QUEENS 12

Question 1

Question 1:
The Housewatch “Person” has how many seconds to acknowledge an alarm for the PC/ATS?

A: 5 seconds

B: 10 seconds

C: 15 seconds

D:20 seconds

Answer 1

D Explanation:
If there is no response in 20 seconds, the dispatcher will prompt the unit to verify response via the Voice Alarm
Communications Ch2 sec 2.2.1.C

Question 2

Question 2:
During a hurricane or severe storm, when a report is received that individuals are stranded due to flooding, a Water Rescue Team equipped with a 14-foot Flat Bottom Boat, waders, cold water suits, and PFD’s will be dispatched. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding these teams?

A: The “Water Rescue Team” consists of a Water Rescue Company and an Engine Company.

B: When the Water Rescue Company is a Ladder Company, an Engine Company will be dispatched to transport the Flat Bottom Boat. Priority will be given to dispatching the Engine that is quartered with the Ladder Company when available.

C: When the Water Rescue Company is an Engine Company, they will transport the Flat Bottom Boat, and a neighboring Engine Company will be dispatched to assist in operations.

D:No members shall enter the water without a Cold Water Suit or waders and a PFD, unless they are proficient swimmers.

Answer 2

D Explanation:
No member shall enter the water unless equipped with a Cold Water Suit or waders and a PFD.

Question 3

Question 3:
You just finished operating at an outside rubbish fire. You radio to your chauffeur to transmit a 10-19 for a 10-______?

A: 21

B:22

C: 31

D: 39

Answer 3

B Explanation:
A- Brush Fire
C- Assist Civilian
D- FD units standing by at interagency incident
Communications Ch 8

Question 4

Question 4:
Power take-offs on hydraulically operated aerial ladders and tower ladders shall not be operated for instruction purposes (drill) for periods exceeding?

A: 30 seconds

B: 15 minutes

C: 5 minutes

D:30 minutes

Answer 4

D Explanation:
Such operation may cause damage or failure of relief valves and/or control parts.
Regs 22.5.3

Question 5

Question 5:
Company officers when called during an Emergency Roll Call, will account for their FFs how?

A:Within sight or hearing without using the HT

B: Within sight only

C: Within hearing only

D: Within sight or hearing with or without using the HT

Answer 5

A Explanation:
After receiving a reply from the company officer, the RCO will then call the remaining members of that company.
Communications Ch 9 add 2 sec 4.7

Question 6

Question 6:
During taxpayer fire operations, “examination holes” should be cut for all of the following reasons except?

A: Determine if fire has extended to that area.

B: Use right angle tips, or if the cockloft is deep enough, cellar pipes.

C: Determine if and where additional ventilation cuts may be necessary.

D:Serve as an initial ventilation hole.

Answer 6

D Explanation:
Release pent up gases, smoke and heat in areas removed from the fire.
Taxpayer 5.5.21

Question 7

Question 7:
As an Incident Commander during a routine call for a C.O. activation, you should know that all of the following statements are correct except?

A:Using a C.O. meter, the initial reading should take place in the cellar

B: If occupants are symptomatic, they should be evacuated and treated

C: Call for the utility company if readings are 10 PPM or more

D: Call for the utility company if the IC feels its necessary

Answer 7

A Explanation:
Take an initial reading at the front door of premises
Haz Mat 4 sec 4.1.3

Question 8

Question 8:
When filling out a PCR at a CFR run, if a patient is unable to verbalize his or her “Chief Complaint” because the patient is unresponsive, the “documenter” Firefighter shall write which of the following?

A: Nothing - Leave it blank

B: Not applicable

C: Patient unable

D:Patient unresponsive

Answer 8

D Explanation:
CFR-D Chapter 5
D. 4.9
Enter the patient’s statement of the problem in his or her own words, (e.g., “My chest hurts”). If the patient is unresponsive write “Patient unresponsive”

Question 9

Question 9:
From the choices listed below, which chemical agent has a fruity odor?

A:Nerve

B: Blister

C: Blood

D: Choking

Answer 9

A Explanation:
B- Fishy, Garlic, Mustard, Geraniums
C- Burnt Almonds
D- Musky Hay/Bleach
Watch out for Blister agents. It has several types of odors
ERP add 2 p 18

Question 10

Question 10:
At a fire in a high rise office building, if difficulty is encountered in clearing the attack stairway of occupants, the officer of the third arriving ladder company shall make a notification to withhold the attack until the occupants have been safely removed. Which of the choices below is NOT an option for this advisement?

A: Notify the first arriving ladder company

B: Notify the Fire Sector Supervisor

C:Notify the second arriving ladder company

D:Notify the Fire Branch Director, if established

Answer 10

C Explanation:
HROB 8.5.1 B7

Question 11

Question 11:
The TIF 8800X Combustible Gas Detector has been revoked from the books recently and replaced with the Sensit TKX Combustible Gas Detector. In regards to the Sensit TKX Detector, all of the following statements are correct except?

A: Carried by all Battalions, Haz-Mat 1, HMTUs, Rescues, and Ladder companies

B: Can detect Methane as low as 20 PPM

C:A fully charged battery supplies approximately 5 hours of continuous use

D: A recharge takes 2 to 5 hours and the LED will illuminate green to indicate a fully charged battery

Answer 11

C xplanation:
20 hours of continuous use……Also, If the LED blinks green or does not illuminate, the battery needs to be recharged. If recharging does not produce a solid green LED after 5 hours notify Haz-Mat Operations
know this meter (its new)
Emergency Procedures Natural Gas add 5 pages 1-2

Question 12

Question 12:
All conditions below shall immediately prohibit a life saving rope evolution attempt except?

A: A viable substantial object is not available.

B: The effectiveness of the anti-chafing device will be compromised due to building construction (i.e. protruding facades and exposure of the life saving rope to sharp surfaces).

C:The rope will likely be exposed to low-heated surfaces of approximately 225 degrees F during deployment.

D: There are not enough members at the lowering point and at the adjoining windows or floors below to ensure a successful pick-up and retrieval of the firefighter and victim.

Answer 12

C xplanation:
Nylon rope when exposed to heat over 300°F will progressively lose strength, and will melt at 482°F. Rope that has been exposed to highly heated surfaces cannot be considered safe and shall be placed out of service and replacement requested.
TB Rope 1 2.7, 4.11

Question 13

Question 13:
As a newly promoted officer, you should know that there are several conditions for a wind impacted fire to occur in a HRFPMD. Choose the incorrect condition

A: Wind

B: Fire in an apartment

C: Failed or opened window in the fire room

D: Fire apartment door leading to the public hall left open or not fully closed

E:An area of low pressure such as an opened stairwell door, or an opened apartment door on the same side of the public hallway from the fire apartment .

Answer 13

E Explanation:
Opposite side of the public hallway from the fire apartment
Multiple Dwellings add 3 sec 2.2

Question 14

Question 14:
When a floor collapses and an interior partition or wall holds up the center of the fallen floor, this is indicative of a ________.

A: V-shaped floor collapse

B: Lean-To collapse

C:Tent floor collapse

D: Curtain-fall wall collapse

Answer 14

C

Question 15

Question 15:
You have just been ordered to stretch a handline with a fog tip to assist in extinguishing small pockets of fire on an Amtrak train in close proximity to catenary lines containing approximately 12,000 volts of electricity. You should make sure your FFs take advantage of the reach of the fog stream and observe a minimum approach distance of how many feet?

A: 5 feet

B:10 feet

C: 15 feet

D: 20 feet

Answer 15

B Explanation:
AUC 207 add 9 sec 3.2.4
Also see AUC 180 add 2 sec 8.4 and 8.5 for minimum safe distance for applying FireIce

Question 16

Question 16:
According to FDNY procedures regarding ventilation and related tactics, which statement below is correct?

A: It is acceptable to take significant risk for a suspected life hazard.

B: It is never acceptable to take significant risk for a known life hazard.

C:It is acceptable to take significant risk for a known life hazard and adjust our standard operating procedures accordingly.

D: It is never acceptable to engage in action at an operation involving any type of risk.

Answer 16

C

Vent 12.4

Question 17

Choose the incorrect responsibility of the Lobby Control Unit (LCU).

A:LCU shall take on the duties of the Communication Unit when directed by the IC

B: Assume control of elevators and provide operators

C: Ensure that all elevators are recalled and searched

D: establish controls to account for personnel exiting and entering the elevators

E: Provide resources to transport personnel to upper floors as required

Answer 17

A Explanation:
LCU shall take on the duties of the SYSTEMS CONTROL UNIT when directed by the IC
ICS ch 2 add 4 sec 2

Question 18

Question 18:
FDNY members are prohibited from making public statements that are disruptive to the operations of the Department, or that would disclose confidential information. These include all of the following which are described correctly, except in which choice?

A:Final, official Department policies

B: Investigations

C: Legal proceedings

D: Security precautions

Answer 18

A Non-final Department policies
Note: This also includes “Medical information of others” including, but not limited to, the identity of patients, the medical status of a patient, and the home address and telephone number of a patient; and “Other information protected from disclosure by law”.
Acronym: NO SLIM
Non-final Dept Policies
Other info protected by law
Security precautions
Legal proceedings
Investigations
Medical info of others

AUC 332 3.3.1

Question 19

story NFP multiple dwelling. As you approach the first ladder company on scene, you remind your chauffeur not to position the apparatus any closer than how many feet?

A: 5 feet

B: 10 feet

C:15 feet

D:20 feet

Answer 19

D

positioned closer than 20 feet to the rear of the 1st arriving ladder apparatus, the 20’ straight or the 35’ extension ladder cannot be removed from the internal slide-in racks due to insufficient clearance
Note: The 35’ extension ladder in the closed position is 20’
Ladders 1 sec 1.1 and 7.1

Question 20

Question 20:
A knowledgeable Lieutenant directing a morning drill was mistaken when he stated that?

A: Whenever possible, the supply pumper in a relay operation should not supply any handlines or large caliber streams.

B:Ladder companies shall precede engine companies when both units are responding together on the same alarm.

C: Whenever possible, only two handlines should be operated from a pumper.

D: Whenever possible, the pumper supplying a large caliber stream should not supply any handlines or additional large caliber streams.

Answer 20

B Explanation:
Engine companies shall precede ladder companies when both units are responding together on the same alarm.
Eng 3.6.3, 3.7.2

Question 21

Question 21:
For most promotional exams, the Tower Ladder Bulletin is a go to section of our books especially since it’s new. From the list below, choose the incorrect statement.

A: When transmitting orders between the bucket and pedestal, the reference point is always the pedestal

B:The water system hook-up consists of a 3” x 3” gated inlet on the left side and a 4 1⁄2” ungated inlet on the right side

C: The on board intercom system is the most effective means of communication between basket and pedestal

D: The on board intercom system should be the primary means of communication between the bucket and the pedestal

E:The on board intercom system shall be checked daily

Answer 21

E Tourly and at the initial stages of placing TL into operation
TL Ch 1 Page 9

Question 22

Queens Package - Exam 12

BACK LIST NEXT

Question 22:
Members of a busy Brooklyn Engine Company were discussing proper operations with a foam hand-line. Which comment made was incorrect?

A: With 1 ¾” hose, the maximum stretch is six (6) lengths to the nozzle.

B: The member at the pumper places the pickup tube into the container and the ECC starts water, providing 200 PSI at the eductor. The foam nozzle shall then be fully opened and directed at the fire.

C: With 2 ½” hose, the maximum stretch is ten (10) lengths to the nozzle.

D:When operating uphill, head pressure is created and will have a drastic effect on foam production; however, the go-gauge needle will remain in the green.

Answer 22

D Explanation:
When operating uphill, head pressure is created and will have minimal effect on foam production; however, this could cause the needle on the go-gauge to approach the red.
TB Foam Evol 1 2.2, 2.4

Question 23

Question 23:
The most correct signal to transmit upon arrival at a private dwelling fire constructed with light weight materials can be found in which choice?

A:10-75 with an extra Engine only

B: 10-75 with an extra Engine and Ladder

C: 10-75 with an extra Ladder only

D: 2nd alarm

Answer 23

A xplanation:
This is a tough question. Read this section carefully
PDs ch 6 4.2.2

Question 24

Question 24:
A Lieutenant conducting drill on Under River Rail operations and emergency exits made three correct statements. Which choice below was NOT one of those statements?

A: Some exit stairways are narrow and steep, while others are wider, with a pitch that is comfortable to walk on.

B: The depth and pitch of stairways corresponds to the depths of the under river tubes, which range from 24 to 130 feet deep.

C: Evacuating civilians and Fire Department members wearing PPE will have difficulty exiting through stairways which are narrow and steep. Lighting may need to be enhanced and glow sticks will provide illumination without adding extra heat.

D:Stairways are constructed of either concrete or metal. Concrete stairs are often steeper.

Answer 24

D Explanation:
The metal stairs are often steeper, with open treads.
URR 2.5.2, 2.5.3

Question 25

Question 25:
Answer the following question according to Chief Dunn’s book “Collapse of Burning Buildings” 2nd edition. In descending order, from the highest to the lowest, list the 4 parts of a building when involved in a collapse will kill FFs

A:Floors, Roof, Walls, Ceilings

B: Ceilings, Walls, Roof, Floors

C: Roof, Ceilings, Floors, Walls

D: Walls, Ceilings, Floors, Roof

Answer 25

A Explanation:
Dunn Chapter 1

Question 26

Question 26:
Whenever the PSS is placed out of service, the officer on duty shall have the system immediately replaced by making immediate phone notification to the ______.

A: administrative Battalion

B:administrative Division

C: Safety Command

D: Rope Unit at the Fire Academy

Answer 26

B

TB Rope 4 6.2

Question 27

Question 27:
Members of L-200 made the following statements when operating at an OLT fire. Choose the incorrect statement

A: The 2nd arriving ladder shall operate on the top floor with the 1st arriving ladder when the fire is in the cockloft

B: For a top floor fire, the 2nd arriving Roof FF shall proceed to the roof with the saw. Not the 1st arriving Roof FF

C: For a top floor fire, the 1st arriving OV FF shall take the saw in place of the hook to the roof of the fire building

D:For a top floor fire, the 2nd arriving Extinguisher FFs tool assignment consists of HT, Flashlight, 6’ hook, and Pressurized Water Extinguisher

Answer 27

D Explanation:
two 6’ hooks in lieu of the pressurized water extinguisher
Ladders 3 sec 3.2.5, 3.4.4, 3.5.2

Question 28

Question 28:
Aircraft emergencies are unique incidents for FDNY members. All officers should realize that the location of voice and flight data recorders, if found “detached” from the aircraft, should be carefully noted and once located and secured, the recorders must not be opened or tampered with. What color will a spherical recorder be?

A: International Orange

B:Red

C: Dark Black

D:Bright Yellow

Answer 28

D Explanation:
Spherical recorders are painted bright yellow, while rectangular recorders are red or international orange.
Note: If found “attached” to the aircraft, they should not be removed except to preserve them from further fire damage. As a general rule, the voice and flight data recorders are located in the rear of the fuselage.
*Remember, the “Black Box” is not black
AUC 325 6.2.3

Question 29

Question 29:
Your working the 6X9 tour in Aerial Ladder 100 and arrive 1st due for a severe 2nd floor fire in a 4sty 30X80 NFP multiple dwelling with no people showing in need of rescue. Exposures 2 and 4 are similar attached buildings. As you exit the apparatus, you instruct your chauffeur to adhere to the following tactics for apparatus placement. Choose the incorrect tactic.

A: Place the apparatus 25 to 35 feet from the building for a good climbing angle

B: Position the turntable in the center of the building

C: Ready the truck for raising the aerial (set brakes, stabilizers, chocks)

D:Place the center of the turntable approximately 15’ from the side wall passed on your approach in case the LCC needs to move forward after initial placement

Answer 29

D Explanation:
This is for a large frontage building (over 30’ in width)
Narrow frontage is 30’ or less
Ladders 2 sec 3.1.1, 3.4, 3.5.1.A

Question 30

Question 30:
Which of the following statements in reference to CFR-D training is incorrect?

A: Semi-annually on January 1st and July 1st each year, the CFR unit will forward a company roster listing all members with a CFR certificate and the expiration date of the certificate

B: If a member is eligible to opt out of the CFR-D program, he or she may do so only if his or her assigned CFR-D Company has at least 14 or more CFR-D qualified Firefighters

C: When opting out, a written request must be forwarded to the Chief of Operations at least 90 days prior to the expiration of his or her CFR-D certification

D:The FDNY will not consider or approve a Lieutenant who wants to opt out of the CFR-D p

Answer 30

D Explanation:
CFR-D Manual Ch 1
A. 2.8.1
B. 3.3.1 B
C. 3.3.1 D
D. The FDNY, within its discretion, will consider and approve requests by Lieutenants to opt out of the CFR-D Program, upon expiration of the officer’s certification. 3.3.3 A

Question 31

31:
A flanking strategy, in a HRFPMD, is the application of water from the inside the fire building to control the main body of fire via a non-frontal attack. The following tactics shall be considered when using the flanking strategy for a fire apartment door left in the open position include all of the following except?

A: The flanking strategy is based on the location of the fire apartment, the location of a stairway closer to the selected apartment, and the interior hallway conditions

B: A small opening is made in the adjoining apartment wall to the fire room close to the exterior wall as possible, so as not to create a flow path

C:When making a small opening in the adjoining apartment wall to the fire room, the size of the hole should be only large enough for the 2 1/2 shut off to be placed into the opening allowing the stream to be directed at the ceiling of the fire room

D: Once access is obtained to the adjoining apartment, the door to that apartment must remain closed and the hoseline stretched to this adjoining apartment from the apartment below via an exterior window or balcony using a utility rope

Answer 31

C Explanation:
Main stream tip. NOT THE SHUTOFF.
This is a big difference on test day
All ranks should know this section of MDs cold
Multiple Dwellings add 3 sec 4.2.4

Question 32

Question 32:
Upon your arrival as the FAST unit at a Rowframe fire, you should be aware that the IC may have designated any of the following for possible assistance or rescue, except?

A:Uncommitted chauffeurs or light duty aides.

B: Safety Team.

C: Companies in reserve or available for immediate reassignment.

D: Members available for immediate reassignment.

Answer 32

A Explanation:
Uncommitted chauffeurs or FULL DUTY aides.
Acronym: U SAFE
Uncommitted chauffeurs
Safety Team
Available members or companies
Full duty aides
Extra units held in reserve
MMID Ch 4 3.1Explanation:
Uncommitted chauffeurs or FULL DUTY aides.
Acronym: U SAFE
Uncommitted chauffeurs
Safety Team
Available members or companies
Full duty aides
Extra units held in reserve
MMID Ch 4 3.1

Question 33

Question 33:
At fires in Brownstone buildings, the 10-ft scissor ladder is a useful tool for the OV. It can be used to accomplish all of the following except?

A: Access to 2nd floor for VEIS

B:Access to roof of 1 or 2 story setback

C: Access to the 3rd floor from the roof of setback for ventilation

D: Provide means of climbing fences

Answer 33

B Explanation:
Access to roof of 1 story setback.
Also, in a closed position it can be used for venting.
Bwst 2.6 OV duties B

Question 34

Question 34:
According to the BISP manual, when conducting an inspection of emergency exits in a transit facility, all of the following should be reported by telephone to the Public Transportation Safety Unit except?

A: Defective emergency exit ladders or stairs.

B:Inadequate width of the bench walk.

C:Obstructions to emergency exits in the subway or on the street level.

D: Inoperative emergency exit doors.

Answer 34

B xplanation:
Fire Department members inspecting emergency exits should NEVER enter track ways or adjacent bench walks. Inspections are to be confined to the area within the emergency exit itself.
Telephone PTSU for Missing or defective exit signs or lights.
Also, any other deficiency that in the judgment of the officer on duty requires immediate attention. BISP Ch 5 Ref 8.4 1.4 C, D

Question 35

Question 35:
The most correct procedure when putting the Sensit TKX Combustible Gas Detector OOS can be found in which choice?

A: Call administrative Battalion for pickup

B: Call administrative Division for pickup

C: Fill out and attach a RT-2 and send through bag to Tech Services

D:Call Haz-Mat Operations and request a replacement

Answer 35

D Explanation:
METERS SHALL NOT BE SENT THROUGH THE BAG
Know this procedure
Emergency Procedures Natural Gas add 5 sec 5

Question 36

Question 36:
The Chief of Operations requires the supervisor of a unit to submit a “multiple member injury report” when?

A: Two or more members suffer injuries at separate incidents during a single tour of duty, resulting in medical leave that tour.

B:Three or more members suffer injuries at the same incident resulting in medical leave that tour.

C: Four or more members suffer injuries at the same incident resulting in medical leave within 30 days of the incident.

D: Three or more members suffer injuries at the same incident resulting in medical leave that tour for only one member.

Answer 36

B Explanation:
SB 7 Add 2 1.3

Question 37

Question 37:
The GasAlert Extreme is a pocket sized warning device issued to all units for monitoring CO gas in ambient air. When the atmosphere exceeds 35 PPM, the meter will signal all of the following except?

A: a slow modulating tone every 1 second

B:slow flashing orange light every 1 second

C: slow vibration every 1 second

D: When the CO concentration falls below 35 PPM, the alarm will automatically turn off

Answer 37

B

Explanation:
Red lights
if meter exceeds 100 PPM, the meter will emit a tone every 1/2 second, flashing red lights every 1/2 second, and a fast vibration every 1/2 second
Haz Mat 4 add 1 sec 2.4

Question 38

Question 38:
During fire operations in a cast iron or mill loft building where there is potential for a backdraft on intermediate floors and vertical ventilation is not possible, all of the actions below would be considered correct except in which choice?

A: Position the hoseline with firefighters to the side of the entrance to the fire area.

B: Ensure the initial hoseline is 2 1/2”.

C: Utilize the reach of the hose stream and begin the attack with firefighters as low as possible. This may require starting from a few steps down the stairs from the entrance.

D:Once the door is forced open, the hoseline should be discharged into the fire area only after allowing a few seconds for heat and gases to vent out of the door.

Answer 38

D Explanation:
The hoseline should be immediately discharged into the fire area when it is accessed. Taking this action before firefighters and outside air enters a potentially explosive fire area will allow the water stream to break-up and cool the ambient air. This should be coordinated with exterior ventilation.
L

Question 39

Question 39:
You have just been designated the Roll Call Officer. In order to fulfill this important position, you would know that the pre-printed Emergency Roll Call forms can be found where?

A:All Battalion and Division Vehicles

B: All Battalion vehicles only

C: All Division vehicles only

D: Field Communications vehicle only

Answer 39

A Explanation:
These pre-printed forms will help keep track of companies and members as they reply to the roll call
Communications Ch 9 add 2 sec 4.3

Question 40

Question 40:
The NYC Transit Authority’s Emergency Evacuation Device (EED) can be found at a number of locations throughout the transit system. Which location below is listed incorrectly?

A: At underground stations, the EED is located at the first Blue Light location south of the southbound platform (typically within 50 feet of the platform end).

B:At grade level stations, the EED will be located in the area of the full time token booth.

C: At elevated stations, the EED will be located in the area of the full time token booth.

D: An EED is located at the base of the emergency exit, at both ends of each under river tunnel.

Answer 40

B Explanation:
At grade level stations, the EED is located at the first Blue Light location south of the southbound platform (typically within 50 feet of the platform end).
In Staten Island, EEDs are located near Tower B, at the Saint George Rail Terminal and near the crew quarters at the Tottenville Train Yard.