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Psychology > PSYU2235 Developmental Psych > Flashcards

PSYU2235 Developmental Psych Flashcards

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1
Q

Week 2 What is epigenetics?

A

The study of heritable changes in gene expression or cellular phenotype caused by mechanisms other than changes in the underlying DNA sequence. Epigenetic marks include covalent DNA modifications and posttranslational histone modifications.

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2
Q

Week 1 What are the 3 goals of developmental psychology?

A
  1. To describe:
    -Normal development
    -Individual differences
  2. To explain - individual differences
  3. Optimise - to make a difference to peoples live trajectories
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3
Q

Week 2 Discuss the importance of understanding the interaction between genes and the environment during prenatal development in the context of developmental psychology.

A

Answer: This question would require students to explore how genetic predispositions and environmental factors, such as maternal health, nutrition, and stress, interact to influence development before birth. Students should discuss the implications of this interaction for later cognitive, emotional, and physical development, as well as the relevance of this understanding for developmental psychology.

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4
Q

Week 2 What are genes?

A) The process by which cells divide
B) Units of hereditary information
C) A type of protein in the body
D) Cells that carry oxygen

A

B

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5
Q

Week 2 Which of the following best describes the term “Genome”?

A) A cell organelle
B) A type of protein
C) An algorithm or code
D) A segment of RNA

A

C

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6
Q

Week 2 What are genes comprised of?

A) Proteins
B) RNA
C) Chromosomes
D) Short segments of DNA

A

D

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7
Q

Week 2 Where are genes located within a cell?

A) Mitochondria
B) Nucleus
C) Chromosomes
D) Ribosomes

A

C

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8
Q

Week 2 How many chromosomes do humans have?

A) 23
B) 46
C) 22
D) 24

A

B

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9
Q

Week 2 What does a pair of sex chromosomes determine?

A) Blood type
B) Eye colour
C) Gender
D) Height

A

C

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10
Q

Week 2 What are the two types of chromosomes found in human cells?

A) Autosomes and mitochondria
B) Autosomes and sex chromosomes
C) Ribosomes and autosomes
D) Mitochondria and ribosomes

A

B

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11
Q

Week 2 How are genes inherited from parents?

A) All genes come from the mother
B) All genes come from the father
C) Genes are inherited in pairs, one from each parent
D) Genes are only inherited from the dominant parent

A

C

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12
Q

Week 2 What is the primary purpose of mitosis?

A) Sexual reproduction
B) Repair of damaged tissues
C) Production of energy
D) Formation of sperm and ova

A

B

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13
Q

WEEK 2 What is the result of mitosis in terms of cell replication?

A) One single larger cell
B) Two identical cells
C) Four different cells
D) Two cells with different genetic information

A

B

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14
Q

WEEK 2 How many sets of chromosomes does each cell have after mitosis?

A) One set of chromosomes
B) Two sets of chromosomes
C) Four sets of chromosomes
D) Half a set of chromosomes

A

B

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15
Q

WEEK 2 Which of the following processes involves mitosis?

A) Formation of gametes (sperm and egg cells)
B) Fertilization
C) Growth and repair of aging tissues
D) Crossing over of chromosomes

A

C

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16
Q

WEEK 2 What is the main purpose of meiosis?

A) Growth and repair of tissues
B) Energy production
C) Sexual reproduction
D) Asexual reproduction

A

C

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17
Q

WEEK 2 How many cells are produced at the end of meiosis?

A) Two cells with the same number of chromosomes as the original cell
B) Four cells, each with half the number of chromosomes of the original cell
C) Two identical cells
D) One cell with double the number of chromosomes

A

B

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18
Q

WEEK 2 What happens during fertilization?

A) The number of chromosomes in the zygote is halved
B) The number of chromosomes in the zygote doubles
C) Chromosome pairs come together to form a zygote
D) The zygote splits into two identical cells

A

C

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19
Q

WEEK 2 What is the significance of “crossing over” during meiosis?

A) It ensures that each daughter cell is identical to the parent cell
B) It creates cells with double the number of chromosomes
C) It results in a unique mixture of maternal and paternal DNA in each chromosome pair
D) It prevents the mixing of genetic information between the parents

A

C

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20
Q

WEEK 2 What is unique about each chromosome pair in the fertilized egg (zygote)?

A) Each pair is identical to one parent
B) Each pair is a unique mixture of maternal and paternal DNA
C) Each pair only contains maternal DNA
D) Each pair only contains paternal DNA

A

B

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21
Q

WEEK 2 What is the chromosome count in a zygote after fertilization?

A) 23 chromosomes
B) 23 pairs of chromosomes
C) 46 single chromosomes
D) 92 chromosomes

A

B

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22
Q

Week 2 Difference between meiosis and mitosis

A

The key differences between meiosis and mitosis lie in their purpose, process, and outcomes. Here’s a summary:

Mitosis
Purpose: Mitosis is the process of cell division that results in two identical daughter cells, each with the same number of chromosomes as the original cell. It is used for growth, repair, and asexual reproduction in somatic (non-reproductive) cells.
Process:
A single cell undergoes one division cycle, resulting in two identical cells.
Each daughter cell has the full set of chromosomes (diploid, 2n), which means they have two sets of chromosomes (one from each parent).
Outcome:
Two genetically identical cells, each with the same number of chromosomes as the original cell (typically 46 in humans).
Role: Important for general growth, tissue repair, and replacement of old cells.

Meiosis
Purpose: Meiosis is a special type of cell division that produces gametes (sperm and ova) for sexual reproduction. It reduces the chromosome number by half to create cells with only one set of chromosomes (haploid).
Process:
Involves two division cycles (Meiosis I and Meiosis II).
The first division (Meiosis I) separates homologous chromosomes, while the second division (Meiosis II) separates sister chromatids, leading to four non-identical cells.
Each resulting cell has half the number of chromosomes (haploid, n) compared to the original cell.
Outcome:
Four genetically unique cells, each with half the number of chromosomes of the original cell (23 in humans).
Role: Essential for sexual reproduction, contributing to genetic diversity through recombination and the formation of unique gametes.

Summary
Mitosis produces two identical diploid cells, maintaining the chromosome number, and is used for growth and repair.
Meiosis produces four genetically unique haploid cells, reducing the chromosome number by half, and is used for sexual reproduction.

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23
Q

WEEK 2 What is a mutation in the context of meiosis or mitosis?

A) A normal and expected outcome of cell division
B) A random mixing of alleles
C) An error in the process of cell division
D) The pairing of dominant and recessive genes

A

C

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24
Q

WEEK 2 In the dominant-recessive gene principle, how many hereditary elements are there for each trait?

A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Four

A

B

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25
Q

WEEK 2 What are the two alternate forms of the same gene called?

A) Chromosomes
B) Alleles
C) Nucleotides
D) Zygotes

A

B

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26
Q

WEEK 2 From where do these two hereditary elements come?

A) Both from the male parent
B) Both from the female parent
C) One from each parent
D) They are formed randomly

A

C

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27
Q

WEEK 2 What happens if an individual has one dominant allele and one recessive allele for a trait?

A) The recessive allele is always expressed
B) The dominant allele overrides the effect of the recessive allele
C) Both alleles are expressed equally
D) The individual shows a mixture of both traits

A

B

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28
Q

WEEK 2 Under what condition are recessive genes expressed?

A) When both alleles are dominant
B) When both parents carry the recessive gene
C) When there is one dominant and one recessive allele
D) When the dominant allele is inactive

A

B

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29
Q

WEEK 2 What is the primary purpose of prenatal diagnosis and genetic counselling?

A) To produce perfect humans
B) To ensure that only dominant genes are passed on
C) To allow early treatment and facilitate informed decision making
D) To eliminate recessive genes from the population

A

C

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30
Q

WEEK 2 Which statement best describes the role of genetic counseling?

A) It is solely focused on preventing genetic mutations
B) It ensures that all children will be born without genetic disorders
C) It helps families plan and prepare for a child with a health problem
D) It guarantees the birth of a genetically “perfect” child

A

C

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31
Q

WEEK 2 Which of the following statements about the dominant-recessive gene principle is correct?

A) Recessive genes are expressed more frequently than dominant genes
B) Dominant genes are only expressed if both alleles are dominant
C) A single dominant allele can override the effect of a recessive allele
D) Both dominant and recessive genes are always expressed equally

A

C

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32
Q

WEEK 2 What is not a goal of genetic counselling and prenatal diagnosis?

A) To facilitate planning for a child with a health problem
B) To allow early treatment as appropriate
C) To produce perfect humans
D) To facilitate informed decision making

A

C

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33
Q

WEEK 2 What is the main focus of behavioral genetics?

A) The study of gene-environment contributions in humans
B) The study of behavioral patterns in animals
C) The study of physical traits passed from parents to offspring
D) The study of environmental impacts on plants

A

A

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34
Q

WEEK 2 Which methods are commonly used in behavioural genetics to study gene-environment contributions?

A) Clinical trials, surveys, and experiments
B) Kinship studies, twin studies, and adoption studies
C) Observation, interviews, and case studies
D) Genetic engineering, DNA sequencing, and brain scans

A

B

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35
Q

WEEK 2 What is epigenetics?

A) The study of genetic inheritance
B) The study of changes in phenotype or gene expression caused by mechanisms other than changes in the underlying DNA sequence
C) The study of how genes are passed from parents to offspring
D) The study of genetic mutations

A

B

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36
Q

WEEK 2 How can environmental events affect genes?

A) By changing the DNA sequence
B) By turning genes on or off
C) By completely eliminating genes
D) By increasing the number of genes

A

B

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37
Q

What is a phenotype?

A) The genetic makeup of an organism
B) The physical appearance or expression of a gene
C) The process by which genes are inherited
D) The environment in which an organism lives

A

B

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38
Q

What is meant by “genes do not complete their work before birth”?

A) Genes are only active during embryonic development
B) Genes continue to be influenced and expressed throughout an individual’s lifespan
C) Genes are inactive until birth
D) Genes are fully expressed only in adulthood

A

B

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39
Q

Which type of gene-environment correlation occurs when a child passively receives correlated genes and environment from their parents?

A) Active (niche-picking)
B) Evocative
C) Passive
D) Reactive

A

C

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40
Q

Which type of gene-environment correlation involves a child eliciting reactions from parents that provide environments correlated with the child’s genes?

A) Active (niche-picking)
B) Evocative
C) Passive
D) Reactive

A

B

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41
Q

WEEK 2 Which type of gene-environment correlation involves a child’s genes leading them to actively seek out correlated environmental experiences?

A) Active (niche-picking)
B) Evocative
C) Passive
D) Reactive

A

A

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42
Q

WEEK 2 What is the important question regarding heredity and environment interactions?

A) How much is explained by genes vs environment?
B) How do heredity and environment work together?
C) How many genes are inherited from each parent?
D) How do environmental factors influence DNA sequences?

A

B

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43
Q

WEEK 2 An example of passive gene-environment correlation is:

A) A child with musical parents receiving both musical genes and a musical environment
B) Parents noticing musical ability in a child and providing musical input
C) A child seeking out a conservatorium for high school
D) A child saving money for music lessons

A

A

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44
Q

WEEK 2 An example of evocative gene-environment correlation is:

A) A child with musical parents receiving both musical genes and a musical environment
B) Parents noticing musical ability in a child and providing musical input
C) A child seeking out a conservatorium for high school
D) A child saving money for music lessons

A

B

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45
Q

WEEK 2 Which of the following is a maternal chronic illness that can affect prenatal development?

A) Diabetes
B) Asthma
C) Arthritis
D) Flu

A

A

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46
Q

WEEK 2 What is a teratogen?

A) A genetic mutation
B) An agent that causes a birth defect
C) A prenatal vitamin
D) A type of ultrasound

A

B

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47
Q

WEEK 2 At what stage does the fetus establish daily circadian rhythms?

A) 12 weeks
B) 14 weeks
C) 24 weeks
D) 28 weeks

A

D

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48
Q

WEEK 2 What is the significance of the age of the mother or father at the time of conception?

A) It determines the gender of the baby
B) It influences the risk of genetic mutations
C) It affects the length of the pregnancy
D) It impacts the baby’s weight at birth

A

B

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49
Q

WEEK 2 Which period is known as the most rapid period of development in prenatal stages?

A) Germinal period
B) Embryonic period
C) Fetal period
D) Postnatal period

A

B

50
Q

WEEK 2 Which environmental hazard is known to be a teratogen?

A) Clean water
B) Fresh air
C) Radiation
D) Healthy diet

A

C

51
Q

WEEK 2 Which substance is NOT considered a teratogen?

A) Alcohol
B) Tobacco
C) Caffeine
D) Illicit drugs

A

C

52
Q

WEEK 2 What is one of the health-promoting behaviors for pregnant women?

A) Smoking
B) Drinking alcohol
C) Relaxation
D) Skipping meals

A

C

53
Q

WEEK 2 At what stage of prenatal development does implantation occur?

A) Germinal period
B) Embryonic period
C) Fetal period
D) Postnatal period

A

A

54
Q

WEEK 2 What is the concept of fetal attachment?

A) Establishing a relationship with the fetus through behaviors
B) Taking prenatal vitamins
C) Avoiding ultrasound scans
D) Ignoring the unborn baby

A

A

55
Q

WEEK 2 Which phase of prenatal development is characterized by the formation of the placenta?

A) Germinal period
B) Embryonic period
C) Fetal period
D) Postnatal period

A

B

56
Q

WEEK 2 How can prenatal stress impact fetal development?

A) Decreases blood flow to the uterus, impacting fetal growth
B) Enhances fetal growth
C) Has no effect on fetal development
D) Reduces maternal heart rate

A

A

57
Q

WEEK 2 WHAT IS BARKERS HYPOTHESIS

A

The Barker hypothesis implicates the fetal in-utero environment as a significant determinant of risk for major chronic diseases, such as cardiovascular disease, stroke, anxiety, hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and obesity later in life.

58
Q

WEEK 2 WHAT IS HABITUATION?

A

the diminishing of an innate response to a frequently repeated stimulus.
“habituation was leading to a marked drop in arousal level in these subjects”

59
Q

WEEK 3 Question: What are the three stages of labour in the birth process?

A

The three stages of labor are:

1st Stage: Contractions of the uterus to dilate the cervix.
2nd Stage: Pushing the baby through the birth canal, also known as “crowning.”
3rd Stage: Expelling the placenta.

60
Q

WEEK 3 What is the rate of Caesarean delivery in Australia, and how does it compare to New Zealand?

A

Australia has the highest rate of Caesarean delivery in the world, with 32% of all births being Caesarean, compared to 20% in New Zealand.

61
Q

WEEK 3 What are some birth risks to the infant?

A

Some birth risks to the infant include:

Prematurity: Baby born before lungs and sucking are fully mature.
Hypoxia: Caused by labour complications such as “failure to progress” or posterior presentation.

62
Q

WEEK 3 How do contractions and expulsion during childbirth affect the baby?

A

Contractions and expulsion during childbirth cause moderate stress, which stimulates the baby’s respiratory function. However, complications such as anoxia can occur if there is a cord tangle or if the baby’s position is problematic.

63
Q

WEEK 3 What are the effects of maternal pain relief drugs during labor on the infant?

