Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Endocrinology > Psychiatry > Flashcards

Psychiatry Flashcards

1
Q

What are the three classes of personality disorder?

A

A - odd (paranoid, schizoid)
B - dramatic (histrionic, emotionally unstable, dissocial)
C - anankastic, dependent, anxious

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q 
List which antidepressants are associated with the following risks:
•	Drug Interaction
•	Discontinuation Symptoms
•	Death from Overdose
•	Overdose
•	Stopping treatment due to side-effects
•	Blood Pressure Monitoring Needed
•	Worsening Hypertension
•	Postural Hypotension and Arrhythmia
A
  • Drug Interaction: fluoxetine, fluvoxamine, paroxetine
  • Discontinuation Symptoms: paroxetine
  • Death from Overdose: venlafaxine
  • Overdose: TCAs (except lofepramine)
  • Stopping treatment due to side-effects: venlafaxine, duloxetine, TCAs
  • Blood Pressure Monitoring Needed: venlafaxine
  • Worsening Hypertension: venlafaxine, duloxetine
  • Postural Hypotension and Arrhythmia: TCA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How often should a patient with newly diagnosed depression be followed-up after starting an antidepressant?

A

Review after 2 weeks (if no particular risk of suicide), then every 2-4 weeks thereafter for 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which low-intensity psychotherapies may be offered to patient with mild-to-moderate depression?

A

Individual-guided self-help based on the principles of CBT
Computerised CBT
Structured group physical activity programme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Who should be offered group CBT?

A

Individuals with mild-to-moderate depression who decline low intensity psychological therapies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which high-intensity psychological therapies may be offered to patients with moderate-to-severe depression?

A

Individual CBT

Interpersonal Therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Transitions between which antidepressants must you be particularly careful with?

A

 From fluoxetine to other antidepressants (as fluoxetine has a long half-life)
 From fluoxetine or paroxetine to a TCA (both drugs inhibit TCA metabolism so a lower starting dose may be needed)
 To a new serotoninergic antidepressant or MAOI (because of risk of serotonin syndrome)
 From non-reversible MAOI: a 2-week washout period is required (other antidepressants should not be prescribed during this period)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Briefly outline the step by step pharmacological management for depression.

A

STEP 1: SSRI (e.g. sertraline)
STEP 2: Taper down SSRI, start SNRI (e.g. venlafaxine)
STEP 3: Add augmentation - either atypical antipsychotics (e.g. quetiapine) or another antidepressant (e.g. mirtazapine)
STEP 4: ECT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Over what period of time should antidepressants be stopped?

A

4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What needs to be monitored after a patient is started on lithium and how regularly should this happen?

A

Lithium levels - at 1 week after starting, then weekly until therapeutic level is reached. Then every 3 months (12 hours post dose).
U&E - every 3 months
TFTs - every 6 months
Creatinine clearance - annually

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which mood stabiliser does not need monitoring of drug levels?

A

Sodium valproate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How soon after an episode of self-harm should the patient be followed-up?

A

1 week

This can be in outpatient clinic, CMHT, GP or counsellor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which psychological therapies for patients who have self-harmed?

A

CBT
Mentalisation-based therapy
Transference-focused psychotherapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are some coping strategies that can be used for patients with thoughts of self-harm?

A

Distraction techniques
Mood-raising activities (e.g. exercise)
Prevention of self-harm (put tablets and sharp objects away, stay in public places with supportive people, call a friend/support line, avoid drugs and alcohol)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which service should be involved in the care of a young person with first episode psychosis?

A

Early intervention service (EIS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which receptors are blocked by typical and atypical antipsychotics?

A 
Typical = dopamine (D2) 
Atypical = dopamine and 5HT2
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which antipsychotics are particularly associated with weight gain?

A

Olanzapine and clozapine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the main aim of CBT in schizophrenia?

A

Emphasis on reality testing

Encourage the patient to think about evidence and alternative explanations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which forms of psychological therapy may be useful in schizophrenia?

A

CBT (for all patients)
Family therapy (particularly useful if high expressed emotion)
Concordance therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which social aspects of a patient with schizophrenia require management?

A 
Social skill training 
Education, training and employment 
Skills (e.g. cooking, budgeting) 
Housing 
Accessing social activities 
Developing personal skills (e.g. creative writing)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is treatment resistance schizophrenia?

A

Failure to respond to two or more antipsychotics, at least one of which is atypical, each given at a therapeutic dose for at least 6 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How is schizoaffective disorder treated?

A

Same treatment as schizophrenia

You may add a mood stabiliser or antidepressant for the affective component

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which investigations are used in neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

CK (high)

WCC (high)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

How is neuroleptic malignant syndrome managed?

