Qs Flashcards

1
Q

which condition are angiomyolipomas associated with?

A

tuberous sclerosis
-> ash leaf spots, white patch of hair, angiofibromas (freckles)

TS also assoc with polycystic kidney

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2
Q

why does anaemia occur in ESRD?

A

healthy kidneys produce erythropoeitin which is the hormone that stimulates production of RBC

reduced erythropoeitin -> reduced RBCs -> anaemia

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3
Q

recurrent UTIs, asymtomatic microscopic haematurea, tenderness at costovertebral angle, abdo xray = multiple pre-calyceal calcifications affecting both kidneys, “bunch of grapes” appearance

A

medullary sponge kidney

benign, mx = increase oral fluid intake

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4
Q

which type of collagen is affected in alports syndrome?

A

type IV - important for integrity of basement membrane

haematuria, hearing loss, lens dislocation

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5
Q

pathophysio of renal bone disease

A

high serum phosphate (not being secreted)
low active vit d (kidneys metabolise vit D)
low calcium due to low vit D (needed for absorption)

high PTH (reacting to low serum Ca + high serum phosphate)
--> secondary hyperparathyroidism
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6
Q

why does osteomalacia + ostero sclerosis occure in CKD?

A

osteomalacia = increased bone turnover without adequate Ca

osteosclerosis = osteoblasts increase to match osteoclasts but low Ca means not properly minerlised

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7
Q

where specifically does furosemide act?

A

Na-K-Cl cotransporter

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8
Q

which type of glomerular nephritis is associated with heroin use?

A

focal segmental

also HIV, obesity

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9
Q

foot process fusion

A

minimal change

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10
Q

Which electrolyte disturbance is most characteristically caused by chronic kidney disease?

A

hypocalcaemia

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11
Q

ECG changes in hyperkalaemia

A

PR prolongation
Tented T waves
widening QRS

–> T wave flattening then sine waves

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12
Q

why is insulin involved in the treatment of hyperkalaemia?

A

insulin cause potassium to shift to the intrecellular space therby reducing serum concentration

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13
Q

high uraemia and saddling of ST segments on ECG

A

uraemia pericarditis

indication for dialysis

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14
Q

A 25- year-old man with crescentic IgA presents to the low clearance renal clinic. His latest eGFR is 20mls/min. He asks which renal replacement therapy offers him the best outcomes in terms of mortality.

A

live donor renal transplant

then brain dead then cardiac dead

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15
Q

which glomerulonephritis can be secondary to malignancy?

A

membranous nephropathy

70% are idiopathic but can be secondary to malignancy, rheumatoid disorders, drugs (NSAIDs)

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16
Q

is membranous glomerulonephritis nephrotic or nephritic

A

nephrOtic

17
Q

histology of membranous glomerulonephritis

A

IgG + complement deposits on basement membrane

18
Q

A 24- year-old worman with a renal transplant present to the renal clinic with a 24 hour history of dysuria and frequency. A urinary tract infection is suspected.
Which antibiotic should be avoided given the patient’s history?

A

Trimethoprim

  • has the potential for nephrotoxicity with the immunosupressants ciclosporin and Tacrolimus as well as an increased risk of haematological toxicity with azathioprine.
  • Serum creatinine may rise due to competition for renal secretion.
  • Hyperkalaemia is common in CKD 5 and transplant patients. Patients with renal transplants should avoid all potentially nephrotoxic substances where possible.