A

Maternal pain relief drugs, such as morphine derivatives, can have a sedative effect on the infant’s respiratory function. Additionally, maternal distress and high blood pressure during childbirth can affect the baby’s heart rate.

64
Q

WEEK 3 What is a common outcome of using epidural anaesthesia during childbirth?

A

The use of epidural anaesthesia often results in the mother not actively pushing the baby out, which increases the likelihood of an instrumental delivery.

65
Q

WEEK 3 What are some early caretaking practices for newborns?

A

Early caretaking practices for newborns include co-sleeping or rooming in with the parents versus placing the baby in nurseries.

66
Q

WEEK 3 What does the APGAR test assess in newborns?

A

The APGAR test assesses the following in newborns:

Appearance (skin color)
Pulse (heart rate)
Grimace response (reflexes)
Activity (muscle tone)
Respiration (breathing rate and effort)

67
Q

WEEK 3 Identifying at risk newborns, list the physical risks:

A

Physical Risk Factors:
Prematurity
Low birth weight
-Linked to low SES
-Quality of nutrition, smoking/drugs in pregnancy, access to antenatal care & education
-Linked to multiple birth
Respiratory Distress – anoxia

68
Q

WEEK 3 Which of the following is an example of a risk factor within the child or environment that can stress or impair adaptive functioning?

A) Supportive parenting
B) Good schools
C) Difficult temperament
D) Economic advantage

A

C

69
Q

WEEK 3 According to the Cumulative Stress Model, when do problem outcomes occur?

A) When a single major stressor is present
B) When stressors are mitigated by protective factors
C) When stressors add together and exceed a threshold
D) When there are no stressors present

A

C

70
Q

WEEK 3 What does ontogenic development refer to?

A) Community and family support
B) An individual’s biological characteristics and developmental history
C) Socioeconomic status
D) Availability of good schools

A

B

71
Q

WEEK 3 Which of the following is considered a protective factor that can reduce the negative impact of stressors?

A) Postnatal depression in a parent
B) Mental illness in a parent
C) Early discharge from the hospital
D) Supportive responsive parenting

A

D

72
Q

WEEK 3 What does the Additive Main Effects Model suggest about developmental outcomes?

A) They are solely the result of stressors
B) They are solely the result of protective factors
C) They result from the combined effects of stressors and protective factors
D) They are not influenced by stressors or protective factors

A

C

73
Q

WEEK 3 What does sensorimotor integration refer to?
A) The suppression of sensory inputs
B) The combination of sensory inputs with motor outputs
C) The separation of motor control from sensory feedback
D) The automatic generation of motor outputs without sensory input

A

Answer: B) The combination of sensory inputs with motor outputs

74
Q

WEEK 3 Reflexes in early development are primarily:
A) Voluntary responses to stimuli
B) Automatic, involuntary, stereotyped responses to external stimulation
C) Complex, learned behaviors
D) Always permanent and never superseded by voluntary control

A

Answer: B) Automatic, involuntary, stereotyped responses to external stimulation

75
Q

WEEK 3 By what age are most primitive reflexes integrated?
A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 9 months
D) 12 months

A

B

76
Q

WEEK 3 Which developmental principle describes the progression from gross (global) to fine (differentiated) motor skills?
A) Cephalocaudal
B) Proximo-distal
C) Ortho-genetic
D) Gross-to-Fine Principle

A

C

77
Q

WEEK 3 The principle of cephalocaudal development refers to:
A) Development from head to feet
B) Development from feet to head
C) Development from core to extremities
D) Development from fine to gross motor skills

A

A

78
Q

WEEK 3 What does proximo-distal development refer to?
A) Development from gross to fine motor skills
B) Development from the head down to the toes
C) Development from the core to the extremities
D) Development of reflexes into voluntary movements

A

C

79
Q

WEEK 3 What is the significance of head control in prone position in motor development?
A) It indicates advanced fine motor skills
B) It is an early gross motor milestone
C) It is not related to gross motor milestones
D) It only occurs after a child begins to walk

A

B

80
Q

WEEK 3 Why is floor time important for a child’s development?
A) It helps develop fine motor skills only
B) It is irrelevant to motor development
C) It supports gross motor milestones like propping and crawling
D) It restricts motor development by limiting movement

A

C

81
Q

WEEK 3 What underpins fine motor development according to the information provided?
A) Head control alone
B) Postural stability and core strength
C) Reflex integration only
D) Sensory inputs without motor outputs

A

B

82
Q

WEEK 3 What motor milestone is typically achieved by age 3?
A) Walking
B) Running, standing on one leg, hopping
C) Rolling over
D) Walking backwards and changing direction quickly

A

B

83
Q

WEEK 3 How do grasp reflexes progress in motor development?
A) From voluntary to reflexive
B) From fine to gross
C) From gross to fine, with voluntary release
D) They remain reflexive throughout life

A

C

84
Q

WEEK 3 How does practice and environment affect motor development?
A) They do not have any effect on motor development
B) They influence the timing of motor milestone achievement
C) They completely determine motor development
D) They only affect motor development in extreme cases

A

B

85
Q

WEEK 3 What does intermodal (cross-modal) perception involve?
A) Combining different sensations to inform perceptions
B) Ignoring all sensory inputs to focus on motor tasks
C) Separating sensory inputs for more refined perception
D) Using only visual input for motor development

A

A

86
Q

WEEK 3 Why is vision considered fundamental in motor development?
A) It is the only sensory process involved in motor development
B) It underpins postural reflexes and motor coordination
C) It is irrelevant to motor development
D) It only becomes important after infancy

A

B

87
Q

WEEK 3 What is the purpose of early intervention in motor development?
A) To accelerate natural motor development
B) To provide compensatory activities for children with developmental motor problems
C) To replace sensory inputs with motor outputs
D) To prevent any motor development issues from arising

A

B

88
Q

WEEK 3 At what age do neonates typically show a preference for their mother’s voice?
A) 1 day after birth
B) 4 days after birth
C) 2 weeks after birth
D) 1 month after birth

A

B

89
Q

WEEK 3 The “Cat in the Hat” study demonstrated that:
A) Infants cannot recognize familiar stories
B) Newborns are indifferent to their mother’s voice
C) Fetuses can recognize stories heard during pregnancy
D) Infants prefer unfamiliar stories

A

C

90
Q

WEEK 3 By what age can infants discriminate pitch, tempo, contour, rhythm, and melody in music?
A) 3 months
B) 6 months
C) 9 months
D) 12 months

A

B

91
Q

WEEK 3 The “Pa… Ba” experiment is used to study:
A) Phoneme discrimination in infants
B) Sound localization in newborns
C) Music preference in infants
D) Speech production in toddlers

A

A

92
Q

WEEK 3 What is true about newborns’ ability to localize sounds?
A) Newborns cannot localize sounds
B) Newborns only localize high-pitched sounds
C) Newborns can localize sounds from birth
D) Sound localization develops after 6 months

A

C

93
Q

WEEK 3 What do newborns prefer in terms of sound?
A) Random noise
B) High-pitched, patterned sounds similar to human voices
C) Low-pitched noises
D) Silence

A

B

94
Q

WEEK 3 At what age do infants begin to distinguish between different sounds?
A) 1 month
B) 3 months
C) 6 months
D) 12 months

A

A

95
Q

WEEK 3 What is true about newborns’ sense of smell (olfaction)?
A) Newborns have poor olfactory perception
B) Newborns prefer unfamiliar smells
C) Newborns have highly acute olfaction
D) Newborns cannot distinguish between different smells

A

C

96
Q

WEEK 3 Which taste does a newborn infant typically express satisfaction with?
A) Bitter
B) Sour
C) Sweet
D) Salty

A

C

97
Q

WEEK 3 By 6 days old, how do infants respond to their mother’s breast pad compared to another’s?
A) They show no preference
B) They turn away from their mother’s breast pad
C) They turn towards their own mother’s breast pad
D) They randomly turn to any breast pad

A

C

98
Q

WEEK 3 What type of facial expression do newborns typically show when they taste something sour?
A) Smile and satisfaction
B) Lip-pursing, nose wrinkling, and eye blinking
C) Neutral expression
D) Wide-open mouth and excitement

A

B

99
Q

WEEK 3 How do newborns typically respond to bitter tastes?
A) With a smile
B) By sucking eagerly
C) With expressions of dislike and vomiting movements
D) By showing no reaction

A

C

100
Q

WEEK 3 At what age does manual tactile exploration begin to develop in infants?
A) At birth
B) By 2 months
C) By 4 months
D) By 6 months

A

C

101
Q

WEEK 3 What did Rebecca Slater’s research suggest about infants’ perception of pain?
A) Infants do not feel pain
B) Infants feel less pain than adults
C) Infants feel pain, and their threshold may be lower than adults
D) Infants’ pain threshold is the same as adults

A

C

102
Q

WEEK 3 What type of interaction do infants engage in to explore their environment?
A) Only visual exploration
B) Only auditory exploration
C) A combination of oral, tactile, and visual exploration
D) Only motor exploration

A

C

103
Q

WEEK 3 The classic pacifier experiment demonstrated that infants can:
A) Only recognize objects by sight
B) Match objects they have mouthed with visual images
C) Ignore tactile input when presented with visual stimuli
D) Distinguish objects only by sound

A

B

104
Q

WEEK 3 What is the function of crying in infants?
A) To communicate discomfort or need
B) To practice vocalization
C) To avoid interaction
D) To regulate sleep patterns

A

A

105
Q

WEEK 3 What is a key developmental task in the first three months related to sleep?
A) Walking independently
B) Developing a preference for daytime sleep
C) Establishing an organized sleep-wake pattern
D) Learning to sleep without interruptions

A

C

106
Q

WEEK 3 How do young infants’ sleep patterns change as they develop?
A) They start sleeping more during the day
B) REM sleep decreases as they develop
C) They sleep less at night as they grow
D) Their sleep patterns remain the same

A

B

107
Q

WEEK 3 What is the function of adults’ stylized voices and facial expressions when interacting with babies?
A) To confuse infants
B) To entertain themselves
C) To regulate and enhance communication with infants
D) To distract infants from crying

A

C

108
Q

WEEK 3 What is a common feature of adults’ speech when talking to infants?
A) Monotone voice
B) Slow speed with exaggerated pitch and loudness changes
C) Fast and complex speech
D) Minimal facial expressions

A

B

109
Q

WEEK 3 Peek-a-boo games played with babies are believed to:
A) Have no effect on development
B) Only provide entertainment
C) Strengthen visual tracking and promote social development
D) Discourage object permanence understanding

A

C

110
Q

WEEK 3 Synchronised interactions between adults and infants serve to:
A) Overstimulate the infant
B) Disorganize the infant’s behaviour
C) Elicit infant attention and aid in behaviour organization
D) Encourage independent behaviour from infancy

A

C

111
Q

WEEK 3 What is affect attunement in parent-infant interaction?
A) Mimicking the infant’s behavior exactly
B) Matching the quality of a shared affect state without imitating the exact behavior
C) Ignoring the infant’s affective state
D) Overloading the infant with different emotions

A

B

112
Q

WEEK 3 What is the purpose of turn-taking and reciprocity in infant communication?
A) To delay communication development
B) To allow infants to control the interaction
C) To structure and organize communication between mother and infant
D) To prevent infants from understanding language

A

C

113
Q

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115
Q

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Q

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117
Q

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118
Q

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Q

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120
Q

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A
121
Q

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A

Psychology (11 decks)

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