Endocrinology Flashcards

1
Q

What are the criteria for making a diagnosis of DM?

A

(i) Fasting BG > 126
(ii) Random BG > 200 with symptoms
(iii) A1C > 6.5%
(iv) Abnormal 2hr glucose tolerance test

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2
Q

If diet, exercise, and metformin fail for treating T2DM what is your next treatment option?

A

Sulfonylurea

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3
Q

What are two scenarios in which metformin is contraindicated?

A

Patient has renal insuffiency (risk of lactic acidosis)

Patient inpatient and receiving contrast agents

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4
Q

What are the adverse effects of sulfonylureas (e.g. glipizide, glyburide)?

A

Weight gain (due to insulin release)
SIADH
Hypooglycemia

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5
Q

Gliptins are what class of agents? How do they work?

A

DPP-IV inhibitors

Promote insulin release and block glucagon release

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6
Q

How do thiazolidinediones work (e.g. rosglitazone and pioglitazone)? In what situations do you want to avoid their use?

A

Increase peripheral insulin sensitivity

Avoid in CHF

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7
Q

Acarbose and miglitol are what type of agents? What side effects do they have and why?

A

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors which block the absorption of glucose in the GI tract which can lead flatulence and diarrhea

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8
Q

Nateglinide and reapaglinide are what type of medicaiton?

A

Insulin secretagogues. Similar to sulfonylureas by promoting insulin secretion

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9
Q

SGLT inhibitors such as canagliflozin and dapagagliflozin have what side effects?

A

May cause UTIs

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10
Q

What is the best initial test for DKA?

A

Serum bicarbonate

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11
Q

What are lab findings of DKA?

A

AG metabolic acidosis
Hyperkalemia (but systemically deplete of K)
Hyperglycemia
Acetone, acetoacetate, and beta hydroxybutyrate

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12
Q

Acidosis generally leads to what potassium disturbance? Why?

Te reverse is true for alkalosis.

A

Hyperkalemia. Cells begin taking in H+ in exchange for K+

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13
Q

What is the best way to initially manage the patient with DKA (i.e. labs and treatment)?

A

Order labs and ABG quickly and start bolus of normal saline. Once confirmed hyperglycemia then start insulin drip. Monitor the K+ and watch to see if it is going down and once so then begin repleting K+

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14
Q

What is goal BP in DM?

A
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15
Q

What is the LDL goal in DM patient? What if they have CAD too?

A

LDL

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16
Q

How do you treat DM proliferative retinopathy?

A

Laser photocoagulation

If fails then VEGF inhibitors like bevacizumab

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17
Q

If patients with microscopic proteinuria and DM what should they be started on?

A

ACEi

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18
Q

In patients with DM neuropathy how should they be treated?

A

Gabapentin or pregabalin

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19
Q

Why does DM lead to gastroparesis?

What agents can be used to help?

A

Basically neuropathy of GI tract and impaired stretch receptors which causes impaired motility

Erythromycin promotes release of motilin
Metoclopramide (D2 R antagonist; mixed effect at 5HT R)

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20
Q
What are the radioactive iodine uptake levels in:
Graves disease
Silent thyroiditis
Subacute thyroiditis
Pituitary adenoma
A

Graves: elevated
Silent thyroiditis: low
Subacute thyroiditis: low
Pituitary adenoma: elevated

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21
Q

Tx for subacute thyroiditis

A

Aspirin for pain

22
Q

Tx for Graves disease

A

PTU/Methimazole
Radioactive iodine ablation
Propranolol

23
Q

Separation from the nail from the nail bed may be a sign of what disease?

A

Graves disease, called onycolysis

24
Q

What is silent thyrioditis? What Abs may be present?

A

Nontender gland with hyerthyroidism (auotimmune process) caused by leaking of thyroid hormone. Radioactive iodine uptake is normal/low. Thyroid peroxidase and antithyroglobulin antibodies may be present

25
Atrophy of the thyroid gland with elevated T4 suggests ....
Exogenous thyroid hormone supllementation
26
What are treatments for a thyroid storm?
Iodine PTU/Methimazole Dexamethasone Propranolol
27
How should you evaluate a solitary thyroid nodule?
Fine Needle Aspiration
28
Most common cause of hypercalcemia in outpatients
Primary hyperparathyroidism
29
What are the effects of PTH?
Increased calcium release from bone Increased calcium reabsorption from distal renal tubule Increased phosphate excretion Activation of vitamin D
30
What are signs and symptoms of acute, severe hypercalcemia?
``` Confusion Kidney stones/renal insufficiency/ATN Short QT Constipation Polyuria/polydipsia ```
31
What is the treatment protocol for severe hypercalcemia?
1) Hydration 2) Bisphosphonates (take a while to work) 3) Furosemide diuretic 4) Calcitonin 5) Steroids if granulomatous disease
32
What ion disturbance may cause hypocalcemia?
Hypomagnnesia (Mg needed to release PTH from the gland)
33
What is pseudohyperparathyroidism? How does it present?
High PTH but low Ca due to PTH resistance | Short fourth finger, round face, mental retardation
34
What do calcium level perturbations do to QT length?
Hypercalcemia shortens QT | Hypocalcemia lengthens QT
35
What is the only cause of Cushing Syndrome which is suppressed by high dose dexamethasone?
Pituitary adenoma
36
What acid/base disturbance does excess cortisol lead to?
Metabolic alkalosis due to loss of hydrogen ions at late distal/early collecting duct
37
What is the best initial diagnostic test in a patient with elevated ACTH causing Cushing syndrome? What is the best test to follow-up with?
1mg overnight dexamethasone suppression testing. If abnormal and there is not suppression of morning release of cortisol then do a 24 hr urine cortisol
38
What metabolic and lab values are seen in patients with Addison's disease?
Mild metabolic acidosis Hyperkalemia Hyponatremia
39
Besides a CT scan of the adrenal gland what is the best test for diagnosing Addison's disease?
Cosyntropin stimulation test: artifiical ACTH is given and should elevate cortisol release, if not then suggestive of Addison's disease
40
Tx of Addison's disease patients
Steroids followed by prednisone once stable | Fludrocortisone
41
What acid base disturbance do patients with hyperaldosteronism have?
Metabolic alkalosis
42
How does mgmt of hyperaldosteronism differ if a solitary adenoma is present vs hyperplasia?
Solitary adenoma: surgical resection | Hyperplasia: spironolactone
43
What is the most accurate test to find metastatic disease associated with pheochromocytoma?
MIBG scan (nuclear scan)
44
What is the tx of pheochromocytoma in the correct order?
Phenoxybenzamine first to control BP and then give propranolol afterwards. Next is surgical/laparoscopic resection.
45
All forms of CAH have what changes to steroid levels?
Low aldosterone and low cortisol levels
46
The three different kinds of CAH can be differentiated based on presence/absence of HTN and virilization. Explain and distinguish.
21-hydroxylase: Hypotensive and virilization (due to low aldosterone and high T) 17-hydroxylase: HTN and no virilization (low T) 11-hydrooxylase: HTN and virilization
47
Increased 17-hydroxyprogesterone levels are indicative of ....
21 hydroxylase deficiency
48
What effect does TRH have on PRL?
TRH increases release of PRL | Hypothyroidism then may increase PRL levels
49
What is the best initial test for dx of acromegaly?
IGF1 levels
50
If you give glucose to a patient with acromegaly what effect should this have on GH release?
There won't be any suppression of GH release
51
Besides surgical mgmt, what medication may help control acromegaly?
Octreotide (SST analog)