midterm

Question 1

Question 1:
Upon arrival for a class 3 alarm, you determine after a thorough investigation that the alarm was transmitted unnecessarily because of construction activities inside the building. You would be most correct to transmit what code?

A: 10-35 no code

B: 10-35-1

C: 10-35-2

D: 10-35-3

E: 10-35-4

Answer 1

cExplanation:
Comm ch 8 page 10

Question 2

Question 2:
Which safety consideration is listed incorrectly in regard to FDNY operations in buildings equipped with photovoltaic systems?

A: Avoid walking on modules since this can expose members to electric shock.

B: Shutting off power at the main electrical panel will ensure that all power to the building has been removed.

C: Firefighters must never cut any wires associated with a PV array.

D: Rooftop disconnects should not be relied upon since they are mainly installed in order to perform maintenance on the system.

Answer 2

b Explanation:
B) Shutting off power at the main electrical panel, does not ensure that all power to the building has been removed.
AUC 351 6.1

Question 3

Question 3:
The VERBAL button on the PC/ATS should be used only if the alarm is within how many blocks of a unit’s quarters in any direction?

A: 1

B: 2

C: 3

D: 4

Answer 3

b

Explanation:
Comm Ch 2….. 2.2.4.C

Question 4

Question 4:
Mezzanine areas may be found in some taxpayers and their location, area and use can differ. All of the following statements are accurate regarding mezzanine areas except in which choice?

A: Since these areas have probably been added to the premises after the original construction date, the load bearing components can be of light construction. These supports may be loaded beyond their safe load bearing capabilities.

B: In the majority of the mezzanines this area will be enclosed and there will be a railing at the edge.

C: Access may be via small wooden stairs or just a ladder. Very seldom will there be another means of access.

D: The mezzanine area is in most cases used for storage of goods, but it can contain offices (predominant in supermarkets and factories) and also sales areas to which the public will have access.

Answer 4

b Explanation:
B) In the majority of the mezzanines this area will not be enclosed and there will be a railing at the edge.
Taxpayer 2.4

Question 5

Question 5:
In order to remove a facility from the CFR matrix, the company officer shall ensure that the facility meets all the following criteria except?

A: On duty personnel are trained to a minimum of CFR-D level or higher

B: Trained personnel are able to provide oxygen to the patient

C: On duty personnel are trained in the use of a defibrillator, and all the necessary equipment is available to the trained personal

D: All equipment and appropriately trained personnel are available during all hours of operationa

Answer 5

a Explanation:
On duty personnel are trained in CPR
Ch 4 add 1 sec 2

Question 6

BACK LIST NEXT

Question 6:
What is the technical term for the transformation of materials into their basic compound when subjected to heat, causing contents to continue to off-gas and add to the flammable fuel load within the compartment?

A: Calcination

B: Heat Transfer

C: Pyrolysis

D: Backdraft

Answer 6

c

Question 7

Question 7:
As a newly promoted Lt, you would know when forcing a door to an occupancy on an EMS run, you must have the premises safeguarded by members until custodianship is turned over to any of the following except?

A: Owner of the property

B: Police Department

C: EMS supervisor

D: Responsible person

Answer 7

c CFR-D Manual Chapter 2
C. The responsibility of safeguarding premises shall not be delegated to EMS personel 4.8 note
* FD must safeguard until turned over to the “POOR”
PD
Owner
Occupant
Responsible person

Question 8

Question 8:
Fire Retardant Treated Plywood (FRTP) has been treated with a chemical that is designed to decompose the plywood and render it less flammable when exposed to very high temperatures, such as those found in structural fires. However, a significant amount of plywood has been treated with chemicals that initiates the decomposition at temperatures much lower than intended. The process is faster when _______.

A: in the presence of cold and low humidity.

B :in the presence of heat and low humidity.

C: in the presence of cold and high humidity.

D:in the presence of heat and high humidity.

Answer 8

d Explanation:
D) Remember, “HHH” - High Heat & Humidity
SB 77 1.4

Question 9

Question 9:
When should the Post Radio be charged?

A: Every tour

B: Daily

C: Weekly

D: Monthly

Answer 9

c Explanation:
Weekly (whether used or not) and after each use for at least 8 hours
Comm Ch 12 sec 2.3

Question 10

Question 10:
Which choice below contains correct information regarding FDNY operations at motor vehicle fires?

A: Cool hydraulic bumpers, tires or gas tanks in vicinity of the fire. All vehicles, domestic and foreign, will have the gas tanks in the rear.

B: Use a fog stream when magnesium parts are on fire.

C: When victims are trapped in the vehicle, use a fog stream to drive the fire away from victim.

D:For a fire in the engine compartment, where the hood is difficult to open, attempt to operate through the front grill.

Answer 10

c Explanation:
A) Cool hydraulic bumpers, tires or gas tanks in vicinity of the fire. Some foreign vehicles have gas tanks in the front.
B) Use a coarse spray stream when magnesium parts are on fire.
D) For a fire in the engine compartment, where the hood is difficult to open, pry up the side of the hood and operate stream through this opening. Do not attempt to operate through the front grill.
TB Fires 8 11.1

Question 11

Question 11:
If needed, at a Haz-Mat incident, the “Safe Refuge Area” can be found where?

A: In the Exclusion Zone

B: In the Contamination Reduction Zone

C: In Cold Zone

D: In Support Zone

Answer 11

b

Explanation:
ERP page 7

Question 12

Question 12:
All officers should know that the Incident Commander shall establish a staging area (SA) and designate a Chief officer as the Staging Area Chief (SAC) when deemed necessary or at?

A: 2nd or greater alarms

B: 3rd or greater alarms

C: All Hands or greater alarms

D: 4th and 5th alarms only

Answer 12

b Explanation:
Regs 11.3.26 (M)

Question 13

Question 13:
Choose the most correct choice when operating at an Active Shooter Incident

A: FDNY members may operate in the Hot Zone if heavily flanked by NYPD

B: FDNY members shall only operate in the Warm Zone when approved by Chief of Operations or Chief of Department

C: All escorts in and out of the incident location will be provided by, and under the direction of the Fire Marshals

D: When NYPD has confirmed that the assailant(s) is either no longer on scene or the threat is mitigated (Cold Zone), members can then engage in normal operations

Answer 13

d A- FDNY members shall not operate in the Hot Zone
B- Approved by a FDNY DC, unless the NYPD IC requests entry for immediate life-saving intervention
C- Under the direction of NYPD
ERP add 3A page 3

Question 14

Question 14:
Two firefighters from a Manhattan Engine were discussing the use of the High Rise Nozzle and were incorrect in which comment?

A: Supplied by a 2 1/2” hoseline, the high rise nozzle will produce flows of 200-225 gpm at 50 psi nozzle pressure with water flowing.

B: Putting the nozzle into operation will require the services of two engine companies equipped with roll-ups, standpipe kits, forcible entry tools including a rabbit tool and the high rise nozzle.

C: Impediments such as window bars and child gates will have to be removed. In most cases it is also necessary to remove the window to operate the nozzle.

D: A shut-off shall be placed in line one length back from the nozzle.

Answer 14

c Explanation:
C) Impediments such as window bars and child gates will have to be removed. In most cases it is not necessary to remove the window to operate the nozzle.
TB Tools 7 DA 17 4.3, 5.6, 5.9, 5.14

Question 15

Question 15:
At a chemical attack underground, which unit is responsible to provide the IC the number of victims?

A:1st arriving Ladder

B: 2nd arriving Ladder

C: 3rd arriving Ladder

D: 1st arriving Engine

Answer 15

d Explanation:
The 1st arriving Engine shall also inform the 2nd arriving Ladder Company and IC if victims collapse on their way from the subway exit to the Gross Decontamination Area
ERP add 2 sec 7

Question 16

Question 16:
Which of the following patients would be considered “potentially unstable” according to the CUPS criteria in the CFR-D bulletin?

A: Inability to move any part of the body

B: Poor general impression

C: Responsive but unable to follow commands

D: Difficulty breathing

Answer 16

a Explanation:
CFR-D Manual Chapter 2
A. 3.1.4 CUPS Criteria
B. Unstable
C. Unstable
D. Unstable

Question 17

Question 17:
The most correct way to initiate contact with EMS that arrived prior to E-200 is to?

A: Initiate contact utilizing Fire HT Channel 1

B: Initiate contact utilizing Fire HT Channel 10

C: Initiate contact utilizing Fire HT Channel 13

D: Initiate contact utilizing face to face contact

Answer 17

a

Explanation:
This is new (make sure you know this section)
Comm ch 14 add 1 sec 2

Question 18

Question 18:
At a cellar fire in a Brownstone where the first line has secured the first floor, the second line should be stretched where?

A: to the cellar via the interior cellar stairs to extinguish the fire.

B: outside as a backup line.

C: to the floor above (parlor floor).

D: to the cellar via the exterior cellar stairs to extinguish the fire.

Answer 18

a Explanation:
Brownstones 3.1 B

Question 19

Question 19:
While supervising a water rescue drill involving a “Rip Current,” you would be most correct to advise your FFs to have the victim?

A: Swim parallel to the shore line

B: Swim perpendicular to the shore line

C: Swim diagonal to the shore line

D: Tread water while in place. FFs will come to the victim

Answer 19

a Explanation:
EP Water Rescue 4 sec 2.3.3
If caught in a Rip Current the correct action is to swim parallel to the shore until out of the head and then swim back to the land at an angle in the onshore flow

Question 20

Question 20:
When utilizing negative pressure at an operation, the electric box fan is operated in the exhaust mode to remove the contaminated air from the involved structure. Which action below would not support a negative pressure operation?

A: The box fan should be hung in a window or doorway as high as possible.

B: Salvage tarps should be used to create a seal around the operating fan, allowing the exhaust fan to create an area of negative pressure.

C: An alternate method, when tarps are not available or the box fan can not be hung, is to position the fan outside the contaminated area facing the exhaust opening 4 to 6 feet back and tilted up at an angle of approximately 80 degrees.

D: A fresh air inlet shall be established opposite the operating fan, thereby allowing clean exterior air to enter the structure and replace the contaminated air.

Answer 20

c Explanation:
C) An alternate method, when tarps are not available or the box fan can not be hung, is to position the fan inside the contaminated area facing the exhaust opening 6 to 8 feet back and tilted up at an angle of approximately 30 degrees.
AUC 349 10

Question 21

Question 21:
During ice and cold water rescues, pre-determined hand signals have been established to allow the rescuer and tether to communicate. Choose the most correct hand signal given

A: One hand placed on top of the rescuer’s head indicates the rescuer is ready to be pulled to shore

B: One arm waving in the air indicates to let more slack out in the line

C: Two arms in the air in a cross pattern indicates to stop pulling line

D: Two arms waving in air indicates to stop pulling line

Answer 21

a Explanation:
B- indicates stop pulling line
C- doesn’t exist
D- doesn’t exist
EP Water Rescue 2 sec 6

Question 22

Question 22:
Your unit responds to a High Rise Office Building where the fire floor is verified to be the 82nd floor. You would be correct to order the ECC to supply the standpipe connection with a pump discharge pressure of?

A: 450 psi

B: 500 psi

C: 550 psi

D: 600 psi

Answer 22

c Explanation:
High Rise Office Buildings 4.1.7

Question 23

Question 23:
Upon arrival at an OLT with two floors of fire, you should transmit?

A: 10-75 with an extra Engine and Ladder

B: 10-75 only

C: 2nd alarm for two floors of fire

D: 3rd alarm for two floors of fire

Answer 23

a Explanation:
MDs 3.4.6

Question 24

Question 24:
Two officers discussing Buckeye Pipeline valve inspections were incorrect in which statement made?

A: Company Commanders of units having pipeline control valves in their administrative district shall have them inspected during the semi-annual hydrants inspections.

B: Needed repairs or recommendations should be the subject of a letterhead report to the Buckeye Pipeline Coordinator at Division 8.

C: Reports of critical repairs should be the subject of an immediate telephone notification to the Buckeye Pipeline Coordinator at Division 8.

D:Valve pits subject to flooding must be inspected during subfreezing weather. Flooded pits require a letterhead report to the Buckeye Pipeline Coordinator at Division 8.

Answer 24

d Explanation:
A) Note: Valves should also be inspected during the familiarization drills.
D) Valve pits subject to flooding must be inspected during subfreezing weather. Flooded pits require an immediate telephone notification to the Buckeye Pipeline Coordinator at Division 8.
AUC 149 9

Question 25

Question 25:
The Company that will ensure the evacuation doors are closed on the fire floor in a HRFPMD can be found in which choice?

A: First Ladder Company

B: Second Ladder Company

C: Third Ladder Company

D: Squad Company

Answer 25

b

Explanation:
MDs 6.15.1 3rd bullet point….
also search attack stair for five floors above the fire floor…
third ladder will confirm evacuation doors are closed
***6.15.2 E states “MAINTAIN the evacuation stairway doors closed”
***6.16.2 states “3rd ladder company officer shall CONFIRM the evacuation stairway doors have been closed on the fire floor and MAINTAINED in a closed position”

Question 26

Question 26:
When performing the “hose test”, a water soluble marker is used to mark and draw a line around the circumference of the hose, as close as possible to the male butt at each coupling, to determine if the male butt and hose are separating. Place the length out of service if you discover movement of?

A: 1/16 inch or more

B: 1/8 inch or more

C: 1/4 inch or more

D: 1/2 inch or more

Answer 26

b

Explanation:
Eng 7.14 11

Question 27

Question 27:
Answer the following question according to Chief Dunn’s Book “Collapse of Burning Buildings” 2nd edition…….. Which structural element will have more alarming consequences than the others upon failure during a fire?

A: Column

B: Beam

C: Tail Beam

D: Girder

Answer 27

a

Explanation:
ch 6

Question 28

Question 28:
To ensure that foam concentrates are not mixed, containers are color-coded (banded) around the top. Which color band would indicate AR-AFFF concentrate?

A: Black

B: Brown

C: Yellow

D :Red

Answer 28

d Explanation:
A) AFFF
C) Hi-Ex
TB Foam 4.1

Question 29

Question 29:
Most OLTs have four doors on each floor, but this is not always an indication that there are four apartments. When forcing entrance to an apartment with two doors, forcible entry teams should force which door or doors?

A:Door towards the front of the building

B: Door towards the rear of the building

C: Both doors

D: Door that is normally used for entrance

Answer 29

d Explanation:
Ladders 3 sec 5.4.2.C

Question 30

Question 30:
Which choice below contains incorrect information pertaining to fire extension at brush fire operations?

A: Wind may bend flames over unburned fuel and increase the flow of hot gases from the combustion zone, contributing to preheating unburned fuels.

B: Fire burns rapidly uphill creating strong thermal updrafts ahead of the fire.

C: Fires in phragmites are slower burning and do not progress as rapidly as fires burning in other types of brush.

D: Fire can jump wide streets.

Answer 30

c

Explanation:
C) Fires in cat tails and marsh grass (phragmites) are fast burning and progress rapidly in the direction of the wind.
AUC 151 5.3

Explanation:

Question 31

Question 31:
In some situations, during a PD cellar fire, there are various factors that would preclude the descent of the first hoseline down the interior cellar stairs. These various factors include all of the following except?

A: High heat conditions at the top of the stairs

B: Questionable stability of the stairway

C :Initial size-up indicating a medium fire condition

D: Safety of members

Answer 31

c Explanation:
Serious fire condition
PDs Ch 3 sec 2.7.2

Question 32

Question 32:
When filling out PCR’s, members shall press firmly and darken in all circles completely. When correcting a darkened circle on the PCR, a member shall do which of the following?

A: Place a single line through the darkened circle and place the initials of the member making the correction above the single line

B: Place a single line through the darkened circle and place the initials of the member making the correction below the single line

C: Place a double line through the darkened circle and place the initials of the member making the correction above the double line

D: Place a double line through the darkened circle and place the initials of the member making the correction below the double line

Answer 32

a Explanation:
CFR-D Manual Chapter 5 sec 3.4
CFR-D Manual Chapter 5 sec 3.4
A. When correcting a darkened circle, place a single line through the error and fill in the correct section. The initials of the member making the correction shall be placed above the single line.

Question 33

Question 33:
Engine operations for the first arriving Engine pulling up to a PD fully involved include all of the following except?

A: Drop two handlines in front of the building

B: Maintain the front of fire building accessible for TL placement

C: Consider stretching a 1 ¾ inch hoseline for a faster knock down, greater reach of stream, increased volume of water and increased exposure protection

D: Consider stretching a 2 ½ hoseline when encountering a wind impacted fire or a heavily involved first floor fire in a larger style PD (Queen Anne)

Answer 33

c Explanation:
2 ½
PDs Ch 3 sec 5

Question 34

Question 34:
At a fire in a block of row frame buildings where a ‘holding operation’ is being deployed, if not needed to back up the first hoseline, where should the second hose line be stretched?

A: through an exposure to the rear yard

B: to the top floor of the most severe exposure

C: to the front of the building to prevent auto exposure

D: to the top floor of the main fire building

Answer 34

Explanation: vb b
Remember, a ‘Holding Operation’ is a Building Fully Involved with Fire in the Exposures. A previous Lieutenant’s exam asked a question in this format, listing only ‘Holding Operation’
RF 6.5 B

Question 35

Question 35:
In the course of a Roof FFs duties during an OLT fire, the Roof FF can remove the bulkhead door and place it against the bulkhead and climb up to the gain access to the roof of a bulkhead for ventilation purposes. Positioning this door against the bulkhead should be at what angle?

A: 15 to 20 degrees

B: 20 to 30 degrees

C: 30 to 45 degrees

D: 45 to 60 degrees

Answer 35

c

Question 36

Question 36:
Which choice below contains inappropriate information regarding the use of the Cockloft Nozzle?

A: The cockloft nozzle can be attached to any controlling nozzle simply by removing the MST of the controlling nozzle, and then connecting the 1 ½” female coupling of the cockloft nozzle to the shut-off.

B: A hole approximately 3’ x 3’ is needed in the ceiling in order for the cockloft nozzle to fit.

C: Prior to using a cockloft nozzle in a NFP Multiple Dwelling, consideration shall be given to cutting a vent hole over the main body of fire.

D: The clearing between the top of the ceiling joists and the bottom of the roof joists must be a minimum of 4 feet.

Answer 36

d Explanation:
D) The clearing between the top of the ceiling joists and the bottom of the roof joists must be a minimum of 4”.
TB Tools 7 DS 18 3.1-3.4

Question 37

Question 37:
A Lobby Control Unit is dispatched on what signal?

A: 10-60 for a collapse

B: 10-75 in a large H type

C: 10-76 office building

D: 10-77 in a project

E: 10-80 for a Haz Mat spill

Answer 37

c

Question 38

Question 38:
Two members discussing FF removal procedures for a member in distress were incorrect in which comment made during drill?

A: Once a member is supplied with air and packaged, if required, remove them from the IDLH as soon as possible.  If the FAST Pak is NOT at your location, START the removal procedure. Communicate with the member assigned the FAST Pak to determine a suitable location to meet.

B: Once an unconscious member is supplied with air, turn the purge valve fully to allow a constant flow of air.

C: The air supply of the member needs to be assessed whether the member is conscious or unconscious.

D: The Incident Commander/FAST Group Supervisor needs to be notified as to the location, the condition of the member and the operating environment, and what resources will be needed.

Answer 38

1. b Explanation:
   B) Once an unconscious member is supplied with air, turn the purge valve HALF WAY to allow a constant flow of air.
   MMID Ch 3 7.1, 7.8, 7.9, 13.3

Question 39

Question 39:
The proper climbing angle for a ground portable ladder is approximately _____ degrees?

A: 45-55

B: 55-65

C: 65-75

D:75-85

Answer 39

c

Ladders 1 sec 7.3

Question 40

Question 40:
A covering Captain discussing fire operations at under river rail fires was incorrect in which statement made?

A: Confirm power removal, but operate as if power is on and use the FT-2 nozzle.

B :It is most likely that handlines will be operated from emergency exits during passenger evacuation.

C: When stretching a hoseline through a train, it may be necessary to chock numerous car doors to reach the fire. Many chocks would be required.

D: Consider the use of dry chemical extinguishers, which are located at the blue lights in the tube.

Answer 40

b

Explanation:
B) It is most likely that handlines will be operated from standpipe outlets. If the incident is very close to an emergency exit, it may be feasible to stretch a handline via the exit. However, we cannot operate from an emergency exit in a manner that hinders passenger evacuation.
Under River Rails 8.1.3

Question 41

BACK LIST NEXT

Question 41:
At a chemical attack underground, which ladder company/team is responsible for site access control?

A: 1st arriving Ladder/Team 1

B: 1st arriving Ladder/Team 2

C: 2nd arriving Ladder/Team 1

D: 2nd arriving Ladder/Team 2

Answer 41

d Explanation:
They do this by defining the Exclusion Zone with Red Haz-Mat barrier tape
Establish Contamination Reduction Zone
Establish Contamination Reduction Corridor
ERP add 2 sec 6.6

Question 42

Question 42:
At a first floor fire in a 1 story, 40’X100’, Class 3 taxpayer, which choice most accurately describes the position and duties of the 2nd arriving Roof Firefighter?

A: Place a portable ladder to the roof and take the portable saw.

B: Place a portable ladder to the roof and take the life saving rope.

C: Place an aerial ladder to the roof and take the portable saw.

D: Place an aerial ladder to the roof and take the life saving rope.

Answer 42

Taxpayer 8.3.3 2 a

Question 43

Question 43:
The correct procedure when rescuing people from a fire escape using an Aerial ladder can be found in which choice?

A: Place the ladder alongside the fire escape with the tip 2 inches away from the face of building and about 1 to 3 feet above the balcony railing

B: Place the ladder alongside the fire escape with the tip less than 2 inches away from the face of building and about 1 to 2 feet above the balcony railing

C: Place the ladder alongside the fire escape with the tip more than 2 inches away from the face of building and about 1 to 2 feet above the balcony railing

D: Place the ladder alongside the fire escape with the tip 2 to 6 inches away from the face of building and about 2 to 3 feet above the balcony railing

Answer 43

a Ladders 2 sec 3.3

Question 44

Question 44:
Unit officers should know that the company journal is to be retained for?

A: 20 years

B: 10 years

C: Indefinitely

D: 1 year

Answer 44

Company Journal 1 a

Question 45

Question 45:
Arriving at the scene of a medical emergency, a new Lieutenant would be most correct to do all of the following except?

A: Identify the number of all patients involved.

B: Observe the scene for safety of the crew and patients only. NYPD will be responsible to secure the scene for bystanders.

C: Ensure BSI (Body Substance Isolation) procedures are used and personal protective gear is on.

D: Determine the need for additional resources.

Answer 45

b

Question 46

Question 46:
In a fire building, if there is no door on the fire apartment and fire is lapping into the hall, an option is to remove a door from another apartment and position it so as to limit fire extension into upper areas, limiting build-up of smoke, heat, etc. This technique should get priority consideration where?

A: In the “fully occupied” structure where fire may auto expose.

B: In the “partial vacant” where fire may auto expose.

C: In the “fully vacant” structure.

D:In the “partial vacant” where the integrity of the public hall is necessary for removal of occupants

Answer 46

d

Vacants 6.8

Question 47

Question 47:
When placing a portable ladder to a roof or parapet, the tip of the ladder should be how far above the roof or parapet?

A: At least 2 inches above

B: At least 1 foot above

C: At least 2 feet above

D: At least 5 feet above

Answer 47

Ladders 1 page 6 c

Question 48

Question 48:
Lieutenant Smith was conducting a drill on FireIce operations at a busy Bronx Engine. He was correct in all comments made except?

A: The operating pressure at the nozzle shall be between 60-100 psi, however, using a nozzle pressure between 60-80 psi is optimal.

B: Pressures must be observed and maintained at the in-line pressure gauge of the FireIce Nozzle.

C: The member operating the nozzle should commence operations at a safe standoff distance of 50 feet and after establishing an adequate gel solution, as conditions allow, the nozzle team may advance toward the manhole while maintaining a minimum safe distance of 25’ from the manhole opening.

D: Direct the stream of FireIce solution to fall approximately one foot in front of the manhole opening, and allow the product to flow into the manhole. Keep the stream in operation until any arcing or burning cable subsides.

Answer 48

b Explanation:
B) Pressures must be determined at the apparatus pump panel, as the FireIce equipment does not include an in-line pressure gauge.
AUC 180 Add 2 8.3 - 8.5

Question 49

Question 49:
During a PD cellar fire, the decision to reposition the first hoseline to a secondary entrance can be made by who?

A: Chief officer only

B: Acting Chief officer only

C: Deputy Chief on scene only

D: Acting Chief officer or Chief officer

E: First arriving engine officer

Answer 49

d Explanation:
PDs Ch 3 sec 2.7.4

Question 50

Question 50:
Complaints SHALL be investigated “promptly”, but MUST be investigated within?

A: 48 hours after receipt

B: 24 hours after receipt

C: 72 hours after receipt

D:7 days after receipt

Answer 50

b

Question 51

Question 51:
Answer the following question according to Chief Dunn’s Book “Collapse of Burning Buildings” 2nd edition……..In Places of Worship, Chief Dunn discusses four parts of the building that will collapse, such as free standing walls, the chimney, the tower, and the steeple. Put in descending order form most to least likely to collapse first

A: Tower, steeple, chimney, free standing walls

B: Free standing walls, steeple, tower, chimney

C: Chimney, Tower, steeple, free standing walls

D: Steeple, Tower, free standing walls, chimney

Answer 51

a The tower and steeple are the most unstable
Ch 8

Question 52

Question 52:
Which choice below reflects incorrect information concerning fire operations at Cast Iron and Mill loft buildings?

A: Improper apparatus positioning and tormentor placement can collapse vaulted sidewalks. Vehicles falling through vaulted sidewalks could strike structural elements in sub-level areas leading to a building collapse.

B: Cast-iron lofts may have up to four doorways fronting the street (freight elevator, residential elevator vestibule, commercial entrance, and interior stairway entrance).

C: Some elevators are very old with limited load capacity and open-cage cabs. They will be equipped with Fireman Service.

D: Large, open floor areas require all ladder companies carry search ropes and thermal imaging cameras.

Answer 52

Explanation: c
C) Some elevators are very old with limited load capacity and open-cage cabs. They are without Fireman Service and some only work in the manual mode requiring an operator.
Loft Buildings sec 7.1.6

Question 53

Question 53:
During a LRFPMD fire, which unit has the responsibility to ensure the elevators are recalled and searched?

A: First arriving Ladder Company

B: Second arriving Ladder Company

C: Rescue Company

D: Squad Company

Answer 53

b Explanation:
MDs 7.2
first ladder recalls the elevators,
second ladder ensures it,
IC must ensure that all elevators are recalled, searched, and controlled early in the operation

Question 54

Question 54:
Engine Companies must be carefully positioned at a collapse operation. Of the units listed below, which is not positioned in accordance with FDNY procedures for a collapse operation?

A: The second arriving engine took a hydrant outside the block, on a separate main as the first arriving engine.

B: The third engine was used to seal off the end of the street, with the chauffeur remaining in the cab.

C: A 2nd alarm engine company was used to seal off the end of the street, with the chauffeur remaining in the cab.

D: A 3rd alarm engine was positioned well away from the scene.

Answer 54

b Explanation:
B) The third and fourth engines should take similar positions at the rear of the structure.
Collapse 5.3

Question 55

Question 55:
A 2 ½ hose for an inflatable water rescue in straight line deployment is used for a few victims within close proximity. When deployed as a loop it increases buoyancy and can be used for approximately ___ people.

A: 2

B: 5

C: 10

D: 20

Answer 55

c

Question 56

Question 56:
When there is only one 4-FF Ladder Company on scene at a fire, who is the Safety Team composed of?

A: the LCC firefighter and Irons firefighter.

B: take a defensive position based on conditions encountered.

C: the LCC firefighter and OV firefighter.

D:the LCC firefighter and outside firefighter designated by the officer.

Answer 56

d Explanation:
C) This is for a 5-FF Ladder. When 4-FFs only, there may not be an OV position staffed.
MMID Ch 1 2.1.1

Question 57

Question 57:
Which chemical agent has an odor of burnt almonds?

A: Nerve

B: Blister

C: Blood

D: Choking

Answer 57

c

Question 58

Question 58:
All firehouses shall prepare for severe weather conditions; especially hurricanes and tropical storms. Depending on a storm’s severity, some quarters may need to be evacuated. Which choice below is not in accord with Department policy?

A:In quarters where flooding is a problem, the Company Commander shall determine special needs for storm preparation and obtain such supplies and equipment in advance of the start of hurricane season (June 1st).

B: Requisitioning of supplies shall commence March 1st to permit sufficient time for the various bureaus to obtain and deliver materials.

C:Items on requisition not received by June 1st shall be called to the attention of the Division Storm Operations Coordinator.

D: Evacuated companies will be relocated to Host Companies or dispersal sites. Company Commanders of designated Host Companies are to ensure that necessary preparations are made to accommodate relocated companies. Battalions are to ensure preparations are made at dispersal sites.

Answer 58

c

Explanation:
C) Items on requisition not received by May 1st shall be called to the attention of the Division Storm Operations Coordinator.
AUC 159 4.7

Question 59

Question 59:
After mitigating a C.O. alarm activation that resulted in readings of 12 ppm, you would most correct to transmit what code?

A: 10-38-1

B: 10-38-2

C: 10-38-3

D: 10-38-4

E: 10-31

Answer 59

Explanation:
c This would be considered an emergency (1-9 ppm is an Incident……greater than 9 ppm Emergency)
Comm ch 8 page 11

Question 60

Question 60:
A member of a Brooklyn Ladder Company reviewing KO Curtain deployment procedures was incorrect in which statement made?

A:The KO Curtain shall never be deployed in the vertical position.

B: A pressurized water extinguisher may be required at the place of deployment in the case of auto exposure. A handline may be required for severe auto exposure.

C: There will be an increase in the smoke condition produced by the fire upon KO Curtain deployment.

D: Once the fire has been extinguished, it may be necessary to remove the KO Curtain to assist in ventilation of the fire apartment

Answer 60

a Explanation:
A) The KO Curtain shall never be deployed in the horizontal position.
Evol 34 1.1, 3.2.1, 5.4, 5.14