and poor pupil reactivity
    e. Elevated intraocular pressure
    f. Damage to nearby structures (open globe, corneal abrasion, iritis, lens subluxation, optic neuropathy etc)
  3. Treatment
    a. Initial management aiming to avoid secondary rebleed and/or increased intraocular pressure
    i. Eye shield
    ii. Bed rest and dim lighting
    iii. Elevate head of the bed (promotes inferior settling of blood )
    iv. Control pain
    b. Avoid NSAIDs
  4. Complications
    a. Spontaneous rebleed is most common acute complication (within the first few days)
    i. Occurs in 0-38%.
    b. Increased intraocular pressure
    c. Optic atrophy
    d. Corneal blood staining
    e. Long-term = increased incidence of glaucoma
95
Q

NAI ocular injuries

A
  • Retinal hemorrhages

* Retinal fold – specific for severe crush injury or shake injury

96
Q

Teeth development

A
  1. Key points
    a. Primary teeth form in dental crypts
    b. By 12 weeks of fetal life bud like enlargements are present
    c. SUMMARY
    i. Primary/deciduous dentition = 6 months to 6 years
    ii. Mixed dentition = 6 years to 12 years
    iii. Permanent dentition = 12 years and over
  2. Primary dentition (front teeth until 3rd molar)
    a. Starts in utero, completed by 6 months
    b. FIRST
    i. Central and lateral incisors at 6-9months
    ii. Lower central- lower lateral – upper central – upper lateral
    c. NEXT
    i. Canines, molars at 1-3years
    ii. Canine – first molar – second molar
    iii. Upper and lower occur at the same time
  3. Permanent teeth (posterior molars and second lot front teeth)
    a. Often develop in utero 3-4months, complete by 3 years
    b. Eruption from 6-18yrs
    c. FIRST
    i. Central incisors – lateral incisors – 1st molar at 6-9years
    ii. Mandible slightly before maxilla
    d. THEN
    i. Canine, first and second premolars 6-9years
    ii. 2nd molar at 12 years, 3rd molar at 18years
97
Q

Anodontia

A

a. Absence of tooth

b. Teeth most commonly affected – 3rd molars, maxillary lateral incisors, mandibular 2nd premolars

98
Q

Supernumery teeth

A

a. May be normal or occur with cleidocranial dysplasia

99
Q

Delayed eruption - aetiology

A

a. Hypopituitarism
b. Hypothyroidism
c. Rickets
d. Gaucher disease (glucocerebrosidase deficiency results in accumulation of cerebroside in the visceral organs +/- the brain)
e. Down’s syndrome
f. Cleidocranial dysplasia

100
Q

Natal teeth

A

a. Present from birth or erupt very soon after
b. Usually lower anterior region
c. Issues – can be mobile, aspiration risk
d. Managed with removal
e. Can result in inflammatory ulceration
i. Sublingual ulceration
ii. Common in children with CP
iii. Important to exclude congenital sensory neuropathies – Riley Day, Lesch Nyan

101
Q

Maxillary frenulum

A

Connecting upper lip to upper gum

a. Maxillary frenulum
b. Speech – no conclusive evidence
c. Feeding – no conclusive evidence
d. Increased risk of decay

102
Q

Ankyloglossia

A

Tongue-tie

a. Prevalence 2-5%
b. Increased frequency in some syndromes
c. Speech - no evidence to support management

d. Indications for management
i. FTT
ii. Unable to latch

103
Q

Tooth injuries and management

A

Enamel and dentine injuries - see local dentist in a few weeks

Exposed pulp (pink, painful)

  • if primary tooth, call dental reg ?extraction
  • if permanent tooth, keep any fragments (milk) and call reg ?reattachement

Tooth concussion = tender but firm - outpatient dental
Subluxation = tender and loose - call dental reg

Lateral luxation or extrusion

  • primary = not repositioned or extracted
  • permanent = reposition and splint

Intrusion - call reg

Avulsion

  • primary - no reimplantation
  • permanent = milk, replace into socket and bite on gauze
104
Q

