Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Step 3 > Qbank Errors > Flashcards

Qbank Errors Flashcards

1
Q

In patients with suspected renovascular HTN what methods should you use for evaluation?

A

Renal duplex US or CTA/MRA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome?

A

Acute worsening of symptoms which often occurs in individuals just started on HIV theraphy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How should you change meds in a patient with bipolar disorder that is in an acute manic episode despite being treated with lithium?

A

Check serum levels of Li and increase it but make sure you’re still in therapeutic window. Patients in acute mania may need higher dose than those just receiving it for prevention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is circinate balanitis and what is it associated with?

A

Ulcers on penis. An extra-articular manifestation of reactive arthritis which may follow an infection (i.e. Chlamydia).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Necrolytic migratory erythema is associated with what condition?

A

Glucagonoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the difference between a length-time bias and a lead-time bias?

A

Length-time bias: ID cases which are benign and slower progressing which overestimates benefit of screening

Lead-time bias: ID’s cases earlier in their natural history to overestimate survival

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is seborrheic dermatitis?

A

Dandruff

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the difference between the mortality rate and case fatality rate?

A

Mortality rate: percentage of general population who die from a disease

Case fatality rate: percentage of those with a particular disease who die

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is appropriate treatment for priapism?

A

First place an ice-pack and see if that helps

Second, consider phenylephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the cause of HIT type 2? How does it present?

A

Antibodies forming to platelet factor 4 complexed with heparin. Often occurs 3-5 days after starting heparin and leads to thrombocytopenia and thrombosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How should pregnant patients with congenital heart disease leading to cyanosis be counciled?

A

That there is a high risk of death to the mother and fetus if becoming pregnant so elective termination should be considered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which TORCH disease can present in infants with microcephaly?

A

Toxoplasmosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Mucormycosis is best treated with ….

A

Amphotericin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are some of the indications for parathyroidectomy in patients with secondary or tertiary hyperparathyroidism?

A

i) PTH > 1000
ii) Calcium >10.5 and unresponsive to medicaal mgmt
iii) Hyperphosphatemia unresponsive to medical mgmt
iv) Intractable bone pain/pruritis
v) Episode calciphylaxis
vi) Soft tissue calcification

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Young patients with diabetes, HTN, hypokalemia, and osteoporosis should be screened for …

A

Cushing syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What disorder is caused by exaggerated IgE and IgG response to pathogens in the lungs? What is treatment?

A

Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis (ABPA)

Tx: glucocorticoids and itriconazole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the treatment of choice for Bell’s palsy?

A

Corticosteroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the main form of mgmt of anal abscesses?

A

Incision and drainage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Patients in whom you suspect prostatitis should be evaluated with what tests?

A

UA and urine culture before proceeding to treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Symptomatic relief of nonbacterial prostatitis is best achieved how?

A

Sitz baths and anti-inflammatory medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Chronic alcoholic patients are often depleted in what electrolyte that becomes exacerbated by refeeding?

A

Phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Patients with Sjogren’s syndrome are at heightened risk of what malignnacy?

A

B-cell non-Hodgkins lymphoma

23
Q

Can a parent refuse life-sustaining treatment for their young child?

A

No. If the child is not of age to consent on their own the physician must act in the child’s best interest

24
Q

What is the SAAG and what is its utility?

A

Serum to ascites albumin gradient

Serum - ascites. If > 1.1 then indicates a portal HTN cause of ascites and if

25
Q

Restless leg syndrome is associated with ….

A

Iron deficiency, uremia, DM, MS, Parkinson’s, drugs, pregnancy

26
Q

What is the treatment of choice in catatonia?

A

Benzodiazepines and/or ECT

27
Q

Diagnosis of dermatomyositis is based on ….

A

antibody testing (anti-RNP, anti-Jo1, anti-Mi2)

28
Q

What is cataplexy and what is a good treatment?

A

Sudden loss of muscle tone

SNRI or SSRI

29
Q

GERD can lead to peptic strictures which present how?

A

Difficulty with solid foods > liquids over long time course

30
Q

What is intertrigo and the common causing pathogen?

A

Erythematous erosions and plaques of the body folds and creases caused by Candida

31
Q

How are mild/moderate recurrent cases of Cdiff managed?

A

Metronidazole

32
Q

HIV patients with esophagitis showing no virus and it is not Candida represents what? What is tx?

A

Apthous ulcers

Prednisone

33
Q

What is preferred therapy in Paget’s Disease?

A

Bisphosphonates

34
Q

When should indirect inguinal hernias in the pediatric population be treated?

A

Elective surgery as soon as possible since they’re at high risk for incarceration

35
Q

What is tx for mild croup? Severe croup?

A

Mild croup: hydration and oral corticosteroids

Severe croup: steroids and racemic epinephrine

36
Q

In a patient with asymmetric hyperreflexia and history of Pancoast tumor how concerned should you be?

A

Very. They may need urgent decompression due to spread of tumor to spinal cord.

37
Q

What is the preferred means to treat hematochromatosis?

A

Phlebotomy

38
Q

In severely depressed pregnant patients with active suicidality and hx of mania why is ECT recommended over fluoxetine?

A

Fluoxetine is safe in pregnancy but in patients with poorly controlled mania it may invoke manic symptoms. ECT would be more helpful given active suicidality

39
Q

In patients with hematochromatosis what types of joint findings may you notice?

A

Arthropathy which looks like a pseudogout picture (e.g. positively birefringent rhomboid crystals)

40
Q

How does age of an ASCUS result on Pap Smear change the follow-up management?

A

21-24 you would get a repeat Pap in 1 year

>25 you would get HPV testing

41
Q

What should be done prior to IgE measurement in patients with suspected allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis?

A

Skin prick test for molds

42
Q

Insulin resistance and dyslipidemia in HIV are linked to what process which commonly occurs in HIV?

A

HIV lipodystrophy (fat deposits on neck, abdomen)

43
Q

What medication reduces the risk of ear and sinus barotrauma during diving?

A

Phenylephrine (non-sedating nasal decongestant)

44
Q

What is mainstay of treatment for ABPA?

A

Oral steroids

45
Q

How are actinic keratoses treated? What if it is more diffuse?

A

Cryotherapy removal

If more widespread then can consider topical 5-fluorouracil

46
Q

What is a serious consequence of Dengue fever?

A

Circulatory system collapse

47
Q

How are actinic keratoses treated? What if it is more diffuse?

A

Cryotherapy removal

If more widespread then can consider topical 5-fluorouracil

48
Q

What bacterial infection commonly results from a human bite?

A

Eikinella corodens

49
Q

What is the single strongest predictor of osteopenia and osteoporosis?

A

Age

50
Q

T/F

After orchiopexy the rate of malignancy remains high

A

True

51
Q

Pain out of proportion to the erythema seen on the exam of a patient with a fever may represent what?

What is the common pathogen involved?

A

Necrotizing fascitis

Group A Strep (e.g. Strep pyogenes)

52
Q

If a patient begins developing severe symptoms from mono (e.g. airway swelling) then what medication should be provided?

A

IV steroids

*They shouldn’t be routinely administered but given when complications begin to arise

53
Q

What type of pulmonary calcification suggests a benign etiology?

A

Popcorn calcifications (e.g. hamartoma); or diffuse homogenous, central, or concentric

Step 3 (19 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions