queens 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Question 4:
At a building under construction, obtaining information pertaining to when concrete was poured is often difficult, and if available, not always accurate. Unless a responsible person on the job site states exactly the time that the concrete was poured, arriving units should assume that it was sometime within the prior 24 hours. Of the following, who would not be considered a “responsible” person in this case?

A: construction engineer

B: building superintendent

C: building security

D: concrete foreman

A

c Explanation:
SB 66 p1

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2
Q
A
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3
Q

Question 25:
Removal of manhole covers by FDNY personnel may reduce the infiltration of gas into surrounding properties and shall be done in all of the following except?

A :Removal of sewer manhole covers can be performed by FDNY personnel with the approval of the chief officer and on-scene Utility Company rep

B: Removal of electric manhole covers by FDNY personnel may be performed only when requested by a utility company gas representative on the scene, the cover has been determined to be free of stray voltage by the on-scene Utility Company, and approved by an on scene chief officer.

C: Do not pull rectangular or square electric manhole covers and do not pull any electric manhole covers if there is a manhole fire in the area of if smoking or arcing is observed in an electric manhole or transformer vault.

D: Round manhole covers should be removed by two Firefighters utilizing manhole hooks. Battalion vehicles carry two manhole hooks for this use.

A

a Explanation:
On-scene Chief Officer can do this without the on-scene Utility Company rep.
This section can be tricky. Know the difference between sewer and electric manhole covers
EP Natural Gas 9.2.4 sec 3

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4
Q

Question 28:
A Captain was incorrect when she asked the BC to provide a large padlock with a hardened shackle for security at an incident after confirming the information in which choice?

A: Commercial occupancy.

B: Very minor fire.

C: Egress gained by removing a padlock, resulting in minimal damage.

D: There is minimal damage to two windows at the rear of the premises.

A

d Explanation:
There is no other damage to the entire perimeter of the premises.
AUC 231 2

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5
Q

Question 35:
The 2nd ladder company operated correctly during an OLT fire in all of the choices listed below except?

A: Positioned themselves at the door of the apartment over the fire apartment as this is generally the most serious exposure

B: Prior to proceeding above the fire, the second arriving officer must ensure that the officers on the fire floor are made aware of this team’s intention, so that members operating above can be warned of any situation necessitating withdrawal

C:When operating on the floors above the fire, members should force one or more doors on each floor to provide an area of refuge

D: Direct and control horizontal ventilation on fire floor and floors above

A

d

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6
Q

Question 33:
What is another name for a composite truss?

A: Space joist

B: Bow-string truss

C: Lightweight parallel chord metal truss

D:Heavy gauge metal “C” truss

A

a Explanation:
PD ch 6…3.5

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7
Q

Question 38:

Actions that the officer of the first arriving engine company can implement to protect endangered occupants at a fire are correctly indicated in all choices below except?

A: Position a hoseline between the fire and the endangered occupants

B: Give verbal instructions and assurances to the occupants

C: Ventilate windows and doorways

D: Ensure that incoming units are informed of the location of endangered occupants

A

c Explanation:
C) Close doors to limit the spread of smoke
Engine Ops 4.2.3

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8
Q

Question 26:
When operating at a hybrid vehicle emergency, never cut any high voltage cables. High voltage cables in hybrid vehicles are usually color-coded to warn of their potential danger. On most, the high voltage cables are color-coded _____, although some cables are color coded ______.

A: Red; Orange

B: Orange; Red

C: Blue; Yellow

D: Orange; Blue

A

d Explanation:
Don’t confuse hybrid vehicles with rooftop conduit markings
TB Fires 8 11.6

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9
Q

Question 27:
Technical Services distributes packets of bleach to units for decontamination purposes in quarters. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A: The Officer on duty shall ensure that equipment and clothing with minor contamination of blood are cleaned as soon as practical by a member trained to perform proper decon procedures

B: The bleach packets will produce a mixture of one part bleach to ninety-nine parts water

C: Officers shall ensure that the solution is prepared every tour and the old solution discarded

D:When preparing the solution, empty the packet of bleach into the container first, then fill with water

A

Explanation: c
CFR-D Manual Ch 3
A. 15.2
B. 15.2.1
C. Officers shall ensure that the solution is prepared daily 15.2.3
D. 15.2.2

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10
Q

Question 39:
During company drill, the senior member of your company made all of the following correct statements about top floor fires in OLTs except?

A: Cockloft areas of OLTs are much smaller than those in NLTs and therefore are not as much of a problem

B: Utilizing a trench cut in the roof of an OLT is not necessary since the width of this type of building is approximately 25 feet

C: When fire has extended into the cockloft, the IC should be immediately notified

D: The entire top floor must be thoroughly searched and examined because of the lack of fire stopping in these buildings

A

b Explanation:
It may be necessary to cut a trench in the roof of an OLT in order to prevent the spread of fire, but usually such fires are extinguished from below after an adequate ventilation hole is cut over the fire
MDs page 17

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11
Q

Question 19:

Upon taking up from Large Caliber Stream operations with the Tower Ladder, drains on the main waterway should be opened while the boom is elevated. Supply lines at the gated inlet should be _____ and the gates ______.

A: auncoupled, opened

B: uncoupled, closed

C: coupled, opened

D: coupled, closed

A

a Explanation:
TL Ch 4 Page 5

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12
Q

Question 10:
Emergency Leave may be granted in each choice below except?

A: Serious illness of a member’s step child

B: Serious illness of a brother of a member’s spouse

C: Serious illness of a member’s foster parent

D: Serious illness of a member’s sister

A

b Explanation:
Deputy Chiefs shall, when notified of serious illness of a spouse, child, parent (step, foster or natural), brother or sister of a member, grant an emergency leave to member. Deputy Chief granting such leave shall complete and forward form BP-603.
Regs 17.4.1

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13
Q

Question 23:
When attempting resuscitation of a non-breathing patient, all efforts shall be exhausted until released by EMS. Fire Department personnel should not begin resuscitation efforts in all cases below except in which choice ?

A: Dependent lividity

B: Rigor mortis

C: Decomposition

D:Invalid Do Not Resuscitate Order

A

d Explanation:
CFR-D Manual Ch 2
D. Valid DNR 4.4
Acronym: LORD Vader
Lividity
Obvious death
Rigor Mortis
Decomposition
Valid DNR

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14
Q

Question 21:
Answer the following question according to Chief Dunn’s book “Collapse of Burning Buildings 2nd edition”…….. Chief Dunn has added several new definitions to his new book. From the choices listed below select the least correct definition.

A: Progressive Collapse is the initial structural failure that spreads from structural element to structural element resulting in a collapse of the entire structure or a disproportionately large part of it

B: Demising Wall is a bearing wall that extends from a floor slab to the floor slab above

C: Gravity Load is a combination of dead load and live load

D: Corner Safe areas are the 4 flanking zones around a burning building

A

b Explanation:
Demising Wall is a partition wall (chapter 2)
….watch out for subtle word changes on test day
…..take a look at choice C…this is a great go-to definition

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15
Q

Question 24:
A knowledgeable Lieutenant should know that in Under River Rails?

A: 1,000 volt lines may run throughout the tubes at ceiling level and are deactivated by routine requests for power removal.

B: 1,000 volt lines may run throughout the tubes at ceiling level and are not deactivated by routine requests for power removal.

C: 660 volt lines may run throughout the tubes at ground level and are not deactivated by routine requests for power removal.

D: 750 volt lines may run throughout the tubes at ceiling level and are deactivated by routine requests for power removal.

A

b Explanation:
Under River Rails 9.1.1

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16
Q

Question 11:
The following guidelines should be followed when stretching and advancing a handline in a HRFPMD except?

A: If the ladder company has control of the fire apartment entrance door, the hoseline can be advanced to that location and charged

B: The engine officer will assist with keeping the fire apartment door closed until there is water at the nozzle and the hoseline is ready to advance into the apartment

C: In most cases, the hoseline shall not enter the apartment until the ladder company locates the fire and provides for the advancing engine company

D: The control FF of the 1st arriving engine company will complete the connection to the standpipe outlet, charge the line when ordered, provide proper water pressure, and be relieved by the 2nd control FF upon his or her arrival

A

d Explanation:
Remain at the standpipe outlet throughout the operation to provide orderly and accurate communications and continuity
MDs page 48-49

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17
Q

Question 17:
The operations for removing a victim or victims by Aerial Ladder are found in all of the following choices except?

A: The OV FF ascends the ladder followed by the LCC, climbs in window, assists victim feet first to the LCC, closes the door to the fire area, and then searches the area

B: The OV FF ascending first will keep the LCC closer to the controls

C: To descend with an ambulatory victim, place yourself one rung below the rung the victim is standing on

D: The Aerial Ladder shall never be moved while a FF is descending with a victim

A

d Explanation:
Only in an extreme emergency such as serious exposure to flame or high heat will the movement of the ladder with the FF and the victim on it be justified
Ladders 2 sec 5

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18
Q

Question 3:
A carbon monoxide (CO) investigation will determine if the response is an “Incident” or an “Emergency.” Choose the incorrect choice regarding a CO incident or an emergency

A: CO incidents are meter readings of 9 PPM or less

B:CO emergencies are meter readings greater than 9 PPM

C:SCBA shall be worn at all CO investigations and emergencies

D: CO meter readings of 100 PPM and greater shall require an evacuation of affected area

A

c Explanation:
Worn at all CO investigations, and USED at all CO Emergencies
Haz-Mat 4 pages 4-5c

19
Q

Question 14:
Who can request the response of a Collapse Portable On Demand Storage (PODS) unit?

A: The Incident Commander (any rank)

B: Only a Battalion Chief or higher rank

C: Only a Deputy Chief or higher rank

D: Only a Command Chief

A

d Explanation:
Collapse 10.1.2

20
Q

Question 6:
At a private dwelling fire, which action below may the IC instruct the FAST Unit to take?

A:Have the FAST unit assist in stretching the initial hoseline while still maintaining unit integrity, in front of the building.

B: Have the FAST unit split up and provide additional egress routes by placing portable ladders at exposures 2 and 4.

C: Have the FAST unit provide an additional egress route by removing window bars in front of the building, while maintaining unit integrity.

D: Have the FAST unit OV assist the 2nd Ladder OV in venting the rear windows.

A

c Explanation:
Have the FAST unit provide additional egress routes while still maintaining unit integrity, e.g., remove window bars, place portable ladders.
MMID Ch 4 4.1

21
Q

Question 18:
At a recent company drill, the on-duty Lieutenant made which incorrect comment regarding maintenance of generators used by the Department?

A: Operate portable generators for 15 minutes weekly.

B: When testing portable generators, operate all lights for 5 minutes to test for proper working order of lights and generator under load.

C: If lamps do not light while testing or using, immediately place the portable generator out of service.

D: All ladder company apparatus are equipped with onboard generators which shall be checked weekly during Multi Unit Drill.

A

c Explanation:
If lamps do not light while testing or using, check bulbs for tight connection.
TB Tools 4 3.8.2, 4.1, 4.6

22
Q

Question 9:
During company drill, Lt O’Kelly made the following statements about fighting an air, light, and dumbwaiter shaft fire in a tenement. In which statement was Lt O’Kelly incorrect

A:A hoseline should be stretched to the nearest point from which water can be directed onto the fire in the shaft. Sufficient hose must be stretched to reach the upper floors of the building

B: In some cases, the base of the shaft may be the roof of a store or ceiling of a cellar and the fire may burn down into the store or cellar

C: Shafts may be opened or covered. It is important to ventilate those shafts which have skylights or any other covering

D: For fire in the rooms in the vicinity of a shaft, after the fire in the room has been knocked down, the line should be operated into the shaft in order to fully extinguish the shaft fire before continuing through the apartment for knockdown and final extinguishment

A

d Explanation:
The line should be operated into the shaft in order to KNOCK DOWN the shaft fire before continuing through the apartment for knockdown and final extinguishment
MDs 4.7

23
Q

Question 8:
At a fire, when a member has information from a credible source indicating the location of a life hazard and takes individual action, the Incident Commander shall?

A: immediately notify the dispatcher to have the next ranking officer respond.

B: immediately notify the dispatcher to have the Command Chief on duty respond.

C: forward a report detailing the full particulars to the Chief of Department.

D: forward a report detailing the full particulars to the Chief of Operations.

A

d Explanation:
A thorough review of each of these incidents will be conducted.
Vent 12.3.1

24
Q

Question 7:
The priority order of shutting down a gas valve can be found in which choice?

A: Appliance valve, Interior Gas Riser valve, Individual Meter Valve, Master Meter valve, Head of Service valve, Curb Valve/Service Valve, Main valve

B: Appliance valve, Individual Meter Valve, Interior Gas Riser valve, Master Meter valve, Head of Service valve, Curb Valve/Service Valve, Main valve

C: Appliance valve, Interior Gas Riser valve, Individual Meter Valve, Head of Service valve, Master Meter valve, Curb Valve/Service Valve, Main valve

D: Individual Meter Valve, Appliance valve, Interior Gas Riser valve, Master Meter valve, Head of Service valve, Curb Valve/Service Valve, Main valve

A

a Explanation:
EP Natural Gas pg 22-25

25
Q

Question 37:
The climbing angle for a ground ladder is approximately ___ - ___ degrees

A: 35 – 45

B: 55 – 65

C:65 – 75

D: 75 – 80

A

c Explanation:
Lad 1…..7.3
Steeper than 75 degrees increases the chances of the climber falling off
Less than 65 degrees require a reduction in maximum loading

26
Q

BACK LIST NEXT

Question 22:
During Satellite operations, when the hydrant main size is less than ____ (common to many hydrants found in the Jamaica Water Supply System), it is recommended that a second hydrant or another pumper augment the supply of water.

A:6”

B: 8”

C: 12”

D: 18”

A

c Explanation:
When the hydrant main size is less than 12” (common to many hydrants found in the Jamaica Water Supply System), it is recommended that a second hydrant or another pumper augment the supply of water.
AUC 274 6.2

27
Q

Question 1: All FDNY handie-talkies have been programmed to allow for FD/PD interagency communications. One frequency, the TAC “U” channel, will allow the IC and designated members to communicate directly with police on the scene at joint operations. This frequency can be found on what zone and channel on the FDNY handie-talkie? A: Zone A/channel 10 B: Zone A/channel 13 C: Zone B/Channel 10 D: Zone B/Channel 13

A

Explanation: b Comm 14 add 2 TAC “U” channel transmits at 5 watts

28
Q

Question 40:
To facilitate communications at CFR and non-fire emergencies, members can switch to which channel when use of channel 1 is impractical?

A: 10

B: 11

C: 12

D: 13

A

a Explanation:
This bulletin was updated in Jan 2017 and states that fire units will initiate contact using ch 1.
Communications Ch 14 add 1 sec 2.4 note

29
Q

q

uestion 31:
Answer the following question according to Chief Dunn’s book “Collapse of Burning Buildings 2nd edition”…….. During the overhaul stage of a fire, firefighters sometimes are requested to throw charred objects out of a window in an effort to complete the overhaul stage. From the choices listed below choose the incorrect procedure in which this is done

A: Obtain permission from the fire floor chief

B: Notify or assign a firefighter outside the building to clear the area of civilians and act as a safety guard

C: After the area is clear, the FF acting as a guard signals when to throw the smoldering objects

D: When all objects have been discarded out of the window, notify the FF who has been assigned as a safety guard

A

a Explanation:
Obtain permission from the IC
Dunn Chapter 1

30
Q

Question 36:
At a fire in a high rise office building, the Logistics Section Chief supervises each of the following units except?

A: Lobby Control Unit

B:Communications Unit

C: Resources Unit Leader

D: Rehabilitation Unit

A

c Explanation:
The Planning Section Chief supervises the Resources Unit Leader.
The Logistcs Section Chief supervises the Lobby Control Unit, Communications Unit, High-Rise Support Unit, Systems Control Unit, Rehabilitation Unit, and all activities supporting the incident.
High Rise Office Buildings 6.3.2 E

31
Q

Question 29:
Which description of Sub-Cellars found in Older Cast-Iron Lofts is listed incorrectly?

A:They will always span the entire dimensions of the building.

B:They have no windows and are extremely difficult to ventilate.

C: Interior stairs to sub-cellars often are located remote from the cellar stairway and will normally be of unenclosed, wood construction.

D: A sub-cellar can have an outside entrance where the rear area of the building is trenched out and open to the outer air.

A

a Explanation:
A) Sub-Cellars may not span the entire dimensions of the building.
Loft 5.1.16

32
Q
A
33
Q

Question 13:
When performing Mass Decon, the FDNY can use several options. Select the incorrect option

A:Stretch a 1 ¾ handline equipped with an Aquastream fog nozzle 50-80 psi

B:Stretch two handlines operating opposite each other, approximately 25 to 30 feet apart

C: Position two pumpers parallel to each other approximately 25 feet apart using the Aquastream fog nozzle, and with the control panels facing the outside

D: Position the TL with a Turbomaster fog nozzle or an Aerial ladder with a ladder pipe and Aquastream fog nozzle at the edge of the water spray formed from the pumpers

A

a Explanation:
2 ½
B- 50-80 psi
C- Place Aquastream fog nozzle on inside DISCHARGE outlet at 50-80 psi
Haz-Mat 7 pages 3-5

34
Q

Question 16:
All of the following are correct about the Post Radio except?

A: Power output is 45 watts

B: Charged weekly whether used or not for at least 4 hours

C: A frequency selector switch allows for the use of 16 channels

D: Due to radio frequency radiation hazard, members shall not be within 2 feet from a transmitting Post radio

A

b 8 hours

35
Q

Question 12:
Regarding FDNY-issued sound powered telephones, “amplifiers” are correctly described in which one choice below?

A: Amplifiers increase the volume of verbal transmissions, but are not required to be used.

B:Each amplifier has 2 cords; an 18” long cord with a male connector that attaches to the headset, and a 4” long cord has a female connector that attaches to the SPT system

C: There are 2 controls on the amplifier; a talk level knob that controls the volume and shall be placed at the lowest setting when in use, and a PTA (Push to Amplify) button.

D: The PTA (Push to Amplify) button should, if possible, be pressed and held whenever the user wants to transmit a message. Once the message is completed, the PTA button must be remain pressed, or the reply will not be heard.

A

a Explanation:
B) Each amplifier has 2 cords; an 8” long cord with a female connector that attaches to the headset, and a 42” long cord has a male connector that attaches to the SPT system.
C) There are 2 controls on the amplifier; a talk level knob that controls the volume and shall be placed at the highest setting when in use, and a PTA (Push to Amplify) button.
The PTA (Push to Amplify) button must be pressed and held whenever the user wants to transmit a message. Once the message is completed, the PTA button must be released, or the reply will not be heard.
TB Tools 31 2.6

36
Q

uestion 5:
The incorrect action for a first arriving Chemical Protection Clothing (CPC) unit officer can be found in which choice?

A: Report to the IC and recommend the entry point into the warm zone

B: Establish the CPC unit assembly area adjacent to the entry point

C: Any critical or pertinent information received from the operating teams must be immediately relayed up the chain of command

D: The CPC unit officer shall not don a chemical protective suit unless the situation indicates that a suit is required in order to properly supervise the unit’s operation

A

a Explanation:
Hot Zone
Haz-Mat 5…5.1

37
Q

Question 30:
At a rowframe fire operation, when a floor is fully involved in fire from the front to the rear?

A: a full first alarm assignment is required. It is also advisable to call for an additional engine and ladder.

B: a second alarm assignment is required.

C: a full first alarm assignment is recommended.

D: calling for an additional engine and ladder is required.

A

a

38
Q

Question 32:
The minimum safe operating distance for applying water on a live 138 kV electrical component at a Con Ed facility using a stream of less than 30° fog is?

A: 15ft

B: 75ft

C: 25ft

D: 125ft

A

b Explanation:
AUC 338 5.3

39
Q

Question 15:
Generally, according to the Incident Command System, the span of control of any individual with management responsibility should range from ____ to ____ with ____ being ideal

A: 2,4,3

B: 3,6,5

C: 4,7,5

D: 3,7,5

A

d Explanation:
ICS Ch 1…. 3.2.2

40
Q

Question 2:
“DANGER DO NOT ENTER” tape is used to isolate designated areas that members should not enter. This applies at all times, to all members of the Department, during all stages of operations, except to save life. The tape is red with black lettering and is carried in?

A: all Battalion and Division vehicles

B: all Department vehicles

C: all Engine and Ladder vehicles

D: all Rescue and Squad vehicles.

A

a Explanation:
AUC 360 1.1

41
Q

Question 20:
When hoisting a portable ladder to the roof of a building, an experienced Captain should know that the bowline knot is tied ____ from the end of the rope, with a one foot end tail.

A: 3 feet

B: 7 feet

C: 9 feet

D: 12 feet

A

c Explanation:
9 feet (one and one-half full arm lengths)
Evol 18 Note 3

42
Q

Question 34:
At a taxpayer fire, the Roof Sector Supervisor can?

A: start a trench cut where he/she sees the necessity for it. Immediate notification to the Incident Commander of the operation is mandatory.

B :start a trench cut where he/she sees the necessity for it. Immediate notification to the Incident Commander of the operation is recommended.

C: never start a trench cut without permission from the Incident Commander.

D: start a trench cut where he/she sees the necessity for it without notification to the Incident Commander.

A

a Explanation:
Taxpayers 5.6.4

43
Q

Question 7:
The priority order of shutting down a gas valve can be found in which choice?

A: Appliance valve, Interior Gas Riser valve, Individual Meter Valve, Master Meter valve, Head of Service valve, Curb Valve/Service Valve, Main valve

B: Appliance valve, Individual Meter Valve, Interior Gas Riser valve, Master Meter valve, Head of Service valve, Curb Valve/Service Valve, Main valve

C: Appliance valve, Interior Gas Riser valve, Individual Meter Valve, Head of Service valve, Master Meter valve, Curb Valve/Service Valve, Main valve

D: Individual Meter Valve, Appliance valve, Interior Gas Riser valve, Master Meter valve, Head of Service valve, Curb Valve/Service Valve, Main valve

A

a Explanation:
EP Natural Gas pg 22-25