A

Stop antipsychotics immediately
Get urgent medical treatment (usually ITU)
Treat hyperthermia (cooling blankets, ice packs)
Dantrolene may be used for muscle rigidity
Benzodiazepines may be necessary for agitation
High myoglobin can cause AKI (IV fluids and dialysis may be required)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How should delirium tremens be managed?

A 
Reducing benzodiazepine (chlordiazepoxide) regime 
IV pabrinex

NOTE: lorazepam may be used in hepatic failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the stages of change model?

A 
Pre-contemplation
Contemplation 
Preparation 
Action 
Maintenance 
Relapse
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Where can detoxification for alcohol be given?

A

Inpatient detox

Community detox

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are some psychological therapy options for alcohol abuse?

A

CBT
Problem-solving therapies
Group therapy (alcoholics anonymous)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are some medical management options for preventing relapse in alcohol abuse?

A

Acamprosate (anti-craving)

Disulfiram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What do rehabilitation programmes for alcohol-abuse involve?

A

May be residential or day programmes
Allow a break for people submerged in a drinking community
May be skills-based courses to help find employment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What are some harm reduction approaches that are used for opiate misuse?

A

Needle exchange

Vaccination and testing for blood-borne viruses for sex-workers and IVDU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which agents may be used as substitutes in opiate misuse?

A

Methadone (liquid) or buprenorphine (sublingual tablet)

NOTE: these are taken in a supervised environment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which medication can be used to prevent relapse in patients with opiate misuse?

A

Naltrexone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Outline the behavioural management approach for delirium.

A

Frequent reorientation (clocks, calendars)
Good lighting
Address sensory problems (e.g. hearing aids)
Minimise change (don’t keep moving the patient, one staff member per shift, establish routine)
Allow safe and supervised wandering

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Which agent is often used for rapid tranquillisation of an agitated patient?

A

Lorazepam

Alternative: olanzapine, haloperidol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How can normal pressure hydrocephalus be treated?

A

Ventriculoperitoneal shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is a particularly important aspect of the management of depression in the elderly?

A

Problem-solving

Increased socialisation and day-time activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the main risks of using antipsychotics in the elderly?

A

Stroke and VTE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

List some environmental adaptations that can be recommended for a patient with dementia.

A

Always carry ID, address and contact number in case they get lost
Dossett boxes/blister packs to aid medication compliance
Change gas to electricity
Reality orientation (visible clocks, calendars)
Environmental modifications (e.g. patterned carpets can predispose to hallucinations)
Assistive technology (e.g. door mat buzzers)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which psychological therapies are available for patients with dementia?

A

Reminiscence therapy
Validation therapy
Multisensory therapy
Cognitive stimulation therapy (memory training)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the main pharmacological treatment option for patients with dementia?

A

Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors (e.g. donepezil, rivastigmine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Give an example of an anxiety disorder that is treated with exposure therapy.

A

Agoraphobia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What are the steps in the management of generalised anxiety disorder?

A

1) education about GAD + active monitoring
2) low-intensity psychological intervention (individual non-facilitated self-help or individual-guided self-help or psychoeducational groups)
3) high-intensity psychological intervention (CBT or applied relaxation) or drug treatment
4) highly specialist input

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the first-line SSRI used for generalised anxiety disorder?

A

Sertraline

Paroxetine is the only licensed SSRI for GAD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are the steps in the pharmacological management of generalised anxiety disorder?

A

1) SSRI
2) switch to SNRI
3) Add pregabalin
4) consider quetiapine (not licensed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the management options for panic disorder?

A

CBT and SSRI

Offer TCA (e.g. clomipramine, imipramine) if SSRI is contraindicated or no response after 12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the main approaches to managing OCD?

A

CBT (exposure and response prevention)
SSRIs (most commonly fluoxetine)
2nd line: SNRI
3rd line: add atypical antipsychotic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are two psychological therapies that are used to treat PTSD?

A

Trauma Focused CBT

EMDR (eye movement desensitisation and reprocessing)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Which pharmacological treatments may be used in PTSD?

A

SSRIs (paroxetine and mirtazapine)

NOTE: mirtazapine is good if they are having problems getting to sleep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the aspects of management of medically unexplained symptoms?

A 
Reattribution model 
Avoid unnecessary investigations 
Emotional support 
Antidepressants 
CBT 
Graded exercise
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are some management options for chronic fatigue syndrome?

A 
Graded exercise (scheduled and gradually increasing activity) 
CBT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

How are conversion disorders managed?