Dental caries - general

A

a. Infectious disease of bacterial origin – relationship between tooth surface, dietary CHO, oral bacteria
i. Particularly streptococci
b. Most common chronic disease in childhood in Australia
c. >50% of Australian 6-year-old children have caries – association with low socioeconomic status

d. Clinical manifestations
i. Initial appearance – opaque white spot
ii. Small lesions may be difficult to diagnose – large areas evident by darkened or cavitated lesions on tooth surface
iii. Childhood caries – early colonisation of child with cariogenic bacteria and frequent ingestion of sugar, either in the bottle or in solid food

e. Risk factors
i. Bad bacteria
ii. Absence of saliva
iii. Poor dietary habits
f. Protective factors
i. Saliva
ii. Antibacterials
iii. Fluoride
iv. Effective diet

g. Complications
i. Destroy the tooth and invade the dental pulp – resulting in inflammation (pulpitis) and significant pain
ii. Pulpitis can progress to pulp necrosis – ultimately resulting in bacterial invasion + dental abscess formation

h. Treatment
i. Oral hygiene
ii. Diet – avoidance of bottle drinking + fruit juice
iii. Dentist visits
iv. Fluoride water + toothpaste – prevention
v. If infection – penicillin treatment of choice

105
Q

Oro-facial granulomatosis

A

i. Granulomatous disorder of the face and oral cavity – presents as chronic, non-caseating granular mucogingivitis involving the peri-oral tissues and the oral mucosa
ii. OFG may be part of Crohn’s disease or may exist alone

106
Q

Gingival overgrowth

A

i. Secondary to phenytoin + cyclosporine

107
Q

Bifid uvula

A

a. Soft palate not working as valve - Hypernasal speech and difficulty feeding (food out the nose in infant)
b. VCF velo-cardio-facial syndrome – screen for cardiac anomalies, learning/behavioral issues, typical facies
c. Needs speech path, DO NOT remove adenoids

108
Q

Midline infant teeth

A

a. Look for midline associations – UDT, hypospadias, umbilical hernia, choanal atresia = growth hormone deficiency

109
Q

Lip pigmentation

A

a. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

b. Addison’s disease

110
Q

Cleft lip and palate - general

A
  1. Key points
    a. Clefts of the lip and palate are distinct entities closely related embryologically, functionally and genetically
    b. Cleft lip = due to hypoplasia of the mesenchymal layer, resulting in failure of the medial nasal and maxillary processes to joint
    c. Clef palate = failure of the palatal shelves to approximate or fuse
  2. Epidemiology
    a. Cleft lip +/- cleft palate = 1/750
    b. Cleft palate = 1/2,5000 births
  3. Risk factors
    a. Gender = cleft lip more common in males
    b. Maternal drug exposure
    c. Syndrome-malformation complex
    d. Genetic factors
  4. Treatment
    a. Feeding support
    i. Soft artificial nipples with large openings, squeezable bottle + support
    b. Surgical closure
    i. Usually done around 3 months
    ii. Done <1 year to ensure normal speech development
  5. Sequelae
    a. Recurrent otitis media + hearing loss
    b. Malpositioned teeth requiring correction
    c. Misarticulations and velopharyngeal dysfunction
111
Q

Velopharyngeal dysfunction

A

E.g. secondary to cleft lip and palate

a. Velopharyngeal dysfunction = inability to form an effective seal between the oropharynx and nasopharynx during swallowing or phonation

b. Clinical manifestations
i. Hypernasal speech
ii. Conspicuous constrictive movement of the nares during speech
iii. Inability to whistle, gargle, blow out a candle, or inflate a balloon
iv. Loss of liquid through the nose when drinking with head done
v. Otitis media
vi. Hearing loss

112
Q

Salivary gland hyperplasia

A

a. Bilateral submaxillary enlargement
i. AIDS
ii. CF
iii. EBV
iv. Malnutrition

b. Parotid enlargement
i. Chronic vomiting

c. Benign salivary gland hypertrophy
i. Endocrinopathies – thyroid disease, diabetes, Cushings

d. Infiltrative + tumours uncommon

113
Q

Parotitis

A

a. Acute
i. Usually caused by blockage and superinfection
ii. Due to salivary stone or mucous
iii. Stones can be removed by physical manipulation, surgery or lithotripsy

b. Recurrent parotitis
i. Can occur in otherwise healthy children
ii. Usually lasts 2-3 weeks
iii. Treatment = local heat, massaging the gland, and antibiotics

c. Suppurative parotitis
i. Caused by Staphylococcus aureus
ii. Usually unilateral, may be accompanied by fever