brooklyn 16 100 question review Flashcards

1
Q

Question 1:

Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding the established procedure for addressing a failure of part of an Alarm Box system?

A: The Dispatcher will notify the Engine Company, normally assigned “First Due”, to place an OUT-OF-SERVICE sign on the affected box(es).

B: Ladder companies may be directed to replace Engine Companies in the performance of placing OUT-OF-SERVICE signs on the affected box(es) or may be directed to assist Engine Companies.

C:A supply of OUT-OF-SERVICE signs and attachment materials will be stored at each Battalion headquarters. Company Officers shall contact their administrative Battalion to request the appropriate number of signs that need to be posted. In the event that the administrative Battalion cannot be contacted, the administrative Division will provide the signs.

D:Company Officers shall notify the Dispatcher when the posting of OUT-OF-SERVICE signs has been completed.

A

Explanation:
In the event that the administrative Battalion cannot be contacted, an ADJACENT BATTALION will provide the signs.
Comm Ch 1 1.7.1

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2
Q

Question 2:
The most correct action you took during a Buckeye Pipeline operation can be found in which choice?

A:You ordered one of your FFs to insert the two and one-half foot long wrench with a female fitting into the valve box onto a male square fitting and turn clockwise 84 full turns to shut off the valve

B: Being in a Ladder Company responding from quarters on the second alarm for a street box associated with a leak, ordered your FFs to place additional cans of foam on the apparatus

C: You hung up on the wall an extra set of wrenches in the company office so all relocate officers can easily identify

D:You went against the required duties as per the Instruction Card, and ordered your FFs not to shut the valve due to the need to protect life in a serious life threatening situation

A

Explanation:
AUC 149 Buckeye Pipeline
A- Three and one-half foot long wrench/ 42 full turns/84 half turns…….LIC Terminal 24 full turns/48 half turns…..2.3.2
B- Engine Companies….4.12
C- On the wall near the HW desk, or some other prominent location easily visible, and clearly marked…4.5
D- 6.1

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3
Q

uestion 3:
Two members of a Queens Engine Company were discussing Steam operations when one made an incorrect comment. Indicate the incorrect statement.

A: Steam pressures in generating plants can be as high as 2,000 psi with temperatures reaching 900ºF. Steam pressures in the buried supply piping and in supplied buildings can be as high as 170 psi and temperatures as high as 350ºF.

B: Escaping high pressure steam can hurl debris at 200 mph. Anyone in the vicinity of the break is in danger of being struck by flying, high velocity debris.

C: A ruptured steam main could be the result of a terrorist attack. Monitor for the presence of radiological contaminants. Responding units shall monitor radiation detection devices upon receipt of an alarm for a ruptured steam main.

D:In an emergency, members may shut the Outside Service Valve. It will be labeled and sealed. If possible, wait for Con Ed steam personnel to shut the necessary valves.

A

Explanation:
In an emergency, members may shut the Inside Service Valve. It will be labeled and sealed. If possible, wait for Con Ed steam personnel to shut the necessary valves.
There is a building steam shutoff located outside the building. FD members should SHOULD NOT attempt to shut this valve. This valve should ONLY be shut by Con Edison steam personnel.
EP Steam 2.2, 4.2a, 4.4, 5

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4
Q

Question 4:
You are working in E-100 during the 9x6 tour in the great Borough of Staten Island when you receive a ticket for a brush fire at the intersection of Tompkins ave and Hope lane. Upon arrival, you transmit a 10-75 for a large brush fire exposing several occupied private dwellings. The only tactic you carried out correctly at this incident can be found in which choice?

A: You concentrated on mobility, and avoided hooking up to a hydrant

B:Did not concentrate on mobility. Instead, you hooked up to a hydrant and protected exposures

C: In an attempt to protect exposures, you set up a water curtain using fog lines to break-up the heat waves generated by the fire

D: After protecting exposures (life not in danger), you attacked the fire from the head (front)

A

Explanation:
AUC 151 Brush Fire Operations
A- First protect exposures…5.4.1
B-5.4.2
C- Attempting to break-up heat waves by using a water curtain is generally ineffective. Instead, utilize streams to apply water directly onto exposures….5.4.17
D- Attack the fire from the flanks and attempt to narrow its spread, eventually heading it off…5.4.9
****If necessary to operate in front of the fire (only to protect life) sufficient charged lines must be in place and capable of protecting operating forces

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5
Q

Question 5:
EMS borough frequencies are available on Engine and Ladder Fire apparatus in their Borough Dispatch radio, allowing Fire units to communicate directly with EMS dispatchers. Of the following choices, which is not in accordance with Department policy?

A: When deemed necessary by the IC, these frequencies may be used to communicate critical information; they are not to be used for routine requests. Transmissions on these frequencies should be in plain speak language (do not use “10” codes, fire jargon, etc).

B: Typically, EMS units operate on one of the EMS borough frequencies. When assigned to a 10-75, EMS units will switch to and monitor EMS-CW1.

C: When transmitting on the EMS citywide frequency, include the unit calling, address of the incident including cross streets (do not use Box Number) and relevant critical information.

D:Direct communication with the EMS citywide dispatcher does not need to be repeated to the FD borough dispatcher; a single transmission on either frequency is appropriate.

A

Explanation:
Direct communication with the EMS citywide dispatcher DOES NOT relieve units of their responsibility to maintain communications with the FD borough dispatcher as per existing Fire Department procedures. This includes transmitting all appropriate signals, progress reports and unit status as necessary.
Comm Ch 14 Add 1 2.5, 3.2, 3.7, 3.8

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6
Q

Question 6:
Phase A has just been implemented for a severe snow storm that is about to strike the NYC metropolitan area. You call your chauffeur to the office and ask her to place additional equipment on the apparatus. Choose the incorrect additional piece of equipment she put on the apparatus.

A:10 extra lengths of 2 1/2 hose, rolled or folded

B:Extra MASK

C: 2 shovels

D: Containers of salt and/or sand

E: Vehicle recovery strap with shackle

A

Explanation:
To be placed on Ladders and Engines
1- At least 6 extra lengths of 2 1/2 hose, rolled or folded
2- 2 shovels
3- Containers of salt and/or sand
4- Vehicle recovery strap with shackle
5- Tire chains, spare links and link tool
6- Specialized hydrant connection set-up as determined by individual commanding officers
AUC 200 sec 3.3.3

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7
Q

Question 7:

Which one of following conditions is indicative of a Major Gas Emergency?

A: Any damage to major components of the gas infrastructure (i.e., a Master Meter servicing many appliances, gas service pipe, Main Valves, Distribution Mains, etc.)

B:Indications of gas migrating into a building from an outside source.

C: Gas present in one or more subsurface structures (manhole, sewer, etc.)

D:10% LEL or greater in an unvented, subsurface structure (manhole, sewer, etc.)

A

Explanation:
-SERIOUS damage to major components of the gas infrastructure (i.e., a Master Meter servicing many appliances, gas service pipe, Main Valves, Distribution Mains, etc.)
-10% LEL or greater detected outside or inside.
-20% LEL or greater in an unvented, subsurface structure (manhole, sewer, etc.)
-Gas present in two or more subsurface structures (manhole, sewer, etc.)
-Indications of gas migrating into a building from an outside source.
-Gas leaking inside of a structure and the controlling valve cannot be located or is inoperable.
Gas leaking or present inside of a wall or void in a structure.
EP Gas 5

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8
Q

Question 8:
You are working in L-200 during the 6x9 when you walk down stairs into the kitchen and see alcohol on the table. You look around and reasonably suspect that all the members of L-200 have been drinking. The correct course of action for you to take in this situation include all of the following except?

A:Notify the Inspector General (IG)

B: Notify the administrative Battalion

C: Document the incident in the company journal

D: Prohibit on and off-duty members from leaving premises, immediately relieve the on-duty members from emergency response duty, and place the affected Unit OOS

A

Explanation:
Bureau of Investigations (BITS)
AUC 202 sec 5.5
Know this section

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9
Q

Question 9:
Proper communications are critical to the success of any operation. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: Handie-Talkies and cell phones shall not be used within 150 feet of vehicles transporting explosives, explosive magazines, or areas where blasting operations are in progress.

B: Apparatus, Post and Marine radios shall not be operated within 300 feet of vehicles transporting explosives, explosive magazines, or areas where blasting operations are in progress.

C: The Incident Commander of an operation must notify the dispatcher by radio that a fire is suspicious prior to leaving the scene. If, after leaving the scene, information becomes available which indicates that the fire is suspicious, the Incident Commander shall immediately notify the dispatcher and the Bureau of Fire Investigation, by telephone, that the fire has been declared suspicious.

D:Upon notification of a defective/non-operating apparatus radio, the Division shall supply the affected unit with a portable citywide radio. During response, the affected unit will use the citywide radio in lieu of the non-operating apparatus radio for all communications to the borough dispatcher. The citywide radio shall be carried/worn by the company officer at all times.

A

Explanation:
The citywide radio is NOT to be carried/worn by the company officer; it shall REMAIN IN THE FRONT CAB of the apparatus and serve as a communication link from the unit to the borough dispatcher.
A) Note: In addition, Handie-Talkies shall not be operated in a building in which police personnel are searching for an explosive device.
Comm Ch 8 8.4.5, p 8-12, 8.14.4, 8.14.5

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10
Q

Question 10:
The Department has issued an unlimited use FDNY Metrocard to each unit. These cards are to be used for access to the subway system only during fires and emergencies. Lt Metro working in E-500 made the only correct statement in regards to the Metrocard in which choice?

A: If the apparatus is taken OOS and a spare is issued, the chauffeur shall ensure that the Metrocard is removed from the assigned apparatus and secured on spare apparatus

B: Once each day, the officer on duty shall record an entry in the Company Journal stating that the assigned Metrocard is accounted for and on apparatus

C:When a Metrotech is reported lost, stolen or damaged, the officer on duty shall immediately notify administrative Battalion

D:When a Metrotech is reported lost, stolen or damaged, the officer on duty shall file a police report and complete a Lost Property Report

A

Explanation:
AUC 207 add 3
A- If the apparatus is taken OOS and a spare is issued, the OFFICER shall ensure that the Metrocard is removed from the assigned apparatus and secured on spare apparatus…3.3
B- After each roll call….3.6.1
C- FDNY Resource Center….3.6.3
D- 3.6.4

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11
Q

Question 11:
You are an S/A officer working in Engine 99 and you are assigned on a 1076 for a fire on the 45th floor of a mega high-rise building. Your company is tasked with supplying the standpipe Siamese at the correct pressure. The building has low, mid, and high-rise standpipe zones. The low supplies floors 1-44, the mid 45-70 & the high zone 71-100. Which of the following is the correct choice for supplying the system?

A:Supply the system at 300 psi using the low standpipe zone.

B: Supply the system at 400 psi using the mid standpipe zone.

C: Supply the system at 300 psi using the mid standpipe zone.

D:Supply the system at 350 psi using the low standpipe zone.

A

Explanation:
ENGINE COMPANY OPERATIONS CHAPTER 9
The fire floor is 45. Supply Siamese is determined by the floor the company is hooking up on which would be below 45. 9.3.12 Table & 9.3.14 It is imperative that once the fire floor is confirmed, the ECC supplies the correct riser that is feeding the floor outlet the attack hose line is connected to

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12
Q

Question 12:
The correct notification to the Bureau of Investigation and Trails (BITS) that must be made immediately can be found in which choice?

A:On-duty confrontation between FDNY members and members of the NYPD

B: Follow-up information regarding the arrest of a member

C: Preference of charges against a member

D: Misuse or misappropriation of the Departments time

A

Explanation:
B, C, D, are written notification to BITS
Immediate Notifications:
1- On-duty incidents involving possession or use of drugs or alcohol
2- Physical altercations among members, serious confrontations with civilians, dangerous misuse of Department vehicles
3- Arrest of Department employees
4- On-duty confrontations between Department members and members of the Police Department, or other government agencies which may lead to possible disciplinary
AUC 268A sec 3 and sec 4
ON EVERY EXAM

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13
Q

Question 13:
What is the primary Interoperability channel to be used with cooperating agencies in the NY region?

A: UTAC 41D

B:UTAC 42D

C:UTAC 43D

D: UTAC 40D

A

b 42 d Explanation:
Comm Ch 14 Add 4 2.1

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14
Q

Question 14:
Lt Topper is working in L-200 during the 6x9 tour when she decides to check the training schedule for the next day (9x6). She discovers that L-200 has rope training at Randalls Island 1000-1230 hrs. To ensure L-200 arrives for training at the appropriate time, the correct time L-200 must leave quarters by with the day tour members can be found in which choice?

A: 0900 hrs

B:0915 hrs

C: 0930 hrs

D: 0945 hrs

A

Explanation:
Units scheduled for such activities must leave from their quarters, with the day tour members no later than 0915 hours or night tour members no later than 1815 hours
AUC 287 sec 5.1.3

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15
Q

Question 15:
All choices below correctly describe a New Law Tenement except?

A: Generally six or seven stories high.

B: 35’ to 50’ wide and 85’ in depth.

C:The first floor (cellar ceiling) is of fireproof construction and unpierced. The entrance to the cellar is by way of interior stairs.

D:The second means of egress is either another stairway or an exterior fire escape. The fire escape is more generally found in these buildings.

A

Explanation:
The first floor (cellar ceiling) is of fireproof construction and unpierced. The entrance to the cellar is by way of EXTERIOR stairs.
MD 2.2

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16
Q

Question 16:
Ticket reads as follows: E100, E200, E300, TL500, L600, B1…..CIDS MD 4 STY 40X80 CL3-SPKLR IN BSMT-FRONT AND REAR FE-EFIS PRESENT ON ALL SIDES ……..The run is for a fire on the 3rd floor in Apt 3D. You are now 10-84, and transmit the 10-75 for a fire on the 3rd floor of a 4 sty occupied multiple dwelling.. The ticket is filled out and E400 and L700F are now on the box. In addition to the 10-75, what resources are needed for a fire in this type of building?

A:Extra Engine only

B:Extra Engine and Ladder

C: Extra Engine and Tower Ladder

D: Extra Tower Ladder only

A

Explanation:
Upon transmission of signal 10-75 for a fire in an EFIS buiding, an additional Engine and Ladder shall be special called. The special called Ladder shall be a Tower Ladder if one is not assigned on the first alarm assignment. EFIS in the CIDS and TL500 is 1st due on the ticket
AUC 362 sec 2.8

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17
Q

Question 17:
Which of the following patients would be considered “potentially unstable” according to the CUPS criteria in the CFR-D bulletin?

A:Inability to move any part of the body

B: Poor general impression

C: Responsive but unable to follow commands

D: Difficulty breathing

A

Explanation:
CFR-D Manual Chapter 2
A. 3.14 CUPS Criteria
B. Unstable
C. Unstable
D. Unstable

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18
Q

Question 18:
After extinguishment, a firefighter’s job is not yet complete. Which consideration below regarding overhaul is incorrect?

A:Wooden structural members that are deeply charred should never be removed from the building.

B: The removal of involved materials to enclosed shafts or roofs of setbacks is not to be permitted.

C: Before the Department leaves the premises, all broken glass must be trimmed from window frames. Additionally, replace or position all drop ladders.

D: Lintels in brick walls over exterior doorways and windows should not be removed, regardless of charring.

A

Explanation:
Wooden structural members that are deeply charred MAY be removed from the building. Those that have merely been scorched or on which the paint has been blistered shall be left in the apartment for possible reuse.
Lads 3 9.3, 9.8, 9.9, 9.15

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19
Q

Question 19:
Upon notification of an alleged incident of harassment, discrimination, and/or retaliation of an kind by a member, the Officer on duty is required to follow the procedures set forth by the FDNY. Choose the incorrect procedure.

A:Listen objectively to the complainant. If the alleged incident is EEO related, the Officer on duty shall forward an EEO complaint form via the chain of command to the EEO Officer

B: Explain that complaints will heard and issues dealt with within a timely, sensitive, confidential, but firm manner

C: Notify the EEO Officer. Strict confidentially is to be maintained. After a conference with the EEO Officer, the alleged incident will be dealt with on a need to know basis

D: Provide a copy of the Fire Department’s Equal Employment Opportunity Complaint procedure

A

Explanation:
Listen objectively to the complainant. If the alleged incident is EEO related, the EEO Officer shall be contacted immediately. Interrogations or investigations of alleged incident(s) shall not be initiated, except if requested by the EEO Officer or Bureau of Investigations and Trails (BITS)
NOTE: A complaint must be filed with the Fire Department EEO Officer within 1 year from the date the alleged harassment/discrimination occurred
Training Bulletins EEO-1 sec 7.2

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20
Q

Question 20:
FDNY operations in buildings equipped with Auxiliary Radio Communications Systems (ARCS) are correctly described in all choices below except?

A: The 1st arriving Ladder Officer will activate Building ARCS (1620 Key or ON/OFF switch) at the Fire Command Station, if so equipped, and instruct the member designated to staff the Incident Command Post to monitor the tactical and/or repeater channel/relay messages.

B:The 1st arriving Ladder Officer will remain on Channel 1 or switch his/her HT to the Building duplex UHF radio repeater channel (Channel 11 / Channel 12), or acquire an in-house radio for the investigation team, as appropriate.

C:The 1st arriving Ladder Officer will ensure a functional test is performed after leaving the lobby.

D: The 1st arriving Ladder Officer will notify the Dispatcher for re-transmittal to all incoming units if the Building duplex UHF radio repeater system and Channel (11 or 12) have been activated or in-house radios are being used.

A

Explanation:
The 1st arriving Ladder Officer will ensure a functional test is performed PRIOR TO leaving the lobby.
Comm Ch 13 3.1.1

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21
Q

Question 21:
You are taking up from a HRFPMD fire where your unit deployed the K.O. Curtain in an effort to prevent the wind from blowing fire back into the fire occupancy. In regards to the K.O. Curtain, the only correct procedure you followed after the fire can be found in which choice?

A:Upon completion of operations where the K.O. Curtain has been deployed, the Ladder Company Officer of the K.O. Curtain will secure the K.O. Curtain until the arrival of the Safety Battalion

B: Ladder Company Officer will conduct any required investigation and then turn the K.O. Curtain over to Research and Development (R&D)

C:Upon completion of operations where the K.O. Curtain has been deployed, the Ladder Company Officer of the K.O. Curtain will prepare a brief letterhead report to Chief of Operations via chain of command

D: Ladder Company Officer to secure a replacement K.O. Curtain from the administrative Battalion

A

Explanation:
Training Bulletins Tools 2 sec 6
A- IC will do this
B- Safety Battalion will do this
C- Correct, also send a copy to the Chief of the Fire Academy
D- Administrative Division

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22
Q

Question 22:
To provide easy access and reduce unnecessary damage to NYCHA building entry doors, key FOBs have been issued to all FDNY units. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A:These key FOBs will grant universal access to all NYCHA buildings.

B: Should the key FOB fail to unlock the door, it can be unlocked remotely by NYCHA Security by calling the 24 hour NYCHA Emergency number directly or through the dispatcher

C: Should the key FOB fail to unlock the door, units can seek assistance from the building management office at the premise location.

D:NYCHA Elevator Machinery Room Keys with individual serial numbers have been issued to all units. These serial numbers shall be entered into the Office Record Journal.

A

Explanation:
NYCHA Elevator Machinery Room Keys have been issued to all units. These keys are standard issue and do NOT have serial numbers.
MD Add 4 2.1

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23
Q

Question 23:
The most correct description of the High-Rise Nozzle (HRN) can be found in which choice?

A:Supplied by a 2 1/2” hoseline, the High-Rise Nozzle will produce flows of 200-225 gpm at 70 psi nozzle pressure with water flowing

B:Putting the High-Rise Nozzle into operation will require the services of two engine companies equipped with roll-ups, standpipe kits, forcible entry tools including a rabbit tool and the High-Rise Nozzle

C: If multiple rooms are involved, it will not be necessary to reposition the nozzle to ensure complete knockdown of the fire due to the extensive reach of the stream

D: The High-Rise Nozzle will only be placed into operation at the direction of the Fire Sector Superviso

A

Explanation:
Training Bulletins Tools 7 Data Sheet 17
A- 50 psi at nozzle, 70 psi at standpipe outlet with 3 lengths, and 80 psi with 4 lengths…4.3
B- Correct…5.6
C- WILL be necessary to reposition the nozzle to ensure complete knockdown of the fire. If this is the situation, start with the window that the wind is blowing into and extinguish the fire in this room first. Then move to the other windows downwind of the original fire room and complete knockdown of the fire….5.12
D- The High-Rise Nozzle will only be placed into operation at the direction of the IC…5.1
*** HRN is an 8 foot long aluminum pipe with a 68 degree 2 foot bend. HRN is attached to a standard 2 1/2” FDNY shut-off. The shut-off is permanently attached to the nozzle. It has a 1 1/8” MST (removable). The HRN is checked weekly during MUD and before use…sec 4
***May have to be stretched 3 floors below..5.7
*** The supply line must be attached to the HRN before the nozzle is slid out on the window sill for use…5.10

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24
Q

Question 24:
In which choice below is an “Urgent” more appropriate than a “Mayday?”

A: Collapse Imminent

B: Unconscious Member

C:Loss of Water

D: Lost Member

A

Comm Ch 9 9.4.1, 9.4.2

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25
Q

Question 25:
When operating during a severe snow storm where the conditions of streets are doubtful as to maneuverability, the tactics of the first alarm assignment can vary. Choose the most correct tactic used during a snow storm when the street conditions are severely impacted.

A:Assign members on foot to investigate

B: Always have apparatus turn into block to the reported address

C: When building involved is higher than 2 1/2 stories, preference shall be given to ladder company apparatus entering block first with the engine company personnel hand stretching from the nearest hydrant, if necessary

D:Where building involved is 3 1/2 stories or less, preference shall be given to the engine company apparatus entering block first with ladder company personnel carrying portable ladders

A

Explanation:
B- Apparatus remain on maneuverable avenues or streets until exact building location of emergency or fire determined
C- Higher than 3 stories
D- 3 stories or less
AUC 200 page 15

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26
Q

Question 26:
Which feature of natural gas is incorrectly described below?

A: It is a hazardous material classified as a “Flammable Gas”.

B: Depending on the mixture, the explosive range is 5% - 15%.

C:It is colorless and odorless; however, to aid in detection, mercaptan is added to natural gas as an odorant, giving it a “rotten egg” smell.

D:It is significantly lighter than air.

A

Explanation:
Colorless and odorless; however, to aid in detection, mercaptan is added to natural gas as an odorant, giving it a “ROTTING” smell.
This may seem like a tight question but the author of this Manual was explicit in ensuring the term “rotting” was used, and indicated it is NOT a “rotten egg” smell.
EP Gas 3

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27
Q

Question 27:
The cockloft nozzle is a 6’ 3” aluminum pipe with two 1/2” OSTs. It has standard 1 1/2” female threads enabling connection to a controlling nozzle. Attached to the body is a 3/4” aluminum handle allowing handle allowing members control during operation. The cockloft nozzle is designed to extinguish fires in the confined space of any building with a cockloft. In addition to this information, which choice below has correct information describing the cockloft nozzle?

A:When using a cockloft nozzle in a NFP MD, the preferred location for operation is immediately inside the apartment door

B: A hole approximately 2’x2’ is needed in the ceiling in order for the cockloft nozzle to fit. The clearing between the top of the ceiling joists and the bottom of the roof joists must be a minimum of 4” to enable the operation of the cockloft nozzle

C: The cockloft nozzle may be used as the primary attack line in hard to reach places such as a cockloft

D:The cockoft nozzle is to be supplied by a 2 1/2” handline. The cockloft nozzle operates with the same pressure normally supplied to a 2 1/2” handline

A

Explanation:
Training Bulletins Tools 7 Data Sheet 18
A- Correct…3.3
B- 3’x3’
C- The cockloft nozzle should NEVER be the primary attack line and is only to be used when supported and protected by an additional conventional handline…2.1
D- The cockoft nozzle is to be supplied by a 1 3/4” handline. The cockloft nozzle operates with the same pressure normally supplied to a 1 3/4” handline…1.4
***The cockloft nozzle shall only be placed into operation at the direction of a Chief Officer
***Carried by all Squads and Division vehicles

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28
Q

Question 28:
In Old Law Tenements, the infrequently used procedure of going from front to rear apartments or vice versa through the common partition may be used as an escape route. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding this procedure?

A: To accomplish this use the halligan, hook or axe. This is the order of preference but all can do the job.

B:Start low and punch a hole at waist level. The tool is placed in a bay with the bottom anchored against the opposite side of the partition.

C:Pull the tool towards yourself using short strokes to snap the lath off on their side. Best results are obtained when the opposite side is kept intact until near side is completely removed.

D: With the sole of your boot, kick the lath off the far side of the bay. Then use the Swim Move or Reduced Profile Maneuver to quickly move through the opening.

A

Explanation:
Start low and punch a hole SLIGHTLY BELOW waist level. This places the hole under possible fire stopping between studs. Work is less punishing at this level and it is easier to push the opposite side of the wall off the studs.
Lads 3 6.1

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29
Q

Question 29:
The incorrect Trenching operation can be found in which choice?

A: A trench cut is an opening made the full distance between two exterior walls or other fire stops. The width of the trench should be at least three feet wide. A trench cut may be made in any direction

B:Trenching can serve as the main source of ventilation

C: It is not practical to trench a large roof area of a taxpayer where fire has seriously involved a major portion of the cockloft. Emphasis must be placed on ventilation holes

D: The Roof Sector Supervisor can start a trench cut where he/she sees the necessity for it. Immediate notification to the IC of the operation is mandatory

A

Explanation:
Taxpayers sec 5.6
Trenching does not take place of ventilation holes. A trench may serve as an additional ventilation source. Its main purpose is to prevent the fire from passing that point at which the cut is made
Look at choice D…Roof Sector Supervisor can be a Chief or Company Officer…5.4.14

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30
Q

Question 30:
Housewatch duty is critical to the proper response of Fire units. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding the housewatch and use of the Personal Computer/Alarm Teleprinter Selector (PC/ATS)?

A: The housewatch has 20 seconds to acknowledge an alarm from the PC/ATS. If there is no response in 20 seconds, the dispatcher will prompt the unit to verify response via the Voice Alarm.

B:All units in the same quarters can make themselves AQ simultaneously on the PC/ATS unless units responded to different boxes, units did not go 10-8, or one unit is a relocated unit.

C: The VERBAL button on the PC/ATS should be used only if an alarm is within two blocks of a unit’s quarters in any direction. If the alarm is more than two blocks away, the unit should respond and give information and location via radio.

D:Each unit shall maintain at least three spare rolls of teleprinter paper in the company office. Spare paper rolls may be secured at Battalion headquarters and units in need of teleprinter paper should contact their respective Battalion.

A

Explanation:
Each unit shall maintain at least TWO spare rolls of teleprinter paper in the company office. Spare paper rolls may be secured at Battalion headquarters and units in need of teleprinter paper should contact their respective Battalion.
Comm Ch 2 2.2.1, 2.2.2, 2.2.4 C, 2.6.1

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31
Q

Question 31:
From the following choices listed below, choose the most correct tactic/tool assignment for a fire on the top floor of a 4 sty 20x30 Rowframe.

A: For a Brownstone type layout, the inside team of the 2nd arriving ladder company will be responsible for VEIS the floor below the fire

B:For an Old Law Tenement type layout, the 2nd arriving ladder company inside team will be responsible for VEIS of the adjoining apartment including examination of the cockloft

C: First arriving OV FF proceeded to the roof with a saw and a 6’ halligan hook

D: First arriving Roof FF proceeded to the roof with a halligan tool, 6’ halligan hook, and saw

A

Explanation:
Brownstones and Rowframes
A- Responsible for the most severe exposure. The outside team will cover the least severe exposure and check for extension….5.6.4
B- Correct….5.6.5
C- Saw and and halligan tool….p-36
D- Halligan tool, 6’ Halligan hook, and LSR…p-38

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32
Q

Question 32:
Which choice below is not in accordance with Department policy regarding High Rise Multiple Dwelling fire operations?

A:The 2nd Ladder Company Officer shall confirm the evacuation stairway door(s) have been closed on the fire floor and are maintained in a closed position.

B: Maintaining evacuation stairway doors closed may be accomplished by positioning members on the stairwell side of the evacuation stairway door(s) until the Fire Sector Supervisor and/or the IC deems that the situation no longer presents a hazard in that particular stairwell.

C: There may be more than one evacuation stairway in a building. Any stairway not designated as the attack stairway is considered an evacuation stairway.

D: Depending on the progress of the fire operation, the 4th arriving Ladder Company will usually assist or initiate searches on upper floors and stairs as determined by the IC. A carbon monoxide meter and TIC shall be included in their tools

A

Explanation:
The 3rd Ladder Company Officer shall confirm the evacuation stairway door(s) have been closed on the fire floor and are maintained in a closed position.
MD 6.16, 6.17.1

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33
Q

Question 33:
Warning signs of a potential backdraft include reversal of air (pulling back smoke into a smoke filled opening), glass windows stained with smoke condensation and pulsating from the pressure of the fire, and the color of smoke depending upon the type of materials burning and the make-up of the flammable gases that are being produced. The colors of smoke that signal a potential backdraft include all of the following except?

A:Red brown

B: Dirty brown

C: Yellow brown

D: Gray yellow

E: Dense black

A

Explanation:
Taxpayers 4.4

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34
Q

Question 34:
Routine gas emergencies should not be taken for granted. Which choice below is not in accordance with Department policy?

A: If a strong odor is present on approach to a gas emergency, stop and meter the area. If the meter displays 10% of the LEL, this may indicate a potentially serious leak and may require treating the incident as a Major Gas Emergency.

B: First-arriving apparatus should not be positioned in front of the reported leak location. In addition, units should avoid positioning over manholes and sewers.

C: Additional units shall stage at street corners, and only enter into the block when appropriate.

D:If any natural gas levels are displayed on the Natural Gas Meter upon entering the building, or while proceeding to the reported location within the building, the inside team should proceed directly to caller to ascertain conditions.

A

Explanation:
If any natural gas levels are displayed on the Natural Gas Meter upon entering the building, or while proceeding to the reported location within the building, the inside team should proceed directly to the basement/cellar to evaluate conditions.
EP Gas 6.2, 6.5 2

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35
Q

Question 35:
During a drill with other officers, you made several points on the Personal Harness. You were incorrect in which point?

A:When a FFs Personal Harness has been placed OOS and he/she is on duty, the FF will continue to respond and be counted towards that unit’s staffing

B: When a Company Officer is in need of a loaner Personal Harness, the unit where the that member is working shall inform the borough dispatcher that the unit is OOS until a loaner Personal Harness is obtained from the depot

C: When the Personal Harness has been contaminated from fireground contaminants, the Personal Harness shall be decontaminated in quarters using a sponge and water. A mild detergent may be used if necessary

D: When the Personal Harness has been grossly contaminated from other than fireground contaminants, it shall be placed OOS

A

Explanation:
Training Bulletins Rope 3
A- Will respond, but NOT counted towards the unit’s staffing….ex: FF is responding with you in a Ladder Company. You would transmit to the dispatcher the “we are responding with 4 FFs.” Upon arrival, you shall inform the IC of the unit’s status, and the IC shall adjust his/her strategy accordingly…..6.9
B- 6.10
C- 5.3.1
D- 5.3.3

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36
Q

Question 36:
A common “Water Rescue” operation may transition into a “Dive Assist” operation. Of the following choices, all are correct with the exception of which choice?

A: When a victim is submerged below the surface, the incident is now beyond the capability of a water rescue unit. Rescue divers will be deployed in order to recover the victim.

B:If the victim is submerged, immediately search for a reliable witness. Once located, ensure the witness is immediately brought to the Command Post and have the witness maintain their position at the Command Post throughout the operation to provide reliable information to the IC.

C: In order to expedite the rescue effort, units should be prepared to assist the Rescue divers with transporting any needed equipment to the entry point. The assistance of at least one company will have to be dedicated to this task.

D: An Engine Company on the scene shall be dedicated to CFR duties and members should be staged as near as practical to the exit point of the victim/rescuers. This company can also be utilized to help transport the patient from the shoreline to the awaiting ambulance.

A

Explanation:
Once located, ensure the witness keeps their reference point and visually maintains the last location where they saw the victim prior to submerging. Do NOT allow the witness to be removed from this reference point; keep the witness AT THIS LOCATION throughout the operation.
D) Note: Also, an Engine Company on the scene shall hook up to a hydrant and have a hoseline stretched and charged. This hoseline can be used to cool back-up divers (especially on very hot days, decontaminate Divers and decontaminate victims prior to transport when requested by EMS.
EP Water Rescue 5 1.1, 2.2, 3.2, 3.4, 3.5

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37
Q

Question 37:
The only correct policy L-500 followed while conducting AFID can be found in which choice?

A:While inspections are being made in areas of “DEAD END” streets, the officer shall see that the apparatus is positioned to face in the direction of response

B: Parked the apparatus in a bus stop since there were no available parking spots

C: Double parked the apparatus for a quicker response

D: Parked the apparatus a few feet off the curb since there was some building materials extending beyond the curb line in front of a building under construction

A

xplanation:
B- Do not park in bus stops
C- Do not double park
D- Do not park alongside building materials located beyond the sidewalk at construction or demolition sites
Also: Do not have all or part of the apparatus extending into an intersection
Safety Bulletin 3 p- 2

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38
Q

Question 38:
The Post Radio is another excellent tool in the Fire Department’s inventory. An experienced member should know which choice below to be incorrect regarding this communication device?

A: One of the primary uses of the Post Radio will be during High-Rise Operations. The key aspect of the Post Radio use is the establishment of a Command Channel at 45 watts.

B: The second arriving Engine Officer provides the communications link between the lobby and the fire area pending the establishment of the Fire Sector/Branch on a floor below the fire. The first arriving Battalion Chief shall give the Post Radio to the second Engine Officer.

C:Upon arrival on the floor below the fire, the second Engine Officer shall establish contact with the Incident Command Post (ICP) on the tactical channel via the Post Radio. The officer will verify that the Post Radio is in place and give his/her location to the IC.

D: After establishing contact with the Incident Command Post (ICP), the second Engine Officer shall use their handie-talkie radio on the tactical channel to announce to units in the fire area that a communications link with the ICP has been established.

A

xplanation:
Upon arrival on the floor below the fire, the second Engine Officer shall establish contact with the Incident Command Post (ICP) on the COMMAND channel via the Post Radio. The officer will verify that the Post Radio is in place and give his/her location to the IC.
Comm Ch 12 5.1, 6.2.1, 6.2.2, 6.2.4, 6.2.5

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39
Q

Question 39:
The Apparatus Collision Report (CD-19) shall be prepared by the Officer in charge or operator of the apparatus at the time of the collision/incident. Additional forms (CD-19) will be required for certain situations. Choose the incorrect situation.

A:More than one apparatus involved

B: More than one civilian vehicle involved

C: More than two civilian pedestrians or bicyclists

D:More than two motorcyclists

A

Explanation:
Motorcycle is considered a motor vehicle…..see choice B
Safety Bulletin 56 add 6 sec 2

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40
Q

Question 40:

Two company officers discussing fire operations in Nonfireproof Tenements identified which incorrect comment during their discussion?

A: Smoke may be seen issuing from the cornice upon arrival. Without investigation this cannot be taken as positive evidence that there is actually fire in the cockloft. The only valid conclusion that can be drawn is that smoke and heat are entering the cockloft. Under no conditions should the cornice be opened for smoke.

B:A rapidly rising column of smoke, with particles or embers ascending to higher levels visible over the rooftop of the building frequently is an indication that the fire is in an enclosed shaft (i.e. a chimney).

C: Large quantities of black smoke (burning tar) observed over the roof may be an indication of fire at or near the top of the building, namely, the top floor fire, cockloft fire, stair bulkhead fire or a fire on the roof.

D: When encountering membrane roofs, the Incident Commander must be notified because the volatility of the roof material may require calling for a hoseline to protect members operating on the roof.

A

Explanation:
A rapidly rising column of smoke, with particles or embers ascending to higher levels visible over the rooftop of the building frequently is an indication that the fire is in an OPEN SHAFT. This heated column is readily distinguished from that rising from a chimney.
Lads 3 5.4.3

41
Q

Question 41:
Which of the following is incorrect in reference to filling out a PCR?

A: If unable to obtain a male patient’s name, “Unknown Male” shall be recorded.

B:The patient’s age need not be entered if the date of birth is documented.

C: Enter the patient’s nine digit social security number if known. If unobtainable, leave this section blank.

D: Fill in “0167” for FDNY agency code.

A

Explanation:
CFR-D Manual Ch 5 Documentation
A. Note: This area shall never be blank and “Jane/John Doe” shall not be used. 4.4.1 B
B. The patient’s age must be entered even if the date of birth is documented 4.4.7
C. 4.4.10
D. 4.1.3

42
Q

Question 42:
The FDNY has designed a procedure to comply with the “Two in” and “Two out” rule set by OSHA when the FAST Unit is not on scene in the initial stages of a structural fire. With only 2 Engines and 2 Ladder Companies on scene, the correct Safety Team can be found in which choice?

A:Backup and Control FFs of the 2nd arriving Engine

B: Control FF and LCC FF of the 2nd arriving Engine and Ladder

C: LCC FF and OV FF of the first arriving Ladder

D: 2 FFs designated by the 2nd arriving Engine

A

Explanation:
B- 1 Engine and 1 Ladder on scene
C- 1 Ladder on scene
D- 1 4 FF on scene……5 FF Engine on scene (Control and Door)
MMID ch 1 Safey Team

43
Q

Question 43:
According to Vincent Dunn, when a large caliber stream strikes a brick wall in a heavy smoke condition, you will hear what kind of sound?

A:Splattering

B: Splashing

C:A drum sound

D: A distant rumble

A

Explanation:
Drum sound - side wall of a wooden building .
Distant rumble - entering a window.
Dunn Ch 17 p230

44
Q

Question 44:
As the first arriving officer at a High-Rise fire, it may be necessary to begin the HVAC Strategic Operating Plan, which includes placing all HVAC systems in the non-circulating mode. The incorrect procedure for placing all HVAC systems in non-circulating mode can be found in which choice?

A:Closing all outside air supply dampers

B: Closing all mixing dampers

C: Opening all exhaust dampers

D: Opening all outside air supply dampers

A

Explanation:
Opening all outside air supply dampers
B, C, D correct
2005 Lts exam
High-Rise Office Buildings sec 3.3

45
Q

Question 45:
When members suspect or discover any type of clandestine lab, they shall immediately stop, DO NOT TOUCH ANYTHING, retrace their steps and back out of the area. In addition, which of the following notifications shall be made?

  1. Battalion Chief.
  2. Deputy Chief.
  3. Borough Commander/Command Chief
  4. Request Haz-Mat to respond.
  5. NYPD (including the Bomb Squad when necessary).
  6. Fire Prevention
  7. BFI.

A: 1,2,3,4,5,7

B:1,2,4,5,7

C: 1,2,4,5,6,7

D: 1,2,4,5

A

Explanation:
ERP Add 3 8.7.5

46
Q

Question 47:
According to Vincent Dunn, what would be considered the “fire problem” in a building of noncombustible/limited combustible construction?

A:Fire and smoke spread through concealed spaces.

B:The flat, combustible asphalt roof deck covering that can ignite during a fire.

C: Large wooden interior timber framework.

D: Central air-conditioning system.

A

Explanation:
Fire and smoke spread through concealed spaces - Ordinary construction (brick and wood joist)
Large wooden interior timber framework - Heavy Timber construction
Central air-conditioning system - Fire-resistive construction
Dunn Ch 3

47
Q

Question 48:
The most correct tactic/tool assignment for a fire in a 4 sty 25x60 Brownstone can be found in which choice?

A:For a top floor fire, the 2nd arriving Roof FF shall proceed to the roof with the saw and 6’ halligan hook

B: For a top floor fire, 2nd arriving OV FF after checking the rear, report to the top floor to assist inside team

C: First arriving TL, the Roof FF primary means to the roof will be the adjoining occupancy

D: For a top floor fire, the 2nd arriving ladder company will split team and check exposures 2 and 4 for extension

A

Explanation:
Brownstones and Rowframe
A- Correct….P-21 note….other than top floor fire, 2nd arriving Roof FF shall take halligan tool, 6’ halligan hook
B- For a top floor fire, 2nd arriving OV FF after checking the rear, report to the roof to assist in ventilation and opening up of the roof, or go into an exposure as directed by their officer (lot of variables here….MUST READ …p-20
C- Order of preference to roof:
1- Basket
2- 2nd arriving aerial ladder
3- adjoining building……p-22
D- 2nd arriving ladder company into fire building checking the floors below to ensure fire did not start on lower floor. Be available to assist or relieve the 1st ladder on the top floor…p-18

48
Q

Question 49:
Which 10-35 sub-code below is correctly indicated?

A:Code 1: Unnecessary alarm caused by alarm system testing or servicing.

B: Code 2: Unnecessary alarm caused by a defective condition.

C: Code 3: Unnecessary alarm caused by other known cause. (e.g., alarms resulting from cigarette smoking in unauthorized areas).

D: Code 4: Unnecessary alarm caused by ordinary household activities (toast, steam, aerosol spray).

A

planation:
No Code – Unwarranted alarm. Alarm system activation caused by the defective condition of alarm device, equipment or system. (e.g., low battery condition, alarm activations without a known cause or when no condition is found warranting an emergency response).
Code 1: Unnecessary alarm caused by alarm system testing or servicing.
Code 2: Unnecessary alarm caused by construction activities.
Code 3: Unnecessary alarm caused by ordinary household activities (toast, steam, aerosol spray).
Code 4: Unnecessary alarm caused by other known cause. (e.g., alarms resulting from cigarette smoking in unauthorized areas). When this code is used, a NYFIRS report must be completed setting forth the cause of the unnecessary alarm and the relevant particulars.

49
Q

BACK LIST NEXT

Question 50:
The correct statement that best describes the Search Assessment Marking System that is used during collapse operations can be found in which choice?

A: 3’x3’ marking that when completed, will form the letter “X”

B: The marking is made using the same fluorescent orange colored reflective spray paint currently used to mark vacant buildings

C:Upon entry, a single slash and unit identity are marked to a structure or area that indicates search operations are in progress within this area

D: The second slash shall be drawn on confirmation of live or dead victims

A

Explanation:
A-2’x2’
B- Lime-yellow
D- When personnel exit from that structure or area
***Left quadrant- Unit identity
Right quadrant- Hazards to units
Top quadrant- Time and Date company left the structure/area
Bottom- Number of live and/or expired victims still inside the structure
Collapse Operations add 2 pages 2-3

50
Q

Question 51:
At a fire operation, the Engine Officer is calling for more water and the ECC notices the pressure discharge gauge is maintaining its reading with the engine speed increasing automatically. In addition, the flow meter gauge is increasing to a high level. You would be most correct to assume?

A: This is a normal condition.

B: There are kinks.

C: There are multiple, severe kinks.

D:There is a burst length.

A

anation:
Eng Ch 12 p3

51
Q

Question 52:
You are a newly promoted officer working in L-500 when you get summoned to the Housewatch area. When you reach the Housewatch area there is a civilian standing there complaining that her smoke detector in her apartment is not working. The most correct course of action to take at this point is to?

A:Refer civilian to call 311

B:Refer civilian to the Bureau of Fire Prevention

C: Have members board apparatus and respond in the 10-20 mode to her apartment and issue a forthwith V.O. to replace/fix smoke detector

D: Have members board apparatus and respond in the 10-20 mode to her apartment and issue a criminal court summons

A

Explanation:
BISP ch 5 ref 3.1 sec 8
same for Carbon Monoxide Detectors BISP ch ref 3.2 sec 8

52
Q

Question 53:
When performing “emergency mass decontamination” using water spray from a 2 1/2” hand line, units should be guided by all of the following except?

A: The recommended operating pressure range is between 50 to 80 psi.

B:Consideration can be given to the use of two handlines operating opposite each other, approximately 35’ – 40’ apart.

C: Members initially staffing the Decon operation must wear their full protective equipment, including mask, gloves and hood.

D: Bunker gear is not vapor tight and members performing Decon must still use care to avoid contact with victims. As soon as resources become available, these firefighters should be removed from the decontamination process and then go through decontamination themselves.

A

Explanation:
Consideration can be given to the use of two handlines operating opposite each other, approximately 25’ – 30’ apart.
HM 7 2.4.3, 2.4.10

53
Q

Question 54:
After an intense study group on Vacants, the most correct point that was mentioned can be found in which choice?

A: All Vacant buildings must be identified and marked with a square with the letter “X” inside, approximately 18”x18” with 2” wide lines, with fluorescent orange paint.

B:As the first arriving officer, the method of attack, exterior or interior shall be considered of 1) any known or indicated presence of life in the building 2) Location and extent of the fire 3) Exposure problems 4) Number of units responding to initial alarm

C:Stability of the building is the most important consideration in size-up

D: When operating inside a Vacant, caution must be exercised when stairs have marble treads and half landings (usually in Rowframes) that are cracked or broken

A

xplanation:
Vacants
A- Lime yellow…..1.3……2005 Lts test
B- Correct….1.4.1
C- protection of LIFE is the most important consideration in size-up….2.2.3
D- New Law Tenements….1.5.2.F

54
Q

Question 55:
Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding the inflatable Water Rescue Hose?

A: Every company, including Battalions, carry the Yellow Water Rescue Fittings.

B: One 45 minute cylinder can fill five lengths of 2 ½” hose in approximately 1 minute. The apparatus air outlet can fill five lengths of hose in approximately 1 minute.

C: Inflatable Water Rescue Hose can be deployed in either a straight line or loop. Straight line deployment can be used at incidents from a pier or shore involving a few victims within close proximity. It can also be used to reach a victim on ice.

D:When Water Rescue Hose is deployed as a loop it increases buoyancy and can be used for multiple victims. Each looped length is capable of supporting approximately 20 people. More than two lengths of hose can be used for larger operations, increasing the amount of people that can be supported.

A

Explanation:
Each looped length is capable of supporting approximately 10 people.
EP Water Rescue 2 Add 1 1.1, 3.2, 3.3, 4.1, 4.2

55
Q

Question 56:
Which is the only Unit that carried out their assignment correctly during a Collapse Operation?

A:2nd arriving Engine ensured a 3 1/2 supply line is stretched to the first TL

B: 1st arriving Ladder Company shut the utilities

C: Upon hearing 3 short blasts from an air horn, units stopped all operations and remained quiet

D: Two of the third alarm engine companies should be used to seal off the ends of the street.

A

Explanation:
Collapse Operations
A- 7.3
B- 2nd arriving Ladder Company….7.6
C- 3 short blasts- Evacuate the area
1 long blast- Cease Operations/All Quiet
1 long and 1 short blast- Resume Operations…9.2
D- Two of the second alarm engine companies should be used to seal off the ends of the street. The chauffeurs of these units must remain in the cab, able to move the apparatus if directed by the IC…5.3

56
Q

Question 57:

At a radiological emergency, what would be considered the “decision dose” (whole body) for the protection of major property?

A:5 REM

B:10 REM

C: 25 REM

D: 50 REM

A

Explanation:
5 REM - General Operations
10 REM - Protection of Major Property
25 REM - Lifesaving or Protection of Large Populations
50 REM - Lifesaving for a Catastrophic Event
ERP Add 4 4.1.4 A, Table 3

57
Q

Question 58:
After reading the Loft bulletin several times you finally have it memorized cold. Choose the most correct tactic used for a fire in a Loft building.

A:For a fire in the cellar of a Cast-Iron/Mill Loft building protected by a sprinkler system servicing the fire area, if the 1st Engine has not supplied it, the 2nd arriving Engine shall stretch a supply line to feed this system

B: Initial hoselines shall be 1 3/4”

C: If straight run stairs are encountered for a lower floor fire in a Cast-Iron/Mill Loft building, the 1st arriving Ladder Company is to notify the IC

D:Fire found extending to Segmental Arch Floors must be opened up quickly for fear of causing a general floor collapse spanning a wide area

A

planation:
Lofts
A- Correct…..6.2…..Lower floor fire its the 3rd Engine (6.2.2)
B- 2 1/2…..6.3.1
C- 2nd arriving Ladder Company….7.2.2…..Upper floor fire its the 1st arriving Ladder Company (7.2.3)
D- Segmental arch floors should not be breached for fear of causing a general floor collapse spanning a wide area…..5.2.1

58
Q

Question 59:
Which type of private dwelling is typically 2½ to 3 stories, 20’x40’ with balloon frame construction commonly found, and has a front porch area on the 1st floor with the front porch roof allowing for easy access to upper floor bedrooms?

A:Straight Line Colonial

B: Ranch

C: Queen Anne

D: Split-level

A

Explanation:
PD Ch 1 3.1

59
Q

Question 60:
When requesting an ambulance, Companies MUST provide all of the following information to the dispatcher for relay to EMD with the exception of ?

A: CUPS status

B:Sex

C: Chief complaint

D: Pulse and respiratory rate

A

Explanation:
CFR-D Manual Chapter 2 sec 3.11
B. Age
Also if CPR was initiated

60
Q

Question 61:
When operating at a transformer fire, members and equipment must be decontaminated when exposed to certain levels of PCBs. The correct level can be found in which choice?

A:50 PPM or higher

B: 10 PPM or higher

C: 20 PPM or higher

D: 40 PPM or higher

A

Explanation:
Less than 50 (0-49 ppm) is considered to be non-PCB transformers
On a previous Lts exam
AUC 266 sec

61
Q

Question 62:
Which CIDS entry below is in accordance with Department policy regarding proper use of the eCIDS application?

A: “REHAB PD 3 STY 25X60 CL2LW-RENOVATION-L/W METAL JOIST TRUSS ON ROOF AND FLOORING ALL FLRS-YEAR BUILT 1968”

B:“BWSTRG-GARAGE 1 STY 100X150 CL3 CEILING COVERS WOOD TRUSSES NO RF OPS-INTERIOR OPS AFTER IC EVAL FOR ANY FIRE IN BLDG”

C: “OFFICE BLDG 95 STY 100X150 CL1 L SHAPE-CORE CONST-SIDE ENT 610 W 43 ST PCB TRANS THRUOUT-LCP LISTS LOCATIONS”

D: “DEPT STORE 1 STY 1000X200 CL3-MVRS IN REAR ON EXP 4 SIDE-SPKR SHUT OFF IN FRONT ON EXP 2 SIDE-SEE PRE-INC GUIDE”

A

Explanation:
A) Should be CL3LW(or CL4LW)
C) Should State “MEGA” in the beginning since it is over 800’ (85 stories)
D) Should have “PG” in the beginning
Comm Ch 4 p4-7, 4.3.1

62
Q

Question 63:
In order to work at an Under River Rail incident, company officers must be well versed in tactics/procedures at this type of an emergency. The company officer that carried out the correct tactic/procedure can be found in which choice?

A:In most cases, the location of the last emergency exit and the last crossover to the adjacent tube until the other side of the river will be at the point where the underground tunnel connects to the under river tube

B: Ordered FFs to open the standard emergency exit and the upright subway emergency exit with the square subway emergency tool

C: Ordered FFs to retrieve the dry chemical extinguisher which are located at every standpipe outlet approximately every 200 feet

D: Ordered FFs to retrieve the Emergency Evacuation Device (EED) at the 1st blue light North of the station, on the northbound track

A

Explanation:
Under River Rail Operations
A- 2.4
B- Triangle subway emergency tool….2.5.1
C- Dry chemical extinguisher which are located at power removal boxes approximately every 600 feet
*** 2 1/2 standpipe outlets every 200 feet
*** Section valves approximately 600 feet apart…2.7.1 and 2.7.2
D- 1st blue light South of the station, on the Southbound track…..page 9

63
Q

Question 64:
Your unit responds to a report of an unknown chemical spill at a local university. Which team assignment is correctly listed below?

A: First Arriving Ladder Team 1: Information resources

B: Second Arriving Ladder Team 2: Hazard identification

C:Second Arriving Ladder Team 1: Information resources

D: First Arriving Ladder Team 2: Initial Exclusion Zone

A

Explanation:
First Arriving Ladder Team 1: Hazard identification
First Arriving Ladder Team 2: Information resources
Second Arriving Ladder Team 1: Information resources
Second Arriving Ladder Team 2: Initial Exclusion Zone
ERP 11.1.5, 11.1.6, 11.2.4, 11.2.5

64
Q

Question 65:
As the junior officer assigned to E-100, you are tasked with teaching the proby about the Company Journal. You were only correct in which choice?

A: The Company Journal shall be retained for 10 years

B: Housewatch person shall make entries for all civilian employees of the Department when entering and leaving quarters

C: In quarters where a Battalion Depot (mask cylinders) is located, the company journal shall be ruled and indexed for entries by MSU members and chief officers on page 500 running backwards as necessary

D: Flagging column entry for a Heating Fuel delivery can be entered as “DF”

E:Inside the front cover, affix a current accurate company roster

A

Explanation:
Guide to Company Journal
A- 20 years …..sec 1
B- Civilian employees of the Department shall make entries in their own handwriting in company journal when entering and leaving quarters
C- 494 running backwards as necessary
*** 500 running backward to 498 is for chiefs visits
*** 497 running backwards to 495 is for company drills….sec 3
D- “F” is for Heating Fuel…….DF is for Diesel Fuel…..sec 5
E- sec 3.5

65
Q

Question 66:
At a private dwelling fire, slate or tile roofs can be particularly hazardous to members. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?

A: Slate and tile add a substantial dead load to the roof and may be slippery due to moss or moisture.

B:Fire will not be hidden as these roofs easily burn through, allowing joists to remain intact.

C: The added live load of a firefighter may cause the roof to collapse.

D: Members operating below must be aware of the danger present when slate peaked roofs are opened up. Pieces of slate and tile with sharp edges may fall to the ground severing hoselines and causing injuries to members.

A

Explanation:
Fire may be hidden beneath these type roofs, and joists may be close to the point of failure.
PD Ch 4 6.3 C

66
Q

Question 67:
You, the Company Officer, are now tasked with management responsibilities and should be able to supervise how many FFs at a time?

A:Three to seven with five being ideal

B: Three to six with five being ideal

C: Four to six with five being ideal

D: Four to seven with six being ideal

A

Explanation:
ICS ch 1 sec 3.2.2
In general the span of control of any individual with management responsibility should range from three to seven with five being ideal
This is a MANAGEMENT type question. They are on every exam

67
Q

Question 68:

Which 10-25 sub-code is appropriate to transmit when “smoke is issuing from a manhole under pressure?”

A: Code 1

B:Code 2

C: Code 3

D: Code 4

A

Explanation:
Code 1: Fire has extended from a manhole, conduit, or transformer into a building.
Code 2: Fire has blown one or more manhole covers, or smoke is issuing from a manhole under pressure.
Code 3: Smoke is seeping from a manhole.
Code 4: Fire or smoke condition from a transformer at any location. i.e., pole, vault, room, etc.
Note: Utility Company will dispatch an emergency crew immediately upon receipt of a Code 1 or Code 4 signal.
Comm Ch 8 p8-8

68
Q

Question 69:
Regarding the duties of a Company Officer, it would be correct to state that Company Officers?

A:When responding to alarms. Officers shall not converse with the chauffeurs, except when necessary to regulate the speed of apparatus, determine route to be taken, or to relay information received by radio

B: If a fire occurs in a vehicle including an abandon derelict vehicle (ADV) or one for which a 10-41-3 has been transmitted, the IC shall attempt to notify the owner. If this is not possible, the dispatcher shall be requested to inform the Police Communications Bureau of the make, model license number, and location of the vehicle

C: Officers of units reporting to the Command Post shall report in alone, after instructing their members to stand by at least 15 feet from the Command Post

D:Company apparatus may be utilized for the purpose of procuring the meal. Units are to complete this procedure within 45 minutes and are limited to their 1st alarm response area

A

Explanation:
Regulations
A- Correct (speed, info, and route) ch 11 sec 11.1.13
B- OTHER than ADV …ch 11 sec 11.3.15
C- At least 25 feet …ch 11 sec 11.3.25
D- 1st DUE response area….ch 13 sec 13.3.1.E

69
Q

Question 70:
When transitioning to an exterior attack, which is the most correct transmission would you expect to hear over the HT?

A:URGENT-URGENT-URGENT, Command to all units, URGENT-ALL UNITS BACK OUT, WE ARE TRANSITIONING TO AN EXTERIOR ATTACK

B: URGENT-URGENT-URGENT, Command to all units, URGENT-ALL UNITS GET OUT-GET OUT, WE ARE TRANSITIONING TO AN EXTERIOR ATTACK

C: MAYDAY-MAYDAY-MAYDAY, Command to all units, MAYDAY-ALL UNITS BACK OUT, WE ARE TRANSITIONING TO AN EXTERIOR ATTACK

D: MAYDAY-MAYDAY-MAYDAY, Command to all units, MAYDAY-ALL UNITS GET OUT-GET OUT, WE ARE TRANSITIONING TO AN EXTERIOR ATTACK

A

xplanation:
Command and Control ch 4 sec 2.3
New as of 3/29/2019

70
Q

Question 71:
Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding the construction characteristics of private dwellings?

A: For fires in “traditional” private dwellings built of ordinary/wood frame construction, early collapse is not a primary consideration.

B:Collapse is always the primary consideration in buildings constructed with lightweight materials.

C:Lightweight construction often provides for the creation of large rooms. Areas unsupported by columns with spans greater than 25’ are generally an indication that lightweight construction is present. The collapse potential in a “wide-open” room of this type is not as great as in a compartmented area that has interior walls.

D: The most important factor to a safe and successful operation at lightweight buildings is the identification of the presence of lightweight construction. It is critical that any member becoming aware of lightweight construction notify the Incident Commander.

A

Explanation:
The collapse potential in a “wide-open” room of this type is GREATER than in a compartmented area that has interior walls.
PD Ch 6 1.6, 1.7, 1.8, 1.9

71
Q

Question 72:
If the approximate “working length” of a portable ladder is 20 ft, how far should the base be from the vertical plane to achieve a 75 degree angle?

A: 4 ft

B:5 ft

C: 6 ft

D: 8 ft

A

Explanation:
Climbing Angle for a ground ladder is approximately 65-75 degrees.
A simple formula used to obtain a 75 degree angle is to place the base of the ladder at a distance from the vertical plane equal to 1/4 the total working length of the ladder. The working length is the distance from the base of the ladder to the top of its support.
Lads 1 7.3

72
Q

Question 73:
Engine 99 goes 10-84 at an EMS box. After a complete search of the area in question, no patient is found. All of the following procedures should be followed except?

A: The Officer shall review the response printout for additional information

B: If after rechecking the information, provided no patient is found, the Officer shall verify the information with the dispatcher

C: After re-verification of the dispatch information, the responding Company shall attempt to contact neighbors, building superintendent and/or security personnel.

D:If no patient is found after the above efforts have been exhausted, the Officer shall enter a 10-91 via MDT

A

Explanation:
CFR-D Manual Chapter 2
A. 4.7.1
B. 4.7.2
C. 4.7.3
D. The Officer shall enter 10-92 via MDT (therefore canceling the EMS response) and return to service. 4.7.3
Acronym: “TDN”
Ticket
Dispatcher
Neighbors

73
Q

Question 74:
From the following choices listed below, choose the incorrect statement made in regards to Ventilation.

A: Fire and smoke should be venting outwards and upwards. If the smoke and fire are venting downward, horizontally or pulsing from an opening in the building, this indicates the fire conditions may be wind impacted

B: Roof FF can perform vertical ventilation without asking permission from L-500s officer upon hearing the transmission “L-500 to B-100, we have a fire in apartment 3D, we have door control and we’re in the apartment

C: All horizontal ventilation tactics, whether Ventilation for Extinguishment or Ventilation for Search, require communication with, and coordination by the Ladder Company officer operating inside the fire area to be vented

D:The OV FF, after venting and entering a window and immediately discovering a victim, transmit a 10-45 and begin the removal process

A

Explanation:
Ventilation
A- Correct….4.1
B- Correct….4.1.Note……OR a charged hoseline is advancing into the fire apartment (10.2.1.note)
C- Correct…7.1
D- After venting and entering, the priority action for the member is to isolate the area by closing a door before conducting the search. If a victim is found prior to isolating the room, the member shall isolate the room and proceed with the rescue effort….top of page 15

74
Q

Question 75:
Two members of a Bronx Engine discussing the features of Tower Ladders were able to identify which incorrect comment made?

A: In the basket is a single handle which controls all functions of the basket; it has a “Dead Man” trigger which must be depressed before the system operates. The intercom in the basket is an open circuit, and controlled from the pedestal.

B: Depressing the foot pedal at the base of the console (pedestal) activates the system and the engine throttle control. This movement also deactivates the basket controls by activating the hydraulic system in case of electrical failure.

C:Members shall never utilize the fixed telescoping ladder mounted on top of the boom sections of the Tower Ladder.

D: The use of the platform control switch (Deadman Control) is necessary whenever members or civilians enter or leave an elevated basket.

A

xplanation:
When no other solution is possible, a member may escape from the basket by means of the fixed telescoping ladder mounted on top of the boom sections or by life saving rope in conjunction with the Personal Harness, which ever is most appropriate for the situation.
Lads 6 2.4.5, 2.5, 2.6

75
Q

Question 76:
The only correct procedure when deploying the K.O. Curtain can be found in which choice?

A: The K.O. Curtain will only be deployed on orders of the 1st arriving Ladder Company Officer

B: The 3rd arriving Ladder Company Officer will coordinate the deployment once ordered

C:A pressurized water extinguisher may be required at the place of deployment (floor above) in case of auto exposure

D: At the point of deployment, the window must always be removed or broken to allow for the width of the K.O. Curtain to be properly deployed

A

Explanation:
Evolution 34
A- Orders of the IC….1.2
B- 2nd arriving Ladder Company Officer…1.2
C- Correct…3.2.1
D- Do not remove or break the deployment window unless absolutely necessary …..3.2.1

76
Q

Question 77:
When operating at a fire in a vacant row frame building, located in a row of occupied frames, the second hose line may be positioned in all of the following manners except in which choice?

A: Backup the first hoseline

B: Stretched to the fire building if not needed to backup the first hoseline

C: Stretched to the opposite exposure if not needed to backup the first hoseline

D:Stretched to the most severe exposure if not needed to backup the first hoseline.

A

Explanation:
This is where the FIRST hoseline should go
RF 6.7 A

77
Q

Question 78:
You are responding to a report of a fire on the 50th floor of a 60 sty 200x200 High-Rise Office Building. As your unit approaches the building, you see smoke emanating from the window frame of an upper floor. Upon seeing this smoke, the most correct signal you transmitted can be found in which choice?

A: 10-77

B: 10-75

C: 10-76

D:10-76/2nd alarm

A

Explanation:
High-Rise Office Building sec 5.2.2.B
Be aware this section states “ A second alarm is warranted for any visible fire or smoke emanating through the exterior skin of the building or when a serious fire has been verified
Communications ch 8 page-19 states “10-76/2nd alarm”
2005 Lts test

78
Q

Question 79:
Different methods may be used to attain accuracy in lining up the aerial ladder with a window. Of the following choices, which is correct?

A: For the less experienced member, accuracy will be obtained by sighting along the ladder rail of the top section.

B:For the experienced member, accuracy will be attained by sighting along the underside of the ladder beam on the top sliding section.

C: When positioning the aerial ladder at a window, the placement must allow for unimpeded access and egress. Therefore, the ladder tip should at least 6” over the window sill.

D:The OV assists the chauffeur in setting up and placing the aerial ladder and climbs the ladder as soon as it is in proper position.

A

Explanation:
A- For the EXPERIENCED member, accuracy will be obtained by sighting along the ladder rail of the top section.
B- For the LESS EXPERIENCED member, accuracy will be attained by sighting along the underside of the ladder beam on the top sliding section.
C- When positioning the aerial ladder at a window, the placement must allow for unimpeded access and egress. Therefore, the ladder tip should be LESS THAN 6” over the window sill.
Lads 2 3.1.4, 3.1.6, 3.1.7

79
Q

Question 80:
The only correct statement made about the FAST Unit can be found in which choice?

A: The FAST Unit shall report to and stage near the ICP within sight of the IC, at a position from which they can be readily deployed

B:The FAST Officer should bring a up to date copy of the response ticket to the ICP which would include and CIDS information that is available

C: When a member is designated to monitor EFAS at roll call, and is not EFAS trained, upon arrival at a structural fire, he does not report to the Battalion vehicle, instead he stays with FAST Unit near the ICP

D: When dealing with large commercial or complex buildings, the FAST Unit can split up to have a 2 sided approach

A

Explanation:
MMID ch 2
A- The FAST Unit shall report to and stage near the ICP within VERBAL contact, at a position from which they can be readily deployed….3.1
B- 4.5
C- EFAS member not trained, reports to a Battalion vehicle on scene to monitor the FAST Radio Board. Remain in Battalion vehicle, even if the FAST Unit is given an assignment, until relieved…Trained member does the same except the member monitors EFAS….5.1
D- The FAST Unit shall remain intact and NOT split up when dealing with large commercial or complex buildings…..7.4

80
Q

Question 81:
An experienced Ladder Company Officer should know which point below to be incorrect regarding Department disentanglement and extrication procedures?

A: Transmitting a 10-75 for an emergency should be considered when there are several vehicles with numerous patients.

B: Vehicles are stabilized as they are found; never right a vehicle with a victim inside.

C:One of three tools may be used when removing a windshield; a windshield saw, a sawzall or an axe. The sawzall should be considered as a last resort for this procedure.

D: Prolonged and repeated contact with hydraulic fluid may be irritating to the skin. If a member gets hydraulic fluid in their eyes, the member should flush their eyes with clean water for at least 20 minutes and immediately seek medical attention.

A

Explanation:
The AXE should be considered as a LAST RESORT for this procedure.
EP Disentanglement 3.2.2, 5.2, 11.3, 14.4
Sec 8.2.2 states the beluga auto glass knife also cuts windshields.

81
Q

Question 82:
Which choice below would require you to generate a Multiple Member Injury Report?

A: 2 members suffer injuries resulting in ML

B: 2 members suffer injuries resulting in ML and 1 member suffer minor injury, but remaining on duty

C: 2 members suffer minor injuries, but remaining on duty and 1 member suffer an injury resulting in ML

D:3 members suffer injuries resulting in ML

A

Explanation:
Three or more members suffer injuries at the same incident resulting in ML that tour
Safety Bulletin 7 add 2 sec 1.3

82
Q

Question 83:
According to Vincent Dunn, there are three factors that contribute to the inward/outward collapse of a braced-frame wooden building. Which of the following is not one of these factors?

A: Fire destruction of bearing walls

B:Failure at the mortise-and-tenon connection

C:Overloaded floors

D: Exterior wall overload

A

Explanation:
Acronym: MOB
Mortise-and-tenon connection failure
Overloaded exterior wall
Bearing wall fire destruction
Dunn Ch 15 p205

83
Q

Question 84:
The most correct hoseline placement for a fire in a 25x60 Brownstone can be found in which choice?

A: For a 1st floor fire, the 1st hoseline shall be stretched through the front door on the 2nd floor (parlor) floor to maintain the integrity of the interior stairs

B: For a cellar fire, if not needed to backup the 1st line, the 2nd hoseline will be stretched to cellar via an exterior entrance

C:For a building fully involved, the 1st line will be 1 3/4 and stretched into the fire building

D: For an upper floor fire, the 1st line is taken through the front door on the 1st floor then up the stairs to extinguish fire

A

Explanation:
FIRST FLOOR FIRE:
1st line stretch through the door on the first floor to extinguish fire
2nd line if not needed to backup 1st line, them stretch through the front door on 2nd floor to maintain the integrity of the interior stairs
3rd line as per IC
CELLAR FIRE:
1st line through front door on 1st floor then down to cellar via interior stairs to extinguish fire
2nd line to backup 1st line. If the 1st line was used to secure the 1st floor, 2nd line to be stretched to cellar via INTERIOR cellar stair to extinguish fire
3rd line as per IC
UPPER FLOOR FIRE:
1st line is taken through the front door on the second floor (parlor) to the fire floor to extinguish fire
2nd line through front door on 2nd floor (parlor) to back up 1st line
3rd line as per IC
FULLY INVOLVED:
drop 2 lines in front of building
1st line advance into fire building
2nd line back up 1st line
3rd line as per IC
Brownstones and Rowframes (pages 23-24)

84
Q

Question 85:

What type of hydrant is found on 30 inch diameter or greater mains in strategic locations (high and low points) and is an excellent source of water for Fire Department use?

A: Dresser Hydrant

B:Red Satellite Water System Hydrant

C:Red Air Cock Hydrant

D: Yellow Hydrant

A

Eng Ch 6 6.7.2

85
Q

Question 86:
Whether the fire is in the cellar, store, or cockloft, who ensures the sprinkler is supplied in a Taxpayer, if equipped with a sprinkler?

A: 1st arriving engine

B: 2nd arriving engine

C:3rd arriving engine

D: 4th arriving engine

A

Explanation:
Taxpayers pages 44-48
***First arriving Ladder to shut utilities..sec 8.3.3

86
Q

Question 87:
All of the following actions are appropriate when operating at a CO Emergency with meter readings of 45ppm with the exception of which choice?

A:Inform the occupant that our meter has not detected an elevated CO level.

B: Recommend that all persons leave the affected area and begin ventilation.

C: If it is determined that an appliance is malfunctioning and thereby producing CO, it should be shut down.

D: Inform the occupant of all actions taken and that the utility company has been requested to respond.

A

Explanation:
Inform occupants that they have a “potentially dangerous” level of CO.
- CO Incidents: Meter readings of 9 PPM or less: Inform occupant that our meter has NOT DETECTED AN ELEVATED CO LEVEL.
- CO Emergency: Meter readings of greater than 9 PPM but less than 100 PPM: Inform occupants that they have a POTENTIALLY DANGEROUS level of CO & RECOMMEND THAT ALL PERSONS LEAVE the affected area and begin ventilation.
- CO Emergency: Meter Readings of 100 PPM and Greater: Inform occupants that we have detected a POTENTIALLY LETHAL level of CO & BEGIN EVACUATION of the affected area and ventilate.
HM 4 4.3.1, 4.4.2, 4.4.4, 4.4.7

87
Q

Question 88:
During study group Lt SCBA was discussing the policy/tactics on the FAST Pak. She was only correct in which choice?

A:The FAST Pak assigned to the FAST Unit shall only be used for FDNY members if necessary. Additional FAST Paks can be used to provide air supply to non FDNY members.

B: If FAST Pak is defective at the time of inspection, notify the Battalion that the Company FAST Pak is OOS and request the Division spare FAST Pak as a replacement

C: A Mask Record Card (RP-100) shall be filled out and maintained for each FAST Pak assigned to a unit. Defects found must be included on the Mask Record Card.

D: The FAST Pak is equipped with a vibra-alert and a heads up display indicator giving the user an accurate way to measure the amount of air remaining in the cylinder

A

Explanation:
Training Bulletins SCBA add 1
A- Correct..7.1
B- request the BATTALION spare FAST Pak as a replacement….9.12.2
C- SD-30…RP-100 is for the LSR…9.11
D- The FAST Pak is not equipped with a vibra-alert or heads up display indicator. The ONLY way to monitor the air pressure in the FAST Pak is the cylinder gauge…4.1

88
Q

Question 89:
Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding line placement at a major cellar fire in a renovated Old Law Tenement which has both an interior and exterior cellar entrance?

A: The first line should be stretched to the cellar entrance door which is located inside the building, under the interior stairway on the first floor.

B: The first line should remain at this position to provide protection for people coming down the stairway and to extinguish fire which may be extending upwards from the cellar via partitions, dumbwaiter shafts and other voids.

C:If possible, the first line should be advanced down the interior cellar stairs to extinguish the fire.

D: The second hoseline stretched should be advanced into the cellar by way of the front or rear exterior entrance to the cellar.

A

Explanation:
This line should NOT be advanced down the cellar stairs if there is an outside entrance to the cellar at the front or rear of the building, unless the fire is minor.
MD 4.2.1, 4.2.3

89
Q

Question 90:
Technical Services distributes packets of bleach to units for decontamination purposes in quarters. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A: The Officer on duty shall ensure that equipment and clothing with minor contamination of blood are cleaned as soon as practical by a member trained to perform proper decon procedures

B: The bleach packets will produce a mixture of one part bleach to ninety-nine parts water

C:Officers shall ensure that the solution is prepared every tour and the old solution discarded

D:When preparing the solution, empty the packet of bleach into the container first, then fill with water

A

Explanation:
CFR-D Manual Ch 3
A. 15.2
B. 15.2.1
C. Officers shall ensure that the solution is prepared daily 15.2.3
D. 15.2.

90
Q

Question 91:
The only correct statement that best describes the Window Blanket can be found in which choice?

A:Some Battalions and Ladder Companies along with all Rescues and Squads carry the Window Blanket

B: The Window Blanket is designed to cover only one window

C: Only Rescues and Squads can deploy the Window Blanket

D:When a replacement Window Blanket is needed, the Company Officer shall contact the administrative Division

A

Explanation:
Training Bulletins Tools 3 pages 1-3
B- The Window Blanket is large enough to cover at least two windows if necessary
C- Any Unit or Units and deploy the Window Blanket
D- Company officer shall contact R&D during normal business hours to request a replacement. During non-business hours the company officer should contact SOC

91
Q

Question 92:
Of the following choices, which contains incorrect information regarding “Rear Tenements?”

A: Raising ladders at these rear tenements is a problem. Portable ladders may have to be carried through the hallway of the front building or raised via utility rope up and over the front building, lowered to the yard in a standing position and maneuvered to the rear building for rescue work.

B: The distance between the front building and the rear building varies, but is somewhere between 10 to 25 feet usually.

C: The rear buildings are frequently not visible from the street. This may result in a delay in discovery of fire in a rear tenement, especially at night.

D:Rear tenements are small in area, may be of frame or non-fireproof construction, and may range from three to six stories.

A

Explanation:
Rear tenements are small in area, may be of frame or non-fireproof construction, and may range from two to five stories.
MD 4.8.8

92
Q

Question 93:
When using elevators during fire operations, certain procedures must be followed. Choose the most correct elevator procedure you followed.

A: When it is confirmed that the fire is on the 8th floor or below, units should avoid the use of elevators. It is safer to utilize the stairway to reach the fire floor

B: Do not use an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within two floors of the fire floor

C: When its necessary to use an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor, select a floor at least two floors below the fire floor or one floor below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest

D:Before leaving the lobby, and at each precautionary stop, direct a flashlight up between the elevator car and the hoistway shaft to determine if there is any smoke in the shaft. Elevator should be stopped every five floors (precautionary stops) to confirm that the elevator will respond to the selected floor

A

Explanation:
A- 7th floor or below
B- Do not use an elevator in a bank which services the fire floor if a lower bank of elevators reaches within FIVE floors of the fire floor
C- When its necessary to use an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor, select a floor at least TWO floors below the fire floor or TWO floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest
Training Bulletins Emergencies 1 sec 6

93
Q

Question 94:
Two company officers discussing response were able to identify which incorrect comment made earlier in the tour?

A:In the event a unit is responding to another alarm and a verbal alarm is discovered during the response, in all cases the unit shall stop and assist in the verbal alarm after transmitting radio notification to the dispatcher and receiving acknowledgement.

B: An additional Ladder Company (above the Fast Truck) shall be assigned to a 10-75 when both of the two initially assigned Ladder Companies report responding with 4 firefighters. The additional Ladder Company shall be the 3rd Ladder Company, and the 4th Ladder Company shall be designated as the Fast Truck.

C: When notified that a company is responding understaffed (less than four firefighters), the dispatcher shall special call another unit (Engine for Engine, Ladder for Ladder, etc.) to respond in addition to the understaffed unit. Under this response policy, the total First Alarm response shall not exceed a total of (4) Engine Companies and (4) Ladder Companies.

D: When it is determined by first arriving units at a “MVA/auto extrication” that the Hurst tool will be used, the Dispatcher shall be notified immediately and a Rescue or Squad will be special called as a back-up if not already assigned.

A

Explanation:
In the event a unit is responding to another alarm and it is evident human life is not in jeopardy at the scene of a verbal alarm discovered during response, the unit shall proceed to the original alarm after transmitting radio notification of a verbal alarm to the dispatcher and receiving acknowledgement.
D) Note: When a Rescue or Squad is assigned, an additional Rescue or Squad is generally not required, unless specifically requested.
Comm Ch 6 6.5.2 B, 6.9.1, 6.9.2, 6.7.11 C

94
Q

Question 95:
You are working in L-500 during the 6x9 tour when you receive a ticket for a fire in an underground subway. Upon arrival, the token booth clerk claims that there is a small rubbish fire approximately 150 feet inside the tunnel. You relay the information to the chief upstairs and request a light train. The light train arrives, and you and your members board the train. The only correct procedure you followed on the light train can be found in which choice?

A: You used the HT relay as the primary means of communication

B:You gave a progress report at least once every 15 minutes

C: You had all members disembark the Light Train, to extinguish the rubbish fire (act as flag persons)

D: You directed your chauffeur (who remained with the apparatus) to meet you at the next station where the Light Train will end up

A

Explanation:
AUC 207 add 7
A- Train Operator’s radio. The FDNY Unit shall be in direct use of the Train Operator’s radio….2.2.1
B- 2.5
C- A HT equipped member shall be assigned to remain with the Train Operator to maintain communications…2.4
D- Apparatus of the unit who boarded the train should remain at its original location until, and if, directed to another location by the Chief in Charge …2.7

95
Q

Question 96:
Which of the following chemical agents typically has an odor of “fruit”?

A:Organophosphates

B:Vesicants

C: Pulmonary Agents

D: Choking Agents

A

Explanation:
Organophosphates (Nerve Agents) - Fruit
Vesicants (Blister Agents) - Garlic
Pulmonary Agents (Blood Agents) - Burnt Almonds
Choking Agents - Chlorine/ Grass
ERP Add 2 2.1-2.4

96
Q

Question 97:
Responding during a Hurricane or Severe Storm can quickly overwhelm a first line apparatus, especially when it comes to navigating streets with flooding conditions. The maximum depth of water that first line apparatus should not cross can be found in which choice?

A: 10 inches

B: 12 inches

C:18 inches

D:24 inches

A

Explanation:
The depth of the water to be crossed should not exceed 18 inches for first line apparatus and 50 inches for FDNY Hi-Axle vehicles
AUC 159 sec 5.4.3

97
Q

Question 98:
A DOT placard with the number “4” would indicate what type of chemical was being transported?

A: Compressed Gas

B: Flammable Liquid

C:Flammable Solid

D: Radioactive Material

A

Explanation:
Acronym:
Every - 1. Explosives
Good - 2. Compressed Gases
Fire Lt’s - 3. Flammable Liquids
Standard - 4. Flammable Solids
Operation - 5. Oxidizers
Procedures - 6. Poisons
Requires - 7. Radioactive Materials
Coordinated - 8. Corrosives
Measures - 9. Miscellaneous Dangerous Goods
HM 2 2.1

98
Q

Question 99:
The only correct action you took upon arrival at a Iroquois Pipeline incident can be found in which choice?

A: Locate and shut down the valve as an initial action

B:For a confirmed leak, transmit a 2nd alarm for the street box nearest the leak location

C: When the leak is near active railroad tracks, you placed “flag-persons” at least 100 feet on each side of the incident

D:Ordered your FFs to completely shut valve during a Familiarization Drill with permission of the Pipeline personnel

A

Explanation:
AUC 150 Iroquois Pipeline
A- The initial actions of units responding to pipeline boxes are to set up a perimeter and eliminate sources of ignition….7.1.1
****Except in the event of immediate threat to life or property, no valves should be opened or closed without the approval of the FDNY IC in consultation with Con Edison/Iroquois personnel….4.5
B- 7.2.6
C- 1,000 feet on each side of the incident…7.3.1
D- Under NO circumstances will full closure of these valves be permitted during drill…..only partially with permission of pipeline personnel…8.1

99
Q

Question 100:
What is the “Recommended Engine Discharge Pressure” for a fire on the 54th floor of a high rise building?

A: 300psi

B: 350psi

C:400psi

D: 450psi

A

Explanation:
Eng Ch 9 Add 1 Table 2