A

Encourage a return to normal activities and avoid reinforcing symptoms
Provide support for addressing stressors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What is the main difference between anorexia nervosa and bulimia nervosa?

A

Anorexia nervosa BMI < 17.5 or weight loss of > 15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

List some psychotherapy options that may be used for anorexia nervosa.

A

Eating Disorder CBT
Specialist Supportive Clinical Management (SSCM)
Maudsley Anorexia Nervosa Treatment for Adults (MANTRA)
Family Therapy (best for children)
Interpersonal Therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Which SSRI would be best to use in anorexia nervosa?

A

Fluoxetine (stable in terms of weight)

NOTE: you don’t want to give these patients anything that will make them gain weight too rapidly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What is interpersonal therapy?

A

Examines how the patient interacts with other people and teaches social skills and improves social functioning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which class of drugs may be beneficial in bulimia nervosa and why?

A

SSRIs (e.g. high-dose fluoxetine)

Improves impulse control and reduces bingeing/purging behaviour

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which treatment option is best for children with eating disorders?

A

Family therapy (eating disorder-focused)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are some treatment options for low libido?

A

Sensate Focus Therapy (ban intercourse, then progress to genital caressing and eventually intercourse)
Timetabling sex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

List some physical/pharmacological treatments for erectile dysfunction.

A

Sildenafil
Intracavernosal prostaglandin self-injection
Vacuum pumps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

How is postnatal depression managed?

A

Same as normal depression (CBT + SSRI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Which SSRIs are recommended for postnatal depression?

A

Sertraline and paroxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

If a patient with postnatal depression required admission, where should she be admitted?

A

Mother and Baby Unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

How is puerperal psychosis treated?

A

Antipsychotics
ECT may be required if severe
Admission to a mother and baby unit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How long does postnatal depression and puerperal psychosis usually take to recover?

A

Depression: 1 month
Psychosis: 6-12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which mood stabiliser is considered safest to use in pregnancy?

A

Lamotrigine

Lithium –> Ebstein anomaly
Valproate and Carbamazepine –> NTD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are the aspects of management of learning disabilities?

A

Treat physical comorbidity
Treat psychological comorbidity
Statement of Special Educational Needs (maximise potential)
Psychological therapy (group therapy, counselling)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Outline the aspects of managing autism spectrum disorder.

A

Support and advice for families (National Autistic Society)
Behaviour therapy
Speech and language therapy
Special education
Treat comorbid problems (e.g. epilepsy)
Antipsychotics and mood stabilisers are occasionally used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

How is Asperger’s syndrome managed?

A

Advice and support

Social skills training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How is depression in children managed?

A

CBT

Antidepressants (fluoxetine) may be used in severe cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

How are anxiety disorders in children managed?

A

Psychological therapies (CBT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Which investigations may be used for ADHD?

A

Questionnaires (Conner’s Rating Scale)
Classroom observation
Educational psychological assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Which medications may be used for ADHD?

A

Methylphenidate, lisdexamphetamine

Atomoxetine (non-stimulant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are some side-effects of drugs used in ADHD?

A 
Insomnia 
Reduced appetite (and growth)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are the aspects of managing conduct disorder?

A 
Family education 
Family therapy (take a problem-solving approach) 
Parent management training 
Educational support 
Anger management for children
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are the aspects of managing tic disorders?

A 
Reassure and stress management 
Habit reversal training
Exposure and response prevention
Clonidine (alpha-2 agonist) 
Haloperidol (antipsychotic)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the treatment approaches for emotionally unstable personality disorder?

A 
Dialectical behavioural therapy 
Mentalisation-based therapy 
Therapeutic communities 
Arts therapy 
Transference focused therapy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

List some side-effects of SSRIs.

A

GI upset
GI bleeding (if using NSAIDs, give with a PPI)
Increased anxiety/agitation soon after starting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which SSRIs have a high propensity for drug interactions?

A

Fluoxetine and paroxetine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which SSRIs are associated with a dose-dependent increase in QTc?

A

Citalopram

Escitalopram

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Which drugs should not be used with SSRIs?

A

Warfarin
Triptans
MAOI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Outline the risks of SSRIs in pregnancy.

A

1st trimester: congenital heart defects
3rd trimester: persistent pulmonary hypertension

Paroxetine has an increased risk particularly in the 1st trimester
Sertraline, fluoxetine and citalopram are generally considered safe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

How is acute dystonia treated?

A

Procyclidine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

How is tardive dyskinesia treatad?

A

Tetrabenzene

85
Q

What are the symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Pyrexia

Muscle stiffness

86
Q

Give some examples of TCAs that causes high sedation and low sedation.

A

High Sedation: amitriptyline, clomipramine, dosulepin, trazadone
Low Sedation: imipramine, lofepramine, nortriptyline

87
Q

Which SSRI has a long half-life?

A

Fluoxetine

88
Q

Describe how you should switch from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline or paroxetine to another SSRI.

A

First should be withdrawn before the alternative is started

89
Q

Describe how you should switch from fluoxetine to another SSRI.

A

Withdraw then leave a gap of 4-7 days (fluoxetine has a long half-life) before starting a low-dose of the new SSRI

90
Q

Describe how you should switch from SSRI to a TCA.

A

Cross-taper

Except with fluoxetine (withdraw completely before starting TCA)

91
Q

Describe how you should switch from citalopram, escitalopram, sertraline or paroxetine to venlafaxine.

A

Cross-taper cautiously (starting on 37.5 mg OD venlafaxine and tapering upwards slowly)

92
Q

Describe how you would switch from fluoxetine to venlfaxine.

A

Withdraw then start venlafaxine at 37.5 mg OD and increase very slowly

93
Q

List some side-effects of clozapine.

A
  • Agranulocytosis, neutropaenia
  • Reduced seizure threshold
  • Constipation
  • Myocarditis (baseline ECG should be taken before starting treatment)
  • Hypersalivation
94
Q

List some side-effects of lithium.

A

o Nausea/vomiting and diarrhoea
o Fine tremor
o Nephrotoxicity: polyuria (secondary to nephrogenic DI)
o Thyroid enlargement (and hypothyroidism)
o ECG: T wave flattening/inversion
o Weight gain
o Idiopathic intracranial hypertension

95
Q

How is the MMSE score interpreted?

A

24 or more = normal
18-23 = mild
10-17 = moderate
< 9 = severe

NOTE: raw score should be corrected based on educational attainment and age

96
Q

What is the maximum score for a MoCA and what score would warrant further cognitive assessment?

A

Max = 30

Refer for further assessment if 25 or less

97
Q

What counts as mild, moderate and severe depression?

A

Mild
• 2 or 3 core symptoms
• At least 2 other symptoms
• The patient is distressed about the symptoms but can still continue with most activities
Moderate
• 2 or 3 core symptoms
• At least 3 or 4 other symptoms
• The patient has considerable difficulty continuing with ordinary activities and social functioning
Severe
• All 3 core symptoms
• At least 4 other symptoms, some of which are intense
• Major impact on quality of life and social functioning
• May show distress and/or agitation

NOTE: All symptoms must be present for at least 2 weeks

98
Q

Outline how the PHQ-9 is interpreted.

A 
9 questions each worth 3 points 
	None: 0-4
	Mild: 5-9
	Moderate: 10-14
	Moderately Severe: 15-19
	Severe: 20-27
99
Q

Outline the interpretation of the HAD.

A

7 questions for anxiety and 7 for depression (maximum 21 points for each)
 Normal: 0-7
 Borderline: 8-10
 Anxiety/Depression: 11-14

100
Q

Outline how the GAD7 is interpreted.

A 
Asks about 7 questions and their frequency
	Mild: 5-10
	Moderate: 10-15
	Severe: 15+ 
	Maximum = 21

NOTE: it can also be used for PTSD, panic disorder and social anxiety

101
Q

List some screening tools used for alcohol misuse.

A

CAGE

Alcohol Use Disorders Identification Test (AUDIT)

102
Q

Name a tool used to assess the severity of alcohol withdrawal.

A

Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol (CIWA-Ar)

103
Q

List some indications for ECT.

A

Catatonia
Prolonged or severe manic episode
Severe depression that is life-threatening

104
Q

What criteria must be fulfilled for a diagnosis of chronic insomnia?

A

Diagnosed if a person has trouble falling asleep or staying asleep at least 3 nights per week for 3 months

105
Q

What required monitoring during clozapine treatment and how regularly?

A 
FBC
o	Weekly for 18 weeks
o	Then every 2 weeks up to 1 year 
o	Then monthly 
Lipids and Weight
o	Baseline 
o	Every 3 months for 1 year  
o	Annually 
Fasting BM
o	Baseline
o	1 month
o	Every 4-6 months 
Prolactin
o	Baseline 
o	6 months 
o	Annually 
U&amp;E and LFT
o	At the start of therapy 
o	Annual 
Blood Pressure
o	Baseline 
o	Frequently during dose titration 
ECG
o	Baseline 
Cardiovascular Risk Assessment
o	Annually
106
Q

What should be done if a clozapine dose is missed for > 48 hours?

A

The dose should be carefully retitrated up (as if starting therapy from scratch)

107
Q

What is applied relaxation therapy?

A

Used for anxiety disorders
Teaches patients how to spot the signs of tension, relax their muscles to relieve tension and apply these techniques to stressful situations
12-15 weekly sessions

108
Q

What is mentalisation-based therapy?

A

Used for emotionally unstable personality disorder and self-harm
Teaches how to take a step back and assess their mental state and the mental state of others

109
Q

List some symptoms of serotonin syndrome.

A 
Fever 
Agitation 
Hyperreflexia
Tremor 
Sweating 
Dilated pupils 
Diarrhoea
110
Q

What are the components of an AMTS?

A

How old are you?
What is the time to the nearest hour?
Give an address and ask them to recall it at the end
What is the year?
What is the name of the hospital or place you are currently at?
Can you recognise two people (doctor and nurse)?
What is your date of birth (day and month)?
In which year did WW2 begin?
Name the current prime minister.
Count backwards from 20 to 1

111
Q

According to DSM-V, how long do symptoms last in acute stress reactions?

A

At least 3 days

Should disappear within 1 month

112
Q

How long do symptoms of generalised anxiety disorder have to last in order to be diagnostic?

113
Q

How long do symptoms of PTSD have to last to be diagnostic?

114
Q

What are the criteria for diagnosing ADHD?

A

Age 6-12 years
Occurring in > 1 environment
Clear evidence of academic or social problems
Duration of at least 6 months

115
Q

By what age does autism start to impair function/manifest as abnormal development?

116
Q

When does postnatal depression occur?

A

From anytime during pregnancy to within 1 year of delivery

117
Q

What are the criteria for diagnosis of bipolar I disorder?

A

At least one manic episode

Depressive episodes are common but not necessary to make the diagnosis

118
Q

What are the criteria for diagnosis of bipolar II disorder?

A

At least one hypomanic episode (lasting at least 4 days)

At least one major depressive episode

119
Q

How long do features of conduct disorder need to occur to be diagnostic?

120
Q

How long do symptoms of depression need to be present to be diagnostic?

121
Q

Outline the classification of learning disability based on IQ.

A

o 50-70 = Mild
o 35-49 = Moderate
o 20-34 = Severe
o < 20 = Profound

122
Q

Which features distinguish personality disorders from personality traits?

A

Pervasive: occurs in all/most areas of life
Persistent: evident in adolescence and continues through adulthood
Pathological: causes distress to self or others, impairs function

123
Q

What are the two main subtypes of emotionally unstable personality disorder?

A

Impulsive: characterised predominantly by emotional instability and lack of impulse control
Borderline: characterised by disturbances in self-image, aims and internal preferences. Chronic feelings of emptiness, unstable interpersonal relationships and a tendency to self-destructive behaviour (including suicide gestures and attempts).

124
Q

According to DSM-V, how long do psychotic symptoms need to be present to diagnose schizophrenia?

A

At least two diagnostic criteria present over much of the time for > 1 month
Significant impact on social and occupational functioning for > 6 months

NOTE: disorder lasting 1-6 months is schizophreniform disorder

125
Q

According to DSM-V, how long do psychotic symptoms in schizoaffective disorder need to last to be diagnostic?

A

Psychosis must be sustained for > 2 weeks without affective symptoms
Requires 2 episodes of psychosis to qualify: 1 without affective symptoms, 1 with affective symptoms

126
Q

What are the defining features of dependence syndrome?

A

Craving
Control (difficulties controlling use)
Persistent Use (despite knowledge of harmful consequences)
Priority (higher priority given to drug use than other normal activities)
Tolerance (increased)
Withdrawal

127
Q

Define somatisation disorder.

A

• The main features are multiple, recurrent and frequently changing physical symptoms of at least 2 YEARS duration.

NOTE: if it has been going on for < 2 years, it is an undifferentiated somatoform disorder

128
Q

How long should SSRIs be used for in a patient with depression?

A

Until 6 months after the patient’s depression has ended

This can be extended to 1 year for elderly patients

129
Q

What advice should you provide to a patient who is being started on SSRIs?

A
  • Can cause hyponatraemia
  • Can cause reduced libido/sexual dysfunction
  • Lower seizure threshold (careful in epilepsy)
  • Avoid in mania or hypomania
  • Do not drink alcohol (increased sedation)
  • Never drive if feeling drowsy on antidepressants
  • Explain that the onset of action is delayed
130
Q

List the side-effects of SNRIs.

A

Constipation
Hypertension
Raised cholesterol

They also have all the SSRI side-effects

131
Q

List some side-effects of TCAs.

A 
	Tachycardia, arrhythmias 
	Dry mouth 
	Blurred vision 
	Constipation 
	Urinary retention 
	Postural hypotension 
	Sedation 
	Nausea
	Weight gain
132
Q

List some discontinuation symptoms of SSRIs.

A

Flu-like symptoms
Electric shock sensations
Headaches
Vertigo

133
Q

What is considered treatment resistance depression?

A

Failure to respond to 2 adequate trials of different classes of antidepressants at adequate doses and for a period of 6-8 weeks

134
Q

Which drugs can be used for augmentation if SSRI/SNRI was ineffective?

A

Atypical antipsychotic (e.g. quetiapine)
Lithium
Thyroxine
Buspirone

135
Q

How long do low-intensity psychosocial interventions go on for?

A

Roughly 9-12 weeks with follow-up

136
Q

How long do high-intensity psychological interventions go on for?

A

16-20 sessions over 3-4 months

137
Q

Which services should be used to manage mental health crises?

A

Crisis resolution

Home treatment team

138
Q

Which antidepressant is recommended in patients with comorbid medical conditions due to low risk of drug interactions?

A

Sertraline

139
Q

Which investigations should be considered in a patient presenting with depression?

A 
o	Collateral history 
o	Physical examination 
o	Bloods: FBC, TFT, U&amp;E 
o	Rating Scale: PHQ9, HAD, CDI (children)
o	Risk Assessment
140
Q

Which investigations should be considered in a patient presenting with mania/BPAD?

A

o Collateral history
o Physical examination (establish baseline state)
o Bloods: FBC, TSH, U&E, LFT, ECG
o Urine drug screen
o Rating scale: Young Mania Rating Scale
o Risk assessment

141
Q

What is the Young Mania Rating Scale?

A

Uses 11 questions with a total score of 60

Scores

142
Q

What is the therapeutic range for lithium?

A

0.6-1.0 mmol/L

Becomes toxic > 1.2 mmol/L

143
Q

List some features of lithium toxicity.

A
  • GI disturbance
  • Sluggishness
  • Giddiness
  • Ataxia
  • Gross tremor
  • Fits
  • Renal failure
144
Q

Outline the management of lithium toxicity.

A

Stop lithium
Transfer for medical care (rehydration, osmotic diuresis)
If overdose is severe, the patient may need gastric lavage or dialysis

145
Q

List some triggers for lithium toxicity.

A

Salt balance changes (e.g. dehydration, D&V)
Drugs interfering with lithium excretion (e.g. diuretics)
Accidental or deliberate overdose

146
Q

How should depression in BPAD be managed?

A

Antidepressant + mood stabiliser OR antipsychotic

Risk of precipitating mania

147
Q

How does the pattern of BPAD change with age?

A

Remissions become shorter and depressive episodes become more frequent

148
Q

What is the antidepressant of choice to treat the depressive phase of BPAD?

A

Fluoxetine

149
Q

List some features that suggest the patient is at high risk of attempting suicide again.

A

 Careful planning
 Final acts in anticipation of death (e.g. writing wills)
 Isolation at the time of the act
 Precautions taken to prevent discovery (e.g. locking doors)
 Writing a suicide note
 Definite intent to die
 Believing the method to be lethal (even if it wasn’t)
 Violent method (e.g. shooting, hanging, jumping in front of a train)
 Ongoing wish to die/regret that the attempt failed

150
Q

What is the a community treatment order (CTO)?

A

Allows being discharged from a previous section but on the agreement that certain conditions are met such as:
 Living in a certain place
 Going somewhere for medical treatment

151
Q

What is an IMHA?

A

Independent Mental Health Advocate
Advocate who helps the patient find out their rights under the MHA and provide support whilst detained
NOTE: patients on section 4, 5, 135 and 136 cannot have an IMHA

152
Q

What are the main components of mental capacity?

A

Understanding information
Retaining information
Weighing up the options
Communicating their thoughts

153
Q 
State the duration of the following types of section.
2
3
4
5(2)
5(4)
35
37
135
136
A 
2 - 28 days 
3 - 6 months
4 - 72 hours 
5(2) - 72 hours 
5(4) - 6 hours 
35 - 28 days 
37 - 6 months 
135 - 24 hours (up to 36)
136 - 24 hours (up to 36)
154
Q

Who can make a section 2?

A

Made by an AMHP or nearest relative (NR) on behalf of TWO doctors, one or whom should be section 12 approved (usually SpR or consultant) and one of whom should know the patient in professional capacity (e.g. GP)

155
Q

List some complications of bulimia nervosa.

A 
Hypokalaemia 
Dehydration 
Enlargement of parotid glands 
Dental caries
Mallory-Weiss tears 
Osteoporosis 
Russell's sign
156
Q

Why should antipsychotics be avoided in Lewy Body dementia?

A

They precipitate parkinsonism

157
Q

Under what conditions can activated charcoal be used for drug overdoses?

A

Oral drugs

Within 1 hour of consumption

158
Q

Which class of antihypertensive drugs are associated with causing a low mood?

A

Beta-blockers

159
Q

What is the risk of a patient presenting with mania developing a depressive episode in the future?

160
Q

How should benzodiazepines be withdrawn?

A

Reduce by 1/8 of the dose every fortnight

161
Q

Which benzodiazepine has the shortest half-life and what are the clinical implications?

A

Lorazepam - leads to worse withdrawal symptoms

Patients withdrawing may be switched from lorazepam to diazepam

162
Q

What is the optimum dose of venlfaxine recommended for GAD?

163
Q

Which medication is most commonly used for the treatment of OCD?

A

Fluoxetine 60 mg (high dose)

164
Q

What are the risks of using benzodiazepines in pregnancy?

A

1st trimester exposure is associated with cleft palette

165
Q

What is the most common cause of maternal death during pregnancy and the 1st year postpartum?

A

Suicide

NOTE: within 6 weeks postpartum it is VTE

166
Q

What is the mechanism of action of memantine?

A

NMDA receptor agonist

167
Q

What guides the prescription of acetylcholinesterases for patients with Alzheimer’s dementia?

A

MMSA 10-20

168
Q

What proportion of patients diagnosed with anorexia nervosa will make a full recovery?

169
Q

List some clinical signs of anorexia nervosa.

A

Constipation
Bradycardia
Hypothermia
Sensitivity to the cold

170
Q

List some biochemical consequences of bulimia nervosa.

A

Hypokalaemia
Hypocalcaemia
Hypotension
Reduced red cell count

171
Q

What is the first line antipsychotic medication used for the treatment of a psychotic illness?

A

Olanzapine (usually starting with 10 mg)

Maximum dose: 20 mg (minimum therapeutic dose is 7.5-1 mg)

172
Q

When is section 48 used?

A

For the transfer of an unsentenced prisoner to hospital for detention

Section 49 is a restriction order that can be applied by the Ministry of Justice

173
Q

Which assessment tool is used to assess the risk of violence?

174
Q

What is HoNOS?

A

Used to measure behaviour impairment, symptoms and social functioning
Used in severe mental illness

NOTE: GAS (global assessment scale) is a similar sale that assesses overall functioning in people with mental health problems

175
Q

Which assessment tool is used to assess for the presence of psycopathy in patients?

176
Q

What is overshadowing?

A

When a patient’s presenting symptoms are assumed to be due to an underlying learning disability rather than another, potentially treatable, cause

177
Q

What criteria need to be fulfilled to be able to discharge a patient with puerperal psychosis?

A

Developed some insight into the nature of the illness and is adherent with medication
No longer a risk to herself or the baby

178
Q

Which investigations/further management should a GP recommend for a patient with suspected Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Physical examination
Blood tests
Refer to old age psychiatry outpatient clinic (memory clinic)

179
Q

If a patient has a mild cognitive impairment, who is responsible for informing the DVLA about the diagnosis?

A

If mild, the patient should be encouraged to inform the DVLA
If the patient continues to drive despite advice to inform the DVLA, the doctor can breach confidentiality

180
Q

Which pre-existing conditions can be worsened by acetylcholinesterase inhibitors?

A

Peptic ulcer disease
COPD
Asthma
Cardiac arrhythmias

181
Q

Which medications can be used for the treatment of acute mania?

A

Atypical antipsychotic
Lithium
Valproate

182
Q

Define 1 unit of alcohol.

A

8 g of pure ethanol
10 ml of pure ethanol
Amount of alcohol that an adult can metabolise in 1 hour

183
Q

What are the features of alcohol withdrawal syndrome and how long after the last drink will it occur?

A 
4-12 hours after the last drink 
Coarse tremor 
Sweating 
Insomnia 
Tachycardia 
Nausea and vomiting 
Psychomotor agitation 
Generalised anxiety
184
Q

Which medications can be used for alcohol detoxification?

A

Chlordiazepoxide
Diazepam
NOTE: lorazepam can be used in cases of liver failure

185
Q

What is the FAST screening tool?

A

Consists of a subset of questions from AUDIT

A score of 3 or more is FAST positive

186
Q

Outline how a score from AUDIT is interpreted.

A 
20+ = possible dependence 
16-19 = high risk 
8-15 = moderate risk 
0-7 = low risk

Max = 40

187
Q

What counts as a ‘brief intervention’ for alcohol dependence?

A

5-10 mins of information

2-3 sessions of motivational interviewing

188
Q

Which medications can be used for acute alcohol withdrawal?

A

Chlordiazepoxide
Diazepam

NOTE: carbamazepine is an alternative

189
Q

Name two forms of nicotine replacement therapy.

A

Varenicline

Bupropion

190
Q

Describe the clinical features of opiate withdrawal.

A 
Appear 6-24 hours after the last dose 
Lasts 5-7 days 
Dilated pupils
Sweating 
Tachycardia 
Hypertension 
Piloerection (hairs on end)
Watering eyes/nose 
Yawning 
Cool, clammy skin (cold turkey)
191
Q

Which medication can be used for symptomatic relief during opiate withdrawal?

A

Lofexidine (alpha agonist)

192
Q

What is a major side-effect of chlorpromazine?

A

Skin photosensitivity (requires sunscreen)

193
Q

What is a carer’s assessment?

A

A free assessment that can be done by social services that conducts an interview with the carer and helps improve their ability to care for the patient

194
Q

List some symptoms of refeeding syndrome.

A 
Weakness 
Fatigue 
Rhabdomyolysis
Leucocyte dysfunction 
Respiratory failure 
Cardiac failure 
Hypotension
Arrhythmia
Seizure
Coma
This phenomenon usually occurs within four days of starting to feed again.
195
Q

Describe the pathophysiology of refeeding syndrome.

A

In starvation the secretion of insulin is decreased in response to a reduced intake of carbohydrates
Instead fat and protein stores are catabolised to produce energy
This results in an intracellular loss of electrolytes, in particular phosphate
Malnourished patients’ intracellular phosphate stores can be depleted despite normal serum phosphate concentrations
When they start to feed, a sudden shift from fat to carbohydrate metabolism occurs and secretion of insulin increases
This stimulates cellular uptake of phosphate, which can lead to profound hypophosphataemia

196
Q

Describe the features of benzodiazepine withdrawal.

A 
Nausea and vomiting 
Autonomic hyperactivity 
insomnia
Delirium
Seizures
197
Q

Describe the features of benzodiazepine use.

A 
Loss of coordination 
Slurred speech 
Decreased attention and memory 
Disinhibition 
Aggression 
Hypotension 
Respiratory depression
198
Q

Describe the features of amphetamine intoxication.

A 
Euphoria
Insomnia
Agitation 
Hallucination 
Hypertension 
Tachycardia
199
Q

Describe the features of amphetamine withdrawal.

A

Dysphoric mood
Fatigue
Agitation

200
Q

What is the difference between Fregoli and Capgras syndromes?

A

Fregoli: delusion that a persecutor is able to change into many forms and disguise themselves to look like different people
Capgras: delusional belief that a close acquaintance has been replaced by an identical double

201
Q

List some examples of MAO inhibitors.

A

Selegiline
Phenylzine
Moclobemide (reversible)

202
Q

What are the clinical features of the cheese reaction?

A

Severe hypertension
Tachycardia
Pyrexia
Tyramine is found in red wine, cheese, Marmite, broad beans)

203
Q

List some transcultural psychiatric disorders.

A

Amox - Malaysia - frenzied killing spree
Koro - Asian - fear of penis disappearing
Piblokto - Inuits - sudden-onset hysteria (screaming)
Dhat - Indian - semen lost in urine
Latah - North Africa/Far East - exaggerated startle, echolalia or obeying commands, amnesia
Susto - South America - severe depressive episode after a traumatic event (often accompanied by diarrhoea and tics)
Windigo - North America - body is possessed by spirit that craves human flesh

204
Q

List some causes of delirium.

A 
Infection (e.g. UTI)
Hypoxia 
Electrolyte disturbance 
Constipation 
Drugs 
CNS disease
205
Q

What type of drug is zopiclone?

A

Cyclopyrrolone

206
Q

What type of drug is mianserin?

A

Tetracyclic antidepressant

207
Q

Which tools are used to distinguish dementia from delirium?

A

Long Confusion Assessment Method (CAM)

Observational Scale of Level of Arousal (OSLA)

208
Q

Which low-intensity psychological therapies should be offered for GAD?

A

Individual non-facilitated self-help
Individual guided self-help
Psychoeducational groups

209
Q

Which high-intensity psychological therapies should be offered for GAD?

A

CBT

Applied relaxation

Endocrinology (27 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions