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VetTechPrep > Questions (no) > Flashcards

Questions (no) Flashcards

1
Q

Epidural Inj. and Fluid

A

If giving an epidural and the needle fills with clear/pale/straw fluid (cerebrospinal fluid: CSF)
* needle in subarachnoid splace
* aspirate and observe for blood
* if none, give half of the calculated dose of anesthetic

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2
Q

Non-rebreathing System

A
  • Used for those under 5 kg
  • No CO2 absorbers or unidirectional valves
  • Sufficient oxygen flow rates constantly flush system
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3
Q

Ketamine Effects

A

Increased
* cardiac output
* HR
* BP

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4
Q

Isoflurane Effects

A

Profound hypotension

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5
Q

Propofol Effects

A

Administer slowly - commonly causes apnea and hypotension

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6
Q

Radiography
Foreshortened

A

Distortion is avoided by having x-ray beam perpendicular to long axis of bone and x-ray cassette
* this happens when bones are not perpendicular to beam

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7
Q

Radiography
Elongation

A

Distortion is avoided by having x-ray beam perpendicular to long axis of bone and x-ray cassette
* this happens when cassette is not perpendicular to beam

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8
Q

Body Structure Most Sensitive
to Radiation

A

Ocular Lens

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9
Q

Radiography
Vertebrae

A

Intervertebral disc spaces appear wider toward the center of the film and narrower towards the end of the film
* myelogram useful for spinal cord compression; not disc space

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10
Q

Bone Scan

A

Administration of bone-seeking radioisotope that is taken up in areas of bone turnover
* nuclear medicine test
* Technetium phosphate
* does not identify cancer - identifies bony sites that should be evaluated for metastasis

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11
Q

Olecranon

A

Structure of the Ulna
* found at proximal portion
* forms point of elbow
* triceps attach here

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12
Q

Fistulogram

A

Radiograph taken after contrast agent given into a draining tract

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13
Q

Radiography
Respiratory Distress

A

Contraindicated to place animal on its back
* make more difficult to fully expand lungs

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14
Q

Osteosarcoma

A

Malignant Bone Tumor
* most common bone tumor in dogs
* 90% metastatic rate

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15
Q

Osteoma

A

Benign Bone Tumor

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16
Q

Hemangiosarcoma

A

Tumor of blood vessels
* most common splenic tumor
* cancerous

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17
Q

Chondroma

A

Benign tumor of cartilage

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18
Q

Atrial Fibrillation

A

Irregular arrhythmia
* SA node isn’t firing properly
* electrocardiogram identifies
* lack of p waves

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19
Q

Ventricular Fibrillation

A

Severely abnormal heart rhythm
* see often in those who have had cardiac arrests

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20
Q

Third Degree AV Block

A

Complete Heart Block
* rare in horses - exercise intolerance / syncope
* associated with degenerative / inflammatory changes in heart

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21
Q

Tension Pneumothorax

A

Air accumulates under pressure in pleural space
* around lungs, not in
* tear in chest forms 1-way valve - air comes in but can’t exit
* pressure inside > pressure outside of chest

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22
Q

Placing a Urinary Catheter
in Dogs and Cats

A
  • Coat in steril lube and wear sterile gloves
  • advance until urine flows
  • advance additional 1 cm and secure into place
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23
Q

Definitive Host

A

Harbors the adult, sexual stage of a parasite

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24
Q

Intermediate Host

A

Harbors larval, asexual, or immature forms of a parasite

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25
Q

Paratenic Host

A

Also called a transport host
* type of intermediate host
* parasite does not develop into next stage

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26
Q

Reservoir Host

A

Vertebrate host for a parasite
* source of infection for people or domestic animals

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27
Q

Chyme

A

Partially digested food of stomach that passes into intestine

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28
Q

Abscess

A

Collection of pus that accumulates
* surrounded by inflammatory tissue

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29
Q

Cyst

A

Closed-off sac that may contain
* fluid
* air
* semi-solid material

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30
Q

Vesicle

A

Small blister on skin or mucosa
* similar to cyst

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31
Q

Adenoma

A

Benign glandular tumor

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32
Q

Seborrhea

A

Skin condition
* greasy skin - excessive sebum (overproductive glands)
* dry skin - flaking scales

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33
Q

Oxytocin

A

Stimulates the milk letdown reflex

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34
Q

Progesterone

A
  • Maintains pregnancy
  • helps with growth of mammary tissues that produce milk (estrogen helps also)
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35
Q

Testosterone

A

Male Sex Hormone

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36
Q

Week-Old Puppy
Temperature

A

94-99 F
* if falls below, HR will drop and intestinal motion stops
* death to occur

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37
Q

Pylorus

A

Connects stomach to upper small intestine

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38
Q

Lower Esophageal Sphincter

A

Located between the esophagus and stomach

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39
Q

Duodenal Papilla

A

Raised areas that make the openings of the common bile duct and pacreatic duct into the duodenum

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40
Q

Bile Duct

A

Connects liver to duodenum
* carries bile from liver
* aids in digestion

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41
Q

Pancreas

A

Secretes digestive enzymes into duodenum via pancreatic duct
* connects to duodenum (first segment of small intestine)

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42
Q

Surgical Milk

A

Place surgical instruments into milk after ultrasonic cleaner
* lubricates instruments
* protects from rust

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43
Q
A

Jamshidi Needle
* obtains bone marrow core
* needle goes into cortical bone (iliac crest)
* rotates back and forth to cut bone piece

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44
Q

Eclampsia

A

Indicated with low ionized calcium levels
* important when it comes to pregnancy

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45
Q

Intussusception

A

Telescoping of one part of the bowel into an adjacent segment
* see often with young animals with hx of diarrhea

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46
Q

Mesenteric Volvulus

A

Twisting of the intestine at the root of mesentery
* immediately life-threatening

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47
Q
A

Brown-Adson Forceps
* grasp tissue without excessive trauma
* fine teeth on tip allow for grabbing delicate tissue

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48
Q

Ehmer Sling

A

Keeps femoral heal deeply seated within acetabulum
* internally rotates and abductes the hip

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49
Q

Velpeau Sling

A

Prevents weight-brearing on the forelimb
* cradles forelimb against shoulder and chest wall

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50
Q

Spica Splint

A

Semi-rigid splint bandage
* immobilizes elbow or shoulder

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51
Q

Schroeder-Thomas Splint

A

External weight-bearing device used for fractures

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52
Q

Caudectomy

A

Removal of animal’s tail

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53
Q

Fresh Superficial Laceration
How Long for Primary Closure

A

8 Hours
* the tissue starts getting compromised with risk of infection and necrosis

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54
Q

Wound
Primary Closure

A

Wound is classified as clean or clean-contaminated
* immediate care of wound

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55
Q

Wound
Delayed Primary Closure

A

Would is clean-contaminated or contaminated
* 2-5 days after incident
* cleaned and debrided
* closure before granulation tissue development

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56
Q

Wound
Secondary Closure

A
  • Clean and debride tissue until granulation tissue forms (3-5 days)
  • Edges of wound excised
  • Edges sutured over granulation tissue
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57
Q

Second-Intention Healing

A

Wound allowed to heal without surgical closure being performed

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58
Q
A

Doyen Intestinal Forceps
* non-crushing occluding clamps

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59
Q
A

DeBakey Forceps
* vascular forceps
* hold vascular tissue with minimal damagel to vessels

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60
Q
A

Brown-Adson Forceps
* hold tissue
* have grasping teeth

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61
Q

Acetylcholinesterase

A

Destroys Acetylcholine
* turns off muscle activity

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62
Q

CNS Neurotransmitters

A
  • Dopamine
  • GABA
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63
Q

Norepinephrine

A

In smooth muscle

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64
Q

DP

A

Diastolic Pressure
* BP during relaxation
* dilation of ventricles

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65
Q

SP

A

Systolic Pressure
* when heart is contracting

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66
Q

MAP

A

Mean Arterial Pressure
* average BP

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67
Q

CVP

A

Central Venous Pressure
* BP in thoracic vena cava
* good estimate of right atrial pressure
* reflects amount of blood returning to heart and how well the heart pumps it

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68
Q

MCV

A

Mean Corpuscular Volume
* average volume of a RBC
* classify anemia as microcytic vs macrocytic

69
Q

Brain Stem

A

Made up of the midbrain, pons, and medula
* controls breathing, heartbreat and BP

70
Q

Pharynx

A

Leads from oral and nasal cavities into the larynx and esophagus
* gets food to esophagus
* gets air to lungs

71
Q

Cattle Positioning
Lateral Recumbency
During Anesthesia

A

Head and oral cavity should be lower than the neck
* esophageal sphincter relaxes
* regurgitation of fluids more likely
* ensure cuff inflated properly
* position will reduce risk of aspiration

72
Q

Alveoli

A

Tiny air sacs in the lungs located in last branching of respiratory tract
* site of gas exchange
* CO2 and O2 exchanged between air and blood by diffusion

73
Q

Indication of Successful
Needle in Epidural Space
in Horses

A

Fluid is immediately drawn into the hub of the needle when placed
* place between last sacral and 1st coccygeal vertebrae OR
* place between 1st and 2nd coccygeal vertebrae
* spinal fluid sign needle not in epidural splace
* fluid push should be smooth

74
Q

Epidural of Dogs
Under Anesthesia
Complications

A

Especially observed with opioids and alpha-2 agonists
* respiratory depression
* urinary retention
* hypotention

75
Q

Myelogram After-Care
for a Dog

A

Elevate the Head
* risk of seizures following procedure dur to contrast administration
* elevating head decreases risk

76
Q

Radiograph
Operation Rule

A

Must be 18 years of age to be able to take radiographs

77
Q

Skyline View
Radiograph

A

Technique to decrease superimposition of structures
* usually used in equine carpus
* patient standing with carpus flexed
* cassette placed along anterior aspect of limb
* beam aimed proximally to distally and an oblique angle

78
Q

Linear Artifacts

A

Appear on film due to normal gridlines
* beam may also not be appropriately centered on grid

79
Q

Flexed Lateral Radiograph

A

Similar to Skyline View
* carpus flexed
* beam aimed laterally
* cassette placed medially

80
Q

Horizontal Beam
Radiograph

A

Used to confirm presence of air or fluid in body cavity
* fluid will sit ventrally
* air will move dorsally

81
Q

Fetal Skeletons
On Radiographs

A

Earliest times babies can be detected on radiograph
* dogs: 42-45 days
* cats: 35-39 days

82
Q
A

Olsen-Hegar Needle Holders
* built-in suture scissors

83
Q

Handling Tissues / Organs
Placed Outside Peritoneal Cavity

A

Intermittently moisten with sterile saline or wrap in saline-impregnated gauze / sponges
* avoides dessication
* other solutions may be irritating

84
Q

Suture Size
Rule

A

As the number to the left of the “-0” increases, the diameter decreases
* no “-0”, treat like a regular number; high number = high diameter

85
Q
A

Finochietto Retractor
* specifically designed for rib retraction

86
Q

Elevated BUN and Creatinine

A

Tests for renal function
* do not elevate until 75% of kidney function is lost

87
Q

Perioperative Antibiotics

A
  • Use for those are who immunosuppressed
  • Any orthopedic procedure
  • Not required for clean procedures under 90 minutes on otherwise healthy patients
88
Q

Layers of Skin

A
  • Epidermis = outermost layer
  • Dermis = underneath the epidermis
  • Subcutaneous = underneath dermis
89
Q
A

Periosteal Elevators
* elevate muscle attachments for bone or periosteum

90
Q
A

Bone Curette
* great for removing small amounts of bone

91
Q
A

Gigli Wire
* used for cutting through bone

92
Q
A

Osteotome and Mallet
* precise bone cuts, if experienced

93
Q
A

Michele Trephine
* obtains core samples of bones
* diagnoses neoplasia involving bone

94
Q

Miosis

A

Constricted pupils

95
Q

Proptosis

A

Eye has popped out of the orbit

96
Q

Mydriasis

A

Dilated pupils

97
Q

Buphthalmos

A

Enlarged and bulging globe (eye)
* caused by increased intraocular pressure

98
Q

Idiopathic

A

Cause of disease is unknown

99
Q

Gutteral Pouches

A

Blind pouches located in pharynx of the horse
* function unknown
* vital cranial nerves and blood vessels pass through

100
Q

Tetanus vs Horses
When to Vaccinate if Exposed

A

Assuming not vaccinated
* give tetanus antitoxin within 24 hrs of injury
* provides immunity for 2 weeks
* give vaccination if wound still present in 2 weeks
* treat tetanus with tetanus toxoid and antitoxin

101
Q

Atrophy

A

Decrease in size

102
Q

Parathyroid Gland

A

Responsible for regulating and maintaining blood calcium levels

103
Q

Official Ethics

A

Values formally adopted by organizations composed of members of that profession

104
Q

Determine Sex in Mice

A

Anogenital Distance
* distance between anus and genitalia
* best when determining sex of juveniles

105
Q

Cnemidocoptes pilae

A

Also known as “scaly face” or “scaly leg”
* affects birds - immunocompromised
* causes a proliferative honeycomb beak
* scaly crusty leasions on legs and feet
* caused by a mite
* treat with topical or oral ivermectin

106
Q

Meninges

A

Cover the brain and spinal cord
* found in the CNS
* composed of 3 layers:
* pia mater
* arachnoid
* dura mater

107
Q

Rumenal Acidosis

A

See in cattle when feeding a high concentrate diet
* microbes ferment starches in grains too quickly
* decreased pH of rumen

108
Q

Gout

A

Caused from uric acid accumulation
* due to poor nitrogen metabolism and excretion

109
Q

Test for Tuberculosis
in Cattle

A

Skin Fold Test
* small amount of tuberculin injected into caudal fold at base of tail
* positive reaction = swelling within 48-96 hours

110
Q

Estrus Length
in Dogs

A

Entire estrous cycle lasts 6 months
* estrus for 4-13 days

111
Q

Schirmer Tear Test
Dog Results

A

Normal tear production = >15 mm/min
* epiphora = excessive tearing

112
Q

“Founder”
in Horse

A

Also known as laminitis
* severe and debilitating disease of the hoof
* inflammation between hoof and 3rd phalanx - causes bone rotation
* see arched back and extended forelimbs - try to take weight off toes

113
Q

Comedone

A

Also called blackhead

114
Q

FeLV

A

Feline Leukemia Virus
* shed in saliva and other body secretions
* mothers can give to kittens either in utero or while nursing

115
Q

FIP

A

Feline Infectious Peritonitis
* caused by coronavirus
* passed in feces, saliva, and in utero
* may or may not show C/S

116
Q

Species that Require
Vitamin C

A
  • Guinea Pigs
  • Primates / Humans
117
Q

Indwelling Arterial Catheters
Use

A
  • Real-time BP measurements
  • Evaluate general cardiac output
  • Collect small blood samples
  • Measure blood gas
118
Q

Feline Panleukopenia

A

Also called “feline parvo”
* feline infectious enteritis
* associated with cerebellar disease in young kittens

119
Q

Goat and Sheep
Gestation

A

5 months or 150 days

120
Q

Llama Gestation

A

1 year or 350 days

121
Q

Horse Gestation

A

11 months or 330 days

122
Q

Cow Gestation

A

9 months of 280 days

123
Q

Pig Gestation

A

4 months or 114 days

124
Q

Dog / Cat
Gestation

A

2 months or 63 days

125
Q

Ferret Gestation

A

1.5 months or 42 days

126
Q

EPM

A

Equine Protozoal Myeloencephalitis
* CNS disease of horses
* caused by Sarcocystis neurona
* C/S: ataxia and muscle atrophy

127
Q

Aqueous Humor

A

Fluid in the anterior chamber of the eye
* produced by ciliary body

128
Q

Vitreous Humor

A

Gel filling the area between the lens and retina

129
Q

“Tractable” Cat

A

Easy to handle and well behaved
* require minimal restraint

130
Q

Hog Snare

A

Used to control movement of pig
* place around maxilla over snout
* similar to twitch used for horses

131
Q

Papilloma Virus

A

Causes warts

132
Q

Dermatophilus

A

Bacterium that invades the skin
* see in wet weather
* causes crusting and infection of skin (rain rot)

133
Q

Dermatophytosis

A

Fungus in cattle
* ringworm

134
Q

Orbivirus

A

Bluetongue disease in sheep, cattle, and goats

135
Q

Ranula

A

Fluctuant swelling of connective tissue
* consists of collected mucin from ruptured salivary gland duct
* found under the tongue

136
Q

Categories of Nutrients

A

Provide Energy
* proteins
* fats
* carbs

Do Not Provide Energy
* water
* vitamins
* minerals

137
Q

LH

A

Luteinizing Hormone
* produced by the anterior pituitary gland
* surge triggers ovulation and developement of corpus luteum

138
Q

Psittacosis
(Ornithosis)

A

Also known as Parrot Fever or Chlamydiosis
* reportable disease and zoonotic
* birds should immediately be isolated
* upper respiratory infection with nasal +/- eye discharge, diarrhea, or all three
* treat with doxycycline

139
Q

Proestrus

A
  • Vulva swelling
  • Vaginal bleeding
  • Males attracted - not allowed to mount
140
Q

Female vs Male Tortoise

A

In order to be able to mount the mating:
* males have a concave plastron
* females have a convex shell shape

141
Q

Brown Stomach Worm

A

Ostertagia ostertagi
* major cause of parasitic gastritis in cattle
* most common roundworm in cattle

142
Q

Strongylus vulgaris

A

Large intestinal worm in horses
* can migrate to anterior mesenteric artery

143
Q

Red Stomach Worm

A

Haemonchus
* also called barberpole worm
* problem for sheep

144
Q

Pseudocyesis

A

False Pregnancy
* occurs after estrus when dog not bred or bred by infertile male
* develop mammary glands, lactate, and nest
* spaying prevents future episodes

145
Q

Non-Enveloped Viruses

A

Very resistant to environmental degradation
* survive longer
* harder to disinfect than enveloped viruses

146
Q

Hypokalemia

A

Low blood potassium
* weakness
* cervical ventroflexion

147
Q

Chelonian

A

Order to classify Turtles and Tortoises

148
Q

Sedative / Anesthetic Drugs
and Reversals

A
  • Diazepam: Flumazenil
  • Hydromorphone: Nalaxone
  • Medetomidine: Atipamezole
  • Xylazine: Yohimbine
149
Q

Atropine and Rabbits

A

Do not use Atropine with Rabbits
* rabbits produce enzyme: atropine esterase
* enzyme produced neutralizes atropine

150
Q

Thiopental
Avoid Use In

A

Do not use in Greyhounds
* short-acting barbiturate
* recovery depends on redistribution of drug into tissues
* greyhounds have little fat - will have prolonged recovery

151
Q

CPCR Drugs

A

Atropine
* blocks signals from vagus nerve
* treats bradycardia

Epinephrine
* increases cardiac output
* vasoconstriction and bronchodilation

152
Q

Mannitol

A

Osmotic diuretic
* decreases intra-occular pressure

153
Q

Toxic Chemical
in Chocolate

A

Theobromine
* group: methylxanthines

154
Q

Contraindicated Chemo Drug
in Cats

A

Cisplatin
* causes pulmonary toxicity
* remember: “Cisplatin splats cats”

155
Q

Beta-2 Adrenergic Agonists

A

Used to treat cases needing bronchodilation
* terbutaline
* albuterol

156
Q

Anti-Cholinergic Agents

A

Antagonize effects of acetylcholine in ANS
* used before anesthesia - increase HR
* decrease oral secretions - help with intubation
* ex: atropine

157
Q

Trocharization

A

Passing a large sterile needle or catheter through abdominal wall into stomach to relieve gas
* best to place on the right side

158
Q

Septic Shock

A

Also called Distributive Shock
* brick-red MM color
* bacteria causes severe vasodilation

159
Q

Cardiogenic Shock

A

Decreased cardiac output

160
Q

Obstructive Shock

A

Type of Cardiogenic shock
* obstruction of blood flow

161
Q

Hypovolemic Shock

A

Decreased perfusion
* caused from blood loss or dehydration
* most common type of shock in small animals

162
Q

Blood Lactate

A

Marker of perfusion and oxygen delivery in tissues
* adequate oxygen = energy produced
* lack of oxygen = lactate by-product produced

163
Q

“Grass Tetany”

A

Caused from Magnesium Deficiency
* see in goats and sheeps, sometimes cows
* eating grass low in magnesium or during lactation when demands is high

164
Q

Saddle Thrombus

A

Aortic Thromboembolism
* complication associated with heart disease in cats
* clot forms in heart, breaks free, and gets lodged in blood vessel
* clots occurs in bifurcation of aorta - where blood supply branches to support rear legs

165
Q

Pre-renal Azotemia

A

Dehydration most common cause
* renal values elevate during this time, but return to normal once resolved

166
Q

Renal Azotemia

A

Acute or Chronic Renal Failure

167
Q

Post-renal Azotemia

A

Obstruction in bladder or urethra

168
Q

Effects of Vagus Nerve

A

Increased Input
* slows HR (bradycardia)

VetTechPrep (28 decks)

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