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Question notes Flashcards

1
Q

Dupuytren’s contracture sign

A

Palm nodules

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2
Q

Dupuytren’s contracture cause

A

alcoholic liver disease

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3
Q

LFT sign in alcoholics

A

high AST:ALT

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4
Q

Herring

A

Vitamin D

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5
Q

Whipple’s disease

A

jejunal biopsy

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6
Q

Rockall score use

A

upper gi bleeding

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7
Q

Variceal bleed management

A 
IV fluids
IV terlipressin
IV antibiotics
Don’t over transfuse
Propanolol long term
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8
Q

Where is B12 absorbed?

A

Terminal ileum

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9
Q

Which tumour are coeliac disease patients at an increased risk for?

A

small bowel lymphoma

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10
Q

What is urinary porphobilinogen?

A

haem metabolism disorder

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11
Q

Urinary porphobilinogen symptoms

A

pain, nausea, lethargy

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12
Q

What can macrolides cause?

A

dyspepsia

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13
Q

Shigella treatment

A

ciprofloxacin

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14
Q

Pouchitis treatment

A

Metronidazole

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15
Q

Which drug causes cholestasis?

A

Coamoxiclav

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16
Q

Treating fungal infections

A

Fluconazole

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17
Q

Treating oral ulcers

A

Chlorhexidine

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18
Q

UC drugs

A

ciclosporin

mercaptopurine

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19
Q

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome

A

pigment

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20
Q

Gold standard diagnosis of coeliac disease

A

duodenal biopsy

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21
Q

Schistosomiasis symptom

A

liver, urinary, abdominal

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22
Q

What does Senna (laxative) cause?

A

pigmentation of the lamina propria

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23
Q

Octreotide

A

somatostatin analogue used in carcinoid syndrome

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24
Q

What are the Rockall score components?

A

age
shock
comorbidities

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25
Q

Scan for coeliac disease complications

A

DEXA scan

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26
Q

Hemochromatosis causes a loss of…

A

coordination.

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27
Q

What are signs of coeliac disease?

A
  • Howell Jolly bodies
  • Dermatitis herpetiformis
  • Hypersegmented nutrophils
  • Pruritic papulovesiculsr lesions
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28
Q

What is a common cause of liver failure?

A

Pneumonia

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29
Q

What are some side effects of amlodipine?

A
  • relaxes lower oesophageal sphincter (reflux)

- hepatotoxic

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30
Q

Liver biopsy is indicated if INR < __

A

1.5

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31
Q

Why is urea high in upper GI bleeds?

A

Bacteria breaks down blood proteins

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32
Q

Asterixis

A

Hepatic flap

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33
Q

🧑🏾

A

👔

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34
Q

Indometacin

A

NSAID

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35
Q

Which drug causes peptic ulcers?

A

Prednisolone

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36
Q

Zolinger Ellison

A

Increased gastrin

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37
Q

Giardia symptoms

A

diarrhoea, steatorrhoea, weight loss

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38
Q

Pancreatic adenocarcinoma signs

A

Absent urobilinogen and bilirubinuria

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39
Q

🚝

A

Crohn’s

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40
Q

Treating alcohol withdrawal

A

benzodiazepine (Chlordiazepoxide)

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41
Q

Secretin is stronger than somatostatin

A

True

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42
Q

What are ECL cells stimulated by?

A

Gastrin

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43
Q

What does GLUT5 fascilitate?

A

fructose diffusion

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44
Q

Trypsinogen is a ______ enzyme.

A

pancreatic

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45
Q

Secretin stimulates the release of…

A

aqueous salts.

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46
Q

CCK acts on the…

A

gall bladder.

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47
Q

Where is Brunner’s gland?

A

duodenum submucosa

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48
Q

Increased protein

A

Increased gastrin

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49
Q

Gilbert’s syndrome

A

impaired bilirubin conjugation

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50
Q

Gilbert’s syndrome presentation

A

normal stool and urine

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51
Q

What is pellagra?

A

B3 deficiency

  • dementia
  • diarrhoea
  • dermatitis
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52
Q

Pellagra treatment

A

nicotinamide

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53
Q

Biliverdin

A

hemoglobin breakdown

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54
Q

Which organism reverses the concentration gradient?

A

Cholera

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55
Q

Vomiting causes a loss of which ions?

A

H+

56
Q

Surface mucous cells

A

Cardia

Pylorus

57
Q

Mucous neck cells

A

Fundus

Body

58
Q

Prostaglandin synthesis is reduced by

A

salicylates

59
Q

Prehepatic jaundice LFT sign

A

high MCV

60
Q

Posthepatic jaundice LFT sign

A

high ALP

conjugated bilirubin

61
Q

Which cells does the cephalic phase affect?

A

chief and parietal cells

62
Q

GLUT

A

facilitated

63
Q

SGLT

A

active

64
Q

Biguanide

A

reduces gluconeogenesis

65
Q

Name a motilin agonist

A

Erythromycin

66
Q

Heptidin

A

iron regulating hormone

67
Q

Most pancreatic secretions occur during which phase?

A

Intestinal

68
Q

Duct cells ion exchange

A

Cl and HCO3

69
Q

Circulating emetics trigger…

A

vomiting

70
Q

Glucose causes GIP secretion, which…

A

causes insulin secretion, which delays gastric emptying.

71
Q

Miscelles contain vitamin _.

A

K

72
Q

Which cancer causes cholestasis?

A

Pancreatic cancer

73
Q

Post hepatic jaundice shows _____ stool and _____ urine.

A

pale stools and dark urine

74
Q

Pernicious anemia causes

A
  • hypothyroidism

- diabetes

75
Q

Typhoid fever symptoms

A
  • fever
  • abdominal pain
  • blanching rose spots
  • initial diarrhoea
  • cough
  • headache
76
Q

Rotor syndrome

A

Rare childhood jaundice

77
Q

Seton
Fistulotomy
Incision

A

trans sphinteric
submucosal
perianal

78
Q

Paracetamol liver failure

A

PT time
creatinine
encephalopathy

79
Q

When should you test for coeliac disease?

A

Grave disease
Autoimmune thyroid disease
Type 1 diabetes

80
Q

Foul smelling stools are a sign of ______.

A

Giardia

81
Q

Imatinib

A

tyrosine kinase inhibitor

82
Q

Erythema nodosum is dependant on ___.

A

IBD

83
Q

Treatment for gastroenteritis

A

Fluids

84
Q

What does a perforated peptic ulcer cause?

A

peritonism with absent Bowel sounds

  • treat with laparotomy
85
Q

What side effect can giardiasis treatment cause?

A

Absent bowel sounds

86
Q

Azathioprine > Methotrexate

A

True

87
Q

What can Carcinoid tumours cause?

A
  • bronchospasm
  • diarrhoea
  • flushing
  • heart failure
88
Q

What do Carcinoid tumours release?

A

Serotonin

Test with urinary 5HIAA

89
Q

What is the treatment for autoimmune hepatitis?

A

azathioprine

90
Q

Which drug causes bile malabsorption and diarrhoea?

A

Metformin

91
Q

What does TRUELOVE score?

A

UC

92
Q

Does primary biliary cirrhosis cause granulomas?

A

Yes

93
Q

Which drug causes a metallic taste in the mouth?

A

Metronidazole

94
Q

Venesection

A

Draining blood

95
Q

How are severe UC flare ups treated?

A

IV steroids

96
Q

Raised INR

A

acute liver failure

97
Q

TIPPS can worsen…

A

encephalopathy.

98
Q

How long should H pylori be retested for in?

A

After 4-8 weeks

99
Q

Oesophageal webs cause

A

PVS

100
Q

High grade displasia treatment

A

Ablation

101
Q

Risedronate side effect

A

Peptic ulcers

102
Q

Prothrombin complex concentrate works faster than vitamin K infusion.

A

True

103
Q

icteric

A

jaundice

104
Q

febrile

A

fever

105
Q

Cholangiocarcinoma signs and symptoms

A
  • Ca 19-9

- Itch

106
Q

Gastric ulcers are _________ by eating.

Duodenal ulcers are _________ by eating.

A

Gastric ulcers are aggravated by eating.

Duodenal ulcers are relieved by eating.

107
Q

Secretin stimulation test use

A

hormone secreting tumours

108
Q

When is a liver transplant indicated?

A

pH < 7.3 after 24 hours

109
Q

Encephalopathy treatment

A

Oral lactulose and branched chain amino acids

110
Q

IBD flares present with…

A

fever.

111
Q

Raised ASMAs

A

Autoimmune hepatitis

112
Q

Raised bilirubin

A

Excoriations (scratching)

113
Q

H pylori in patients over 55

A

urgent endoscopy

114
Q

A1 antitrypsin deficiency symptoms

A
  • shortness of breath
  • jaundice
  • clubbing
  • erythema
115
Q

Hiatus hernia investigation

A

barium swallow

116
Q

Pseudomembrabous colitis presentation

A

raised yellow plaques across the mucosa

117
Q

Giardiasis investigations

A

stool ova cysts and parasites

118
Q

Which drugs cause constipation?

A

Opiates

119
Q

Which drug decreases intracranial pressure?

A

Mannitol

120
Q

Which hepatitis increases hepatocellular cancer risk?

A

Hepatitis B

121
Q

Which drug is used to treat glossitis and angular cheilitis?

A

Ferrous sulphate

122
Q

Low SAAG

A

Peritoneal cancer

123
Q

Haemochromatosis marker

A

Transferrin

124
Q

Coeliac disease biopsy

A

Crypt hyperplasia

125
Q

UC is also associated with…

A

arthritis.

126
Q

Diverticulitis is assosciated with…

A
  • frequent vaginal infections
  • pain worse after meals
  • pain relieved by flatulence and passing of stool
  • constipation
  • fevers
  • rectal bleeding
127
Q

H pylori increases the risk of carcinomas. What is a sign of this?

A

Signet rings

128
Q

Docusate

A

fecal softener

129
Q

PPI side effect

A

hypomagnesaemia

130
Q

Metoclopramide side effect

A

Migraine

131
Q

Which drug is commonly misused?

A

Antihistamines

132
Q

Which drug masks cancer?

A

Ranitidine

133
Q

Which drug is contraindicated in IBS?

A

Lactulose

134
Q

Loperamide mechanism of action

A

Opioid agonist

135
Q

Which drug should be avoided in the elderly?

A

Ispaghula

Year 1 extras (6 decks)

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