Q3 Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

lobes of the liver

A

left (lateral and medial), quadrate, right (medial and lateral), caudate (papillary and caudate process)

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2
Q

how much of the liver can you remove?

A

70%

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3
Q

when is U/S vs CT useful in liver diagnostics

A

US: focal or multifocal hepatic disease
CT: vascular anomalies and surgical planning

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4
Q

punch biopsy depth in liver

A

no more than 50% thickness of lobe

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5
Q

most common primary liver tumors in dogs vs cats

A

hepatocellular carcinoma, massive, left lobe
bile duct tumors (often more benign)

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6
Q

most common metastases in the liver

A

lymphosarcoma, carcinomas, sarcomas (like HGS)

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7
Q

why is the left lobes easiest to resect

A

pedunculated, no association with gall bladder or CVC

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8
Q

ideal hepatic surgical candidate

A

left, one lobe, less than 50% of liver mass, not diffuse or nodular

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9
Q

hepatic cysts

A

usually incidental, only treat if large enough to interfere with other organs, r/out abscess

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10
Q

cats extrahepatic biliary anatomy

A

common bile duct and pancreatic duct JOIN before entering duodenum

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11
Q

common biochemistry changes with hepatobiliary disease in dogs vs cats

A

dogs- cholestatic (ALP,GGT)
cats- any elevation in one of the 4 liver enzymes worrying

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12
Q

when to treat biliary sludge

A

secondary disease, more than grade 3, biliary sludge not gravity dependent, or at risk for a mucocele

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13
Q

most likely cause of gallbladder issues

A

hypomotility and hydrophobic bile acid overproduction

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14
Q

gallbladder mucocele in cats

A

not a thing

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15
Q

medical therapy for mild signs of gallbladder mucocele

A

ursodiol, SAMe, antibiotics, supportive care, low fat diet, search for endocrinopathy

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16
Q

cholecystitis dx

A

histo gold standard, usually assumptive on U/S and clinical signs, can do bile culture too!

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17
Q

cholecystitis tx

A

medical therapy for mild cases, still likely hospitalize (antibiotics, ursodiol, hepatoprotectants, low fat diet), medical and surgery for mod to severe cases

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18
Q

neutrophilic cholangitis

A

leading cause ascending bacterial infection (E coli, enterococcus, clostridium), will see fever often! make sure to feed cats!!! penicillin vs penicillin and fluoroquinolone

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19
Q

lymphocytic cholangitis

A

cats with episodic signs, immune mediated, liver biopsies (weird), need immune suppression and hepatoprotectants

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20
Q

hepatic lipidosis biochemical changes

A

increased ALP, hyperbilirubinemia, take to U/S!

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21
Q

ALT

A

hepatocellular injury

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22
Q

most sensitive hepatic function test

A

bile acids (not necessary if jaundiced), detects CH only 50%

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23
Q

breeds predisposed to chronic hepatitis

A

cocker spaniels, dobermans, dalmations, westies

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24
Q

infectious diseases causing hepatitis

A

lepto, leishmaniasis, histoplasmosis, protozoal

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25
Q

copper-associated CH breeds and tx

A

westies, labs (+ dobies and dalmations), tx low Cu diets with protein supplement, D-penicillamine (chelator but expensive)

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26
Q

zone of liver most susceptible to injury

A

centrilobular zone 3, high CYP, low GSH and O2

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27
Q

quantitative Cu assessment in liver

A

atomic absorption spectroscopy

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28
Q

vacuolar hepatopathy

A

hepatocytes distended with cytosolic glycogen, “swiss cheese liver”, scottish terriers, higher risk of cancer

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29
Q

parameters for blood transfusion in hemoabdomen

A

20% and not responsive to fluid, treat the patient, do not autotransfuse if neoplastic!!!!

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30
Q

common location of gastric necrosis with GDV

A

usually dorsal greater curvature, most serious if cardia

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31
Q

fluid analysis of uroabdomen

A

ratio creatinine fluid:periphery > 2:1
ratio K fluid:periphery >1.4:1

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32
Q

correct hyperkalemia

A

Ca gluconate if severe, need to follow with insulin and dextrose, maybe be able to dilute with fluids if mild

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33
Q

transfusion trigger for anesthesia

A

22% PCV

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34
Q

shock bolus for cat and dog

A

90 mL/lg dog and 60 mL/kg cat, 1/4 at a time

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35
Q

treat regurg during anesthesia

A

suction and flush protocol, promotility agents

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36
Q

4 drugs commonly used in emergency anesthesia

A

opioids, benzos, lidocaine, alfoxalone, ketamine (controversial)

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37
Q

CPP =

A

MAP - ICP

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38
Q

how can inhalants increase ICP

A

more than 1MAC of any inhalant

39
Q

cushings reflex

A

increased ICP leading to bradycardia and severe hypertension

40
Q

treatment for brain herniation

A

patient positioning, controlled ventilation, hypertonic saline and later mannitol, consider steroids

41
Q

postop cognitive dysfunction

A

likely happen with older dogs, lidocaine and vitamin C may help??

42
Q

opioid drug of choice for neurologic patients

43
Q

safest induction drug for neuro patients

A

etomidate (myoclonus tho?)

44
Q

FIV

A

cat bites, acute to asymptomatic to terminal/clinical, CD4+ long term affected, develop B cell lymphoma, serology detects ANTIBODIES

45
Q

FIP

A

starts with FECV then mutates to affinity for monocytes/ macrophages, wet and dry form, gold standard is IHC on histopath from explore, not common lol, tx GS-441524 now conditionally FDA approved!!!

45
Q

FeLV

A

just from saliva, abortive, regressive or infective, serology usually tests for ANTIGEN, T cell lymphoma very likely

46
Q

papules vs pustules

A

smol solid elevation of skin, elevation of skin containing pus, BOTH primary lesions

46
Q

rivaltas test

A

can only prove high protein effusion, effusion drop into water and acetic acid

47
Q

what if I get a sterile pustule?

A

likely PF!!!

48
Q

reasons for primary crusts

A

seborrhea, zinc responsive dermatitis, SND

49
Q

zinc responsive dermatosis

A

husky and boston terriers, young puppies

50
Q

superficial necrolytic dermatitis

A

old age, liver not producing things to create good skin in places that turn over often (paw pads and elbows)

51
Q

5 layers of epidermis

A

basale, spinosum, lucidum , graulosum, corneum

52
Q

4 allergy mimics

A

parasites, dermatophytosis, immune disease, neoplasia

53
Q

atopy

A

most common allergic skin disease, a diagnosis of exclusion, treat by checking IDAT and allergy shots, frequent baths, good flea control, stop itchiness, no cure

54
Q

CAFR

A

almost always to protein, non-seasonal pruritis, ridgeback, GSD, shar pei, dx with elimination diet trial

55
Q

dermatophytosis tx

A

topical with antifungal product, maybe itraconazole or terbinafine, clean house

56
Q

sebaceous adenitis

A

poodles, loss of curls or color change, oil soaks and baths + atopica

57
Q

pemphigus foliaceus

A

acantholytic keratinocytes, pustules, start immune suppression (steroids to start), hard to treat

58
Q

cutaneous lymphoma

A

T cell better (weird), exfoliative erythroderma and depigmentation, not great prognosis

59
Q

pyoderma treatment

A

start with topical therapies, maybe move to oral antibiotics (but not fluoroquinolone)

60
Q

hair growth phases

A

anagen, catagen, telogen, exogen

61
Q

demodex tx

A

amitraz dips licensed, most treat with isoxazolines

62
Q

vaccine induced alopecia

A

ischemic damage and vasculitis, rabies in small breeds, tx with pentoxifylline

63
Q

dorsal thermal necrosis

A

bad sun burn, coag necrosis on histo

64
Q

causes of paraneoplastic alopecia in dogs

A

nodular dermatofibrosis, feminization syndrome, SND, paraneoplastic pemphigus

65
Q

causes of paraneoplastic alopecia in cats

A

paraneoplastic alopecia, thymoma associated

66
Q

dermatomyositis

A

collies and shelties, asymptomatic atrophy of muscles months after skin lesions, double punch biopsy, pentoxifylline and immunosuppression

67
Q

erythema multiforme

A

keratinocyte apoptosis and lymphocyte satellitosis

68
Q

how does thyroid hormone act in the hair cycle

A

initiates anagen

69
Q

calcinosis cutis

A

secondary to hyperadrenocorticism, will eventually turn very red, can help fix with slow administration of DMSO maybe

70
Q

alopecia x

A

hair cycle arrest in plush coated breeds, diagnosis of exclusion, flax seed oil and melatonin, microneedling, neuter?

71
Q

topical hormone replacement alopecia

A

feminization maybe, preputial linear dermatopathy

72
Q

color dilution alopecia

A

abnormal melanin transfer and storage, trichogram, gently brush and bath

73
Q

canine flank alopecia

A

unknown cause, bilateral, short day months, jelly fish follicle on histopath, flax seed and melatonin?

74
Q

pattern baldness

A

pinna, ventrum, caudal thighs, miniaturization of follicles on biopsy, flax seed and melatonin

75
Q

three parts to the tympanic membrane

A

pars flaccida (dorsal weird ridge), pars tensa (classic membrane), and stria mallearis

76
Q

primary secretory otitis media

A

CKCS, bulging ear drums and deafness

77
Q

what size ear cone?

A

4mm on EVERY PATIENT

78
Q

which antibiotic to use if ruptured ear drum?

A

fluoroguinolone

79
Q

three layers of the eye

A

fibrous outer layer (sclera and cornea), vascular middle layer (iris, ciliary body, and choroid), neural inner layer (retina and optic nerve)

80
Q

jones eye test

A

evaluates nasolacriminal drainage patency, ~5min

81
Q

seidel test

A

leakage of aqueous humor

82
Q

meibomian gland

A

role in lipid tear film, in upper eyelid

83
Q

third eyelid accessory tear gland

A

30-40% of tears

84
Q

conjunctiva normal flora

A

mostly gram+ aerobes, gram- in few dogs, 65% cat eyes culture neg

85
Q

where does tear film mucus come from?

A

conjunctiva goblet cells

86
Q

entropion

A

spastic don’t have to fix, some dogs grow out after 1 year, can do temporary tacking sutures

87
Q

eyelid agenesis

A

lateral third of upper eyelid doesn’t form, dumpster cats

88
Q

eyelid neoplasia in dogs

A

most benign, majority from meibomian glands

89
Q

eyelid neoplasia in cats

A

less common, mostly SCC (adenocarcinoma, PNS, and lymphoma also bad)

90
Q

common causes of feline conjunctivitis

A

M felis, C felis, FHV-1

91
Q

corneal reactions to disease (6)

A

edema, vascular, fibrosis, pigment, cellular infiltrate, accumulates substances