QUEENS 15

Question 1

LIST NEXT

Question 1:
During company drill, the following statements were made about the Emergency Alert Button (EAB). Choose the incorrect statement

A: An “Emergency Alert Tone” is sounded on all HTs within range (other than HT with EAB activation) on the same frequency

B: A “Beacon Tone” is sounded on the HT with EAB activation

C: Within range, the company, position, and name of the member who pressed the EAB displays in EFAS

D: HT transmission power on the tactical channel is increased from 2 watts to 5 watts, providing more power for the message to get through

E: When transmitting an URGENT or MAYDAY message, the member shall begin by depressing their EAB for approximately 1/4 second

Answer 1

E Explanation:
1/2 second
Communications ch 9 pages 1-2
To reset the EAB, depress and hold the EAB for approximately 2 seconds until a reset tone is heard, or by turning the HT off and then back on

Question 2

BACK LIST NEXT

Question 2:
Structures with cell site installations require specific tactics. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding decisions that should be made at these buildings?

A: Special call an additional engine and ladder company in all cases.

B: Consider calling a utility company and cellular phone representative through the FD dispatcher.

C: Special call an additional battalion chief above the 10-75 to supervise roof operations.

D: Ensure tower ladder response on the initial alarm for a reported fire in these buildings.

Answer 2

A Explanation:
Special call an additional engine and ladder company, IF the cell site installation is “involved.”
These additional units could be used for power removal, roof operations and handline placement.
AUC 331 6.2-6.6

Question 3

Question 3:
Upon arrival at a hazardous materials incident, the Chemical Protective Clothing (CPC) officer shall report to whom?

A: IC

B:Haz-Mat Chief

C: Safety Battalion Chief

D: Rescue Battalion Chief

Answer 3

A Explanation:
Report to IC for a briefing. The first arriving CPC Unit Officer will RECOMMEND to the IC the entry point into the Hot Zone, and then establish the CPC Unit Assembly Area adjacent to the entry point
Hazardous Materials 5 sec 5

Question 4

Question 4:
All of the following collapse operation tactics are correctly described except?

A: Complicated rescues shall not be attempted until the “selected debris removal” phase.

B: Explosions shall be viewed as possible “dirty-bomb” sites until monitoring shows the area to be clear of contamination.

C: Initial rescue actions should concentrate on removing able-bodied (ambulatory) and surface or lightly buried persons from immediate danger.

D: During the “void search” phase, visually search accessible voids but do not cut, lift or remove load bearing members.

Answer 4

A Explanation:
The safety of personnel needs to be “carefully evaluated” before attempting complicated rescues.
Collapse 4.6, 4.7, 7.5

Question 5

Question 5:
When operating at steam emergencies, members must adhere to FDNY policies and tactics at all times. Choose the incorrect tactic.

A: When entering a steam control room to shut down a valve, do not randomly shut steam valves. Shutting the wrong valve can cause damage to the system creating other hazardous conditions

B: In an emergency, members may shut the Inside Service Valve

C: Once a steam valve is shut, do not open it. Notify Con Edison if a valve is shut

D: FDNY members may only shut a steam valve located outside the building under the direction of the IC in consultation with the Con Edison white hat

Answer 5

D Explanation:
This valve should only be shut by Con Edison steam personnel
Emergency Procedures/Steam page 6

Question 6

Question 6:
All components of the “roof saw carry sling” have a breaking strength of?

A: 500 lbs.

B: 1,000 lbs.

C: 100 lbs.

D: 10,000 lbs.

Answer 6

B

Question 7

Question 7:
E-100 and L-200 arrive 1st due for a fire on the 20th floor in a 30 sty 100x100 HRFPMD. As the companies enter the lobby area, the superintendent tells the officers that there is only one non-fireman service elevator working. Who should enter the elevator?

A: All members of L-200 only

B: L-200 Officer, inside team and E-100 Officer, Nozzle and Backup FFs

C: L-200 Officer, inside team and E-100 Officer, Nozzle and Control FFs

D: L-200 Officer and F.E. FF and E-100 Officer, Nozzle, Backup, and Control FFs

E: All Members of E-100 only

Answer 7

C Explanation:
When both the Engine and Ladder Companies arrive together and only one elevator is available (non-fireman service), the Ladder Officer and inside team and the Engine Officer, Nozzle, and Control FFs with all rolled up lengths and standpipe kit shall go up first
Multiple Dwellings sec 6.4.6

Question 8

Question 8:

When the Rehabilitation Group is established, the rehabilitation process shall include all the following except _____.

A: Calorie and electrolyte replacement.

B: Medical assessment by EMS to all members exposed to products of combustion shall have their oxyhemoglobin (SpO2), and carboxyhemoglobin (SpCO) levels measured.

C: Doffing of PPE including removing helmet, hood, gloves, opening bunker coat and pulling down bunker pants.

D: Rehydration (fluid replacement) and rest and recovery.

Answer 8

C Explanation:
***Updated AUC on Jan 8, 2019
AUC 230 sec 7.8
C. Bunker coat removed. Doffing of PPE (removing helmet, hood, gloves, bunker coat and pulling down bunker pants).

Question 9

Question 9:
Which choice best describes the proper placement of a portable ladder to a fire escape railing?

A: Place tip of portable ladder slightly above the fire escape railing

B: Place tip of portable ladder even with the fire escape railing

C: Place tip of portable at least 2 feet above fire escape railing

D: Place tip of portable ladder 1 to 3 feet above the fire escape railing

Answer 9

A Explanation:
Placed at window, tip shall be level with sill
Placed at roof, tip shall be at least 2 feet above roof or parapet
Placed alongside fire escape on a building wall, tip shall be 1 to 3 feet above the fire escape railing
Ladders 1 sec 7.4

Question 10

Question 10:
FF Smith had to correct probationary FF Wilson when he made which incorrect statement regarding hydrant discs?

A: The White Disc is available in two sizes, for placement on the 4 1/2 inch or 2 1/2 inch outlets of unserviceable hydrants and 3 inch siamese.

B: The Blue Disc is for placement on 3 inch siamese to indicate a system is not functioning as a fully automatic system and/or a portion of the system is such that it will operate effectively when supplied.

C: The Yellow Disc is available in two sizes for placement on the 4 1/2 inch or 2 1/2 inch outlets of frozen hydrants.

D: The company number and individual disc number shall be marked in black on both sides of each disc.

Answer 10

The company number and individual disc number shall be marked in black on one side of each disc.

Question 11

Question 11:
Vehicles such as trucks, trains, aircrafts, and ships, often have shipping papers provided by the manufacture to identify the hazards of the material being transported. Choose the correct name of the shipping papers and where they are kept

A: The Airbill is found in a aircraft and is kept by the flight attendant

B: The Waybill is found on a train and is carried by the Engineer in the caboose or engine

C: The Cargo manifest is found in the cab of a truck within reach of the driver

D: The Bill of Lading is found in the cab of a truck within reach of the driver

Answer 11

D Explanation:
A-Piliot
B-Conductor
C-found on a ship and kept by the master or first mate
Haz-Mat ch 2 sec 4.4

Question 12

Question 12:
Cross unit details of Probationary Firefighters shall be initiated by the Company Commander, in consultation with the Battalion Training Coordinator, after the Probationary Firefighter?

A: Is assigned to a Firehouse, immediately following Probationary Firefighter School.

B: Has completed 3 years of service in the firehouse.

C: Has completed 90 days of service in the firehouse.

D: Has completed 60 days of service in the firehouse.

Answer 12

C

AUC 323 2.6

Question 13

Question 13:
The Electronic Fireground Accountability System (EFAS) is designed to improve the accountability of members at all operations. Choose the incorrect statement regarding EFAS

A: EFAS will always default to Tactical Channel 1

B: EFAS has the capability of monitoring HT channels 1-16

C: EFAS has the capability of monitoring UTAC and NYMAC channels

D: EFAS has the capability of monitoring multiple channels at the same time

Answer 13

D
Can only monitor one channel at a time, therefore, a separate Battalion/Division/EFAS equipped vehicle in conjunction with an EFAS trained member is required for each channel in use
Communications ch 9 add 3 sec 6

Question 14

Question 14:
Two firefighters from Ladder 100 were discussing FDNY elevator operations when one member made an incorrect comment. Indicate the incorrect comment.

A: When it is confirmed that the fire is on the 7th floor or below, units should avoid the use of elevators. It is safer to utilize the stairway to reach the fire floor.

B: Not more than six members are to be permitted in any elevator car. This precaution is required to prevent overloading.

C: Do not use an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within five floors of the fire floor.

D: If you are in a smoke filled hallway, remember, elevator doors will swing away from you and apartment doors will swing toward you. If the electric interlock malfunctions it might be possible to open the elevator door and not have the car on that floor.

Answer 14

D Explanation:
If you are in a smoke filled hallway, remember, elevator doors will swing toward you and apartment doors will swing away from you. If the electric interlock malfunctions it might be possible to open the elevator door and not have the car on that floor.
TB Emerg 1 6.1.2, 6.1.3, 6.1.8, 6.1.15

Question 15

Question 15:
Several statements were made when setting up a TL at the scene of a fire. Choose the incorrect statement

A: If the apparatus is not level, lower the jacks and outrigger on the low side first.

B: Tower Ladders are designed to operate with outriggers and jacks down on one side only.

C: Green lights indicate that all stabilizers are properly deployed.

D: If a member commences to set up a Tower Ladder apparatus for an operation and then decides to abort the operation, the member must return all outriggers and jacks to the pre-setup position.

Answer 15

B Explanation:
Tower Ladders are NOT designed to operate with outriggers and jacks down on one side only.
TL Ch 1 pages 2-5

Question 16

Question 16:
Which member is responsible for taking the power saw to the roof of a brownstone with fire on the top floor?

A: First Arriving Ladder Chaiffeur

B :First Arriving Ladder OV Firefighter

C: Second Arriving Ladder OV Firefighter

D: First Arriving Ladder Roof Firefighter

Answer 16

B

Bwst 2.6 E 3

Question 17

Question 17:
Choose the incorrect tactic for extinguishing a cellar fire at an Old Law Tenement.

A: The first line should be stretched to the cellar entrance door which is located inside the building, under the interior stairway on the first floor. This line should remain at this position to provide protection for people coming down the stairway and to extinguish fire which may be extending upwards from the cellar via partitions, dumbwaiter shafts and other voids

B: The first line is not to advance down the cellar stairs if there is an outside entrance to the cellar at the front or rear of the building, unless the fire is minor

C: The second line is used to backup the first line and advance down the interior cellar stairs

D: All horizontal ventilation shall be coordinated and controlled by the Ladder Company Officer operating in the area to be vented

E:Initial vertical ventilation shall be coordinated and controlled by the Ladder Company Officer operating in the fire area (fire floor)

Answer 17

C Explanation:
The second line stretched should be advanced into the cellar by the way of the front or rear entrance to the cellar
Multiple Dwellings 4.2

Question 18

Question 18:
At an under river rail incident, initial efforts should focus on assisting self-evacuating passengers. Units assigned to emergency exits should do all of the following except?

A: Consult the Emergency Exit Guide Book or Operational Guide to verify that operations are being conducted at the correct emergency exit.

B: Open the exit door and assess the situation (i. e. presence of smoke, haze, odors; meter results; unusual sounds; people in the exit stairwell).

C: Assist/guide ambulatory persons to a safe location.

D:Inform the dispatcher which emergency exit you opened. If passengers are self-evacuating, request power remain on and call for a rescue train on affected tracks.

Answer 18

D Explanation:
Inform the dispatcher which emergency exit you opened. If passengers are self-evacuating, request power-off on the affected track(s).
URR 3.3

Question 19

Question 19:
When operating as the Lobby Control Unit (LCU), all of the following equipment shall be carried in every elevator car except?

A: 6’ hook

B: H/T and 1 set of forcible entry tools

C: Spare cylinder

D: Elevator keys and search rope

E: Elevator control sheet and clipboard

Answer 19

A ICS ch 2 add 4 sec 5.1
H/T
1 set of FE tools
Spare cylinder
Elevator Keys
Search Rope
Elevator Control Sheet
Clipboard

Question 20

Question 20:
The senior chauffeur of Engine 100 had to correct another member when he made which incorrect statement regarding school bus encounters in their response area?

A: When the school bus is stopped with its red lights flashing or is showing a visual signal indicating stop, you must stop the apparatus when returning from an alarm.

B: When children are being loaded on or discharged from the school bus, you must stop the apparatus when responding to an alarm.

C: When approaching a stopped school bus from any direction, you must stop the apparatus when returning from an alarm.

D: Your apparatus shall remain stopped until the bus resumes motion or the bus driver or responsibile civilian signals you to proceed.

Answer 20

D Explanation:
All fire vehicles in the City of New York, when responding to or returning from alarms, must stop for school buses under the conditions mentioned above.
Fire vehicles shall remain stopped until the bus resumes motion or the bus driver or police officer signals you to proceed.
SB 6 Ref 1

Question 21

Question 21:
According to Chief Dunn, which stage of the fire does a parapet wall often collapse?

A: During the incipient/growth stage

B: During the fully developed/free burning stage

C: During the overhaul stage

D: During the 2nd free burning stage

Answer 21

C Explanation:
Ch 5
After the structure has been weakened and partially destroyed by fire and large caliber streams

Question 22

uestion 22:
Which comment below contains incorrect information regarding SCBA use and emergency procedures?

A: A member operating in a smoke or toxic atmosphere should not remove the SCBA regulator unless the cylinder becomes depleted or the SCBA is malfunctioning, so as to cut off the air supply.

B: Leaving the facepiece donned and removing only the regulator will provide no protection to the member’s face, but does make it easier to supply the member with air from the FAST Pak.

C: In all circumstances, where a member’s cylinder becomes depleted or his/her SCBA is malfunctioning cutting off the air supply, the member shall notify their Officer and immediately leave the contaminated area accompanied by another member using an SCBA.

D: When notified by the member, a Company Officer shall inform the Incident Commander (IC) of the operation (or the next level of command within the Sector, Group, or Branch if one has been established) that a member under their supervision has a depleted or malfunctioning SCBA and is being accompanied to a safe area by another member who is using an SCBA.

Answer 22

B Explanation:
Leaving the facepiece donned and removing only the regulator will provide some protection to the member’s face.
D) Similar notification must be made by the Company Officer when confirmation is received that members have exited the area safely.
AUC 220 2.2-2.4

Question 23

Question 23:
You arrive first due at a 7 sty 25 X 85 Old Law Tenement with heavy fire on the second and third floors. You should transmit what signal?

A:2nd alarm

B: 3rd alarm

C: 10-75

D: 10-75 with an extra Engine and Truck

Answer 23

D

Multiple Dwellings 3.4.6

Question 24

Question 24:
When necessary repairs to the apparatus have been reported and not made within a reasonable time, the company commander shall forward a written report to the?

A: Assistant Commissioner of Support Services

B: Fire Commissioner

C: Division Commander

D: Chief of Operations

Answer 24

C

Regs 13.2.1

Question 25

Question 25:
The Lobby Control Unit (LCU) will respond on a ___________ and the Company Officer will be designated the ____________

A: 10-77, Lobby Control Unit Supervisor

B: 10-75 for a High-Rise, Lobby Control Unit Officer

C: 10-76, Lobby Control Unit Officer

D: 10-76, Lobby Control Unit Leader

Answer 25

D Explanation:
ICS ch 2 add 4 sec 3
Remember: The LCU shall take on the duties of the Systems Control Unit when directed by the IC. Also, the LCU operates on the Tactical Cha

Question 26

Question 26:
What is the proper flagging column entry when a member needs to record an omitted entry in the company journal?

A: OE

B: OMEnt

C: OT

D: OM

Answer 26

D

Question 27

Question 27:
For all of the exposures below, notify BHS immediately during business hours or Car 32/33 through Fire Department Operations Center during off-hours except in which case?

A: Non-casual exposure

B: At-risk exposure

C: Casual exposure

D: Meningitis exposures for which prophylactic medication may be indicated.

Answer 27

C

CFR-D Manual Ch 3 4.2.8

Question 28

Question 28:
All Truck Officers should be aware that FAST Radio Forms can be acquired through?

A:The Battalion

B: The Division

C: The Stationary Stockroom

D: The Handie-Talkie Recording Unit

Answer 28

B

MMID Ch 2 Add 1 2.2

Question 29

Question 29:
You have just been asked to work in TL-500 on 5/30 6x9 tour to cover their company dance. You have all details: 1 proby FF from TL-400; 2 company trained chauffeurs from AL-300; 1 FF from AL-200; and 1 school trained chauffeur FF from TL-100. From the FFs listed above, who are the only 2 FFs that can operate on the pedestal of TL-500 during this tour?

A: 2 FFs from AL-300

B: Proby from TL-400 and 1 FF from AL-300

C: 1 FF from AL-300 and FF from TL-100

D: FF from TL-100 and proby from TL-400

Answer 29

D Explanation:
Detailed members cannot operate on pedestal unless they are presently assigned to a TL or are qualified Chauffeur-Tillerman (QCT, School trained)
TL Ch 1 page 6

Question 30

Question 30:
An FDNY member on the exterior of a fire building waiting to perform horizontal ventilation for extinguishment of the immediate fire area may “prepare” to vent following which transmission?

A: Notification from the Engine Officer to the Engine Chauffeur to start water.

B: Notification from the Engine Officer to the IC that the fire has been located.

C: Notification from the Engine Nozzle FF to the Control FF that enough hose has been stretched.

D: Notification from the Ladder Officer to the Engine Officer of the location of the fire.

Answer 30

A Explanation:
Before venting the window(s) the member must communicate with and receive approval from the Ladder Company Officer inside the fire area to be vented
Vent 11.4

Question 31

Question 31:
You have just been ordered to put the cockloft nozzle in use for a top floor fire in a 100x100 H-type multiple dwelling. You should know who carries the cockloft nozzle?

A: All Battalions and Divisions

B: All Rescues and Squads

C: All Rescues and Battalions

D: All Squads and Divisions

Answer 31

D Training Bulletins 7 Data Sheet 18 sec 2.2

Question 32

Question 32:
Which choice below reflects the most correct sequence for starting a high rise office building’s fire pumps?

A: Close circuit breaker(s), Close knife switch to on, Push starting button, Move selector lever to desired position increasing pump speed.

B: Close knife switch to on, Close circuit breaker(s), Push starting button, Move selector lever to desired position increasing pump speed.

C: Push starting button, Close circuit breaker(s), Close knife switch to on, Move selector lever to desired position increasing pump speed.

D: Close circuit breaker(s), Move selector lever to desired position increasing pump speed, Close knife switch to on, Push starting button.

Answer 32

B Explanation:
1. Close knife switch to on
2. Close circuit breaker(s) & power “on” light will glow
3. Push starting button & pump “on” light will glow
4. Move selector lever to desired position increasing pump speed and thereby increasing pressure
HROB 4.1.4

Question 33

Question 33:
The most correct priority order of shutting down a natural gas valve can be found in which choice?

A: Appliance valve, Interior Gas Riser valve, Individual Meter Valve, Master Meter valve, Head of Service valve, Curb Valve/Service Valve, Main valve

B: Appliance valve, Individual Meter Valve, Interior Gas Riser valve, Master Meter valve, Head of Service valve, Curb Valve/Service Valve, Main valve

C: Appliance valve, Interior Gas Riser valve, Individual Meter Valve, Head of Service valve, Master Meter valve, Curb Valve/Service Valve, Main valve

D: Appliance valve, Individual Meter Valve, Interior Gas Riser valve, Head of Service valve, Master Meter valve, Curb Valve/Service Valve, Main valve

Answer 33

A

Question 34

Question 34:
You are a Lieutenant the first day out of FLSTP and your first response is to a report of a manhole fire. Upon arrival you discover no fire, but see smoke issuing under pressure. You should transmit what signal?

A: 10-25 code 1

B: 10-25 no code

C: 10-25 code 3

D: 10-25 code 2

Answer 34

D 10-25-2 is for a blown cover or smoke issuing under pressure. Smoke SEEPING would be a code 3.

Question 35

Question 35:
The Department of Transportation classifies chemicals in 9 categories. Which numerical category is corrosives under?

A: 5

B: 6

C: 7

D :8

E: 9

Answer 35

Explanation:
5-Oxidizers
6-Posions
7-Radioactive Material
9-Miscellaneous Dangerous Goods
Haz-Mat 3 sec 2.1

Question 36

Question 36:
Newer taxpayers have roof supports of lightweight open web steel joists. All of the following are correct regarding this support system except?

A: The most common decking is corrugated steel.

B: Fire resistance is a function of the mass of the material. Lightweight members have little inherent fire resistance.

C: Roofs of fire buildings with this type of roof support system may only be cut when directed by the Roof Sector Supervisor.

D: Joists are spaced greater distances apart than the standard wood joists.

Answer 36

C Explanation:
Roofs of fire buildings with this type of roof support system must not be cut. Vertical ventilation should be limited to removal of skylights and scuttle covers if present.
Txpyr 5.5.26

Question 37

Question 37:
As a company officer, you might have to supervise decontamination procedures using several different types of methods. Choose the incorrect method

A: When using two 2 1/2 handlines opposite of each other, the approximate distance should be 25’-30’ apart and the recommended operating pressure should be 50-80 psi

B: When using two pumpers with the aquastream nozzles, the pumpers should be placed approximately 25 feet apart, control panels facing the outside, and operating pressure of 50-80 psi

C: If using a TL in conjunction with two pumpers, the TL should be equipped with the Angus foam cannon nozzle at the edge of the water spray formed from the pumpers

D: In immediately life threatening exposures where emergency decontamination is necessary, fog nozzles can be attached to the multiversal on an engine, or to a TL outlet, for a very quick gross decon setup

Answer 37

C Explanation:
Turbomaster fog nozzle for a TL or an Aerial Ladder with a ladder pipe and Aquastream fog nozzle aat the edge of the water spray formed from the pumpers
Haz-Mat 7 pages 3-6

Question 38

Question 38:
Arson fires in vacant buildings are a danger to FDNY members. All of the following are correct in describing diesel fuel fires except in which choice?

A: Heat developed will be for a longer duration than fires involving gasoline.

B: Compared to gasoline, diesel fires will ignite more of the combustible materials in the area, and produce a fire of rapid spread and greater magnitude.

C: Diesel vapors, immediately upon ignition, burn with lightning rapidity with high heat production. Exposed combustible material in the flash area will be ignited

D: Fires in diesel vapors develop slowly at the start, but progress rapidly as vapor production intensifies.

Answer 38

C Explanation:
Gasoline vapors, immediately upon ignition, burn with lightning rapidity with high heat production. Exposed combustible material in the flash area will be ignited.
Vacants 1.5.2 A, C

Question 39

Question 39:
When fully functioning, the EFAS screen will download the latest version of the Spare Radio Database in the bottom center of the task bar in what color?

A: Red

B:White

C: Blue

D: Green

E: Yellow

Answer 39

D Communications ch 9 add 3 sec 4.2

Question 40

ACRONYM FOR HAZMAT 9 CLASSIFICATION

Answer 40

EVERY EXPLOSIVES

GOOD-GASSES

FIRE-FLAMMABLE LIQUID

FIGHTER–FLAMMABLE SOLID

OBEYS-ORGANIC/ OXIDIZERS

THE -TOXIC

RULES- RADIOACTIVE

CAREFULLY-CORROSIVESS

MOST OF THE TIME-